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S&F 1 > Cartilage and Bone > Flashcards

Cartilage and Bone Flashcards

1
Q

What do cartilage and bone have in common? How can they be differentiated?

A

Both

Abundant extracellular matrix

Cells inhabit spaces called lacunae

Bone

Vascular

Calcification

Stiff

Cartilage

Avascular

Resists calcification

Flexible

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2
Q

Undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into chondroblasts. What’s their significance?

A

Chondrogenic cells

They form the perichondirum

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3
Q

Mature cells of cartilage

A

Chondrocytes

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4
Q

How does avascular cartilage receive nutrients?

A

By diffusion through ECM

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5
Q

What type of cells do chondrogenic cells differentiate into?

A

Chondroblasts

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6
Q

Are chondroblast mature or immature?

A

Immature

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7
Q

From where are chondroblast derived?

A

Mesenchymal cells

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8
Q

Components of chondroblasts

A

Lipids

Glycogen

Well-developed rER

Golgi Appatatus

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9
Q

What are the two types of cartilage growth? What are characteristics of each?

A

Interstitial growth (replacing hyaline cartilage)

  • Mainly in immature cartilage
  • Chondroblasts in existing cartilage divide and form small groups of cells which produce matrix to become separated from each other

Appositional growth (addition of new layers)

  • Also in mature cartilage
  • Mesenchymal cells surrounding the cartilage in deep part of perichondrium (chondrogenic layer) differentiate into chondroblasts
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10
Q

Chondrogenesis pathway

A
  1. Chrondroblasts produce and deposit type II collagen fibers and ECM
  2. Chrondroblasts are separated and trapped within spaces in the matrix
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11
Q

Each isogenous group is enveloped by a __________matrix and separated by a ___________ matrix.

A

Territorial; interterritorial

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12
Q

3 types of cartilage. Characteristics of each.

A

Hyaline cartilage

  • Avascular
  • Perichondrium – absent in articular cartilage
  • Chondrocytes, ECM with type II collagen

Elastic cartilage

  • Avascular
  • Perichondrium
  • Chondrocytes, ECM with type II collagen and elastic fibers

Fibrocartilage

  • Generally avascular
  • No perichondrium
  • Chondrocytes and fibroblasts surrounded by type I collagen
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13
Q

How do fetuses and adults differ in terms of hyaline cartilage?

A

Fetus: Hyaline cartilage forms most of fetal skeleton before being reabsorbed and replaced by bone during endochondral ossification

Adults: Hylaine cartilage persists in adults as nasal, laryngeal, tracheobronchial, costal cartilage, and articular surface of synovial joints

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14
Q

What is the role of the perichondrium? What is the exception?

A

Covers surface of hyaline cartilage, except articular cartilage

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15
Q

Layers of perichondrium

A
  • Outer fibrous layer: contains bundles of type I collagen and elastin
  • Inner chondrogenic layer: formed by flat chondrogenic cells that can differentiate into chondroblasts
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16
Q

Which type of cartilage cells are active? Which type are not?

A

Chondroblasts are active

Chondrocytes are not active

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17
Q

Components of the ECM of hyaline cartilage

A

Aggrecan (proteoglycan)

  • Chondroitin sulfate (GAG)
  • Core proteins
  • Link proteins that bind to hyaluronic acid

Collagen II fibers

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18
Q

Role of aggrecan

A

Attracts nutrients and water that diffuse through acascular matrix via mechanical pressure

  • Mechanical pressure exerted: water leaves cartilage matrix
  • Mechanical pressure removed: water returns to cartilage matrix
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19
Q

Where can elasic cartilage be found?

A

ONLY in auricle and epiglottis

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20
Q

What differentiates elastic cartilage from hyaline cartilage?

A

Presence of elastic fibers

*Makes elastic cartilage very flexible and able to regain its original shape after deformation

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21
Q

Which cartilage type allows for the connection to bone?

A

Fibrocartilage

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22
Q

How does fibrocartilage differ from hyaline cartilage?

A
  • ECM: type I collagen fibers, low concentration of proteoglycans and water
  • Lacks perichondrium
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23
Q

Intermediate between hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue

A

Fibrocartilage

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24
Q

What parts of the body contain fibrocartilage?

A

Forms part of intervertebral disk

Pubic symphysis

Sites of insertion of tendon and ligament onto bone

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25
Q

Synovial joints are limited by __________

A

Connective tissue capsule

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26
Q

Layers of synovial joints

A
  • Outer layer of DICT
  • Inner layer, called synovial membrane
  • LCT = Loose Connective Tissue
  • Fenestrated blood vessels
  • Synovial cells
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27
Q

Role of synovial fluid

A

Reduces friction between articular cartilage covering opposing articular surfaces

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28
Q

The synovial membrane encloses the ____________, which contains ____________

A

Synovial cavity

Synovial fluid

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29
Q

Two disease causes by the weaking or degradation of the articular cartilage

A

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatiod arthritis

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30
Q

Articular cartilage is almost typical hyaline cartilage but it’s missing a few things, like:

A
  • Not lined by epithelium
  • no perichondrium
  • no endochondral ossification
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31
Q

What’s unique about articular cartilage?

A

They have a unique collagen fiber organization in the form of overlapping arches, which makes them able to sustain mechanical stress in joint surfaces

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32
Q

Osteoarthritis

A
  • Characterized by a loss of articular cartilage
  • Cause is unknown
  • Affects 50% of people 65 and older
  • In some forms, calcified deposits form in joints
  • Protease secretion is upregulated by chondrocytes
  • Treatments include anti-inflammatory agents, joint replacement
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33
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Inflammation of synovial membrane leads to erosion of articular cartilage and destruction of subjacent bone
  • (A) Key cytokines in driving inflammation: tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α), interleuking-1 (IL-1), and IL-6
  • Can be detected in synovial fluid
  • (B) Cytokines cells to release cartilage and bone-destroying matrix enzymes
  • (C) Secretion of collagenase and other enzymes by monocytes and macrophages
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34
Q

What is Pannus?

A
  • Pannus = inflamed, proliferating synovium characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis
  • Pannus invades cartilage and eventually bone surface à destruction of cartilage and bone, which leds to destruction of joint
  • Treatment: neutralization of proinflammatory cytokines by soluble receptors or monoclonal antibodies
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35
Q

highly vascularized and metabolically very active. Cartilage or bone?

A

Bone

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36
Q

What is unique about EMC of bone compared to cartilage?

A

Impregenated with calcium and phosphate salts

37
Q

Function of Bone

A

Resevior for calcium and phosphate ions

Movement and posture by provide attachment for muscles and tendons

Support and protection for body and its organs

38
Q

Compact bone (dense bone)

A
  • Appears as solid mass; external layer of bone
  • Arranged in osteons
  • Lamellae are found around periphery and between osteons
  • Central canals connected to each other by perforating canals
39
Q

Spongy bone also known as _______.

Characteristics

A

Trabecular or cancellous bone

  • Consists of network of bony spicules or trabeculae delimiting spaces occupied by bone marrow
  • No osteons; arranged in trabeculae
  • Major type of tissue in short, flat, irregular bones
  • Much lighter than compact bone
  • Support red bone marrow
40
Q

Major type of tissue in short, flat, irregular bones

A

Spongy bone

41
Q

What are trabecullae and what role do they play?

A

Bands or columns of connective tissue in spongy bone. They provide structure.

42
Q

Which bones in our body are long bones?

A

Clavicle

Humerus

Radius

Ulna

Metacarpus

Phalanges

Femur

Tibia

Fibula

Metatarsus

43
Q

Components of Long Bone

A

•Shaft or diaphysis (Medial)

  • Consists of compact bone forming a hollow cylinder with central marrow space (medulla or marrow/medullary cavity)

•Epiphysis (Distal)

  • consists of spongy bone covered by thin layer of compact bone

•Articular surfaces, at end of long bones, covered with hyaline cartilage (articular cartilage)

44
Q

Most bones are surrounded by _____________. What are the exceptions?

A

Periosteum

•Exceptions: articular surfaces and insertion sites of tendons and ligaments

45
Q

What is osteogenic potential? What components of long bone have this capacity?

A

Bone regeneration capacity

Periosteum; Endosteum

46
Q

Periosteum is made up of ________

A

Specialized connective tissue

47
Q

Marrow cavity of diaphysis and spaces within spongy bone are lined by __________

A

endosteum

48
Q

Endosteum is made up of

A

Squamous cells and connective tissue fibers. It extends into all bone cavities.

*When endosteal cells become activated they can function as osteoblasts

49
Q

Layers of periosteum

A

Outer fibrous layer

  • Rich in blood vessels and thick anchoring collagen fibers, called Sharpey’s fibers, that penetrate outer circumferential lamallae

Inner Osteogenic layer

50
Q

What are Sharpey’s fibers?

A

They are think anchoring collagen fibers, found in the periosteum of long bones, that penetrate outer circumferential lamellae and are also used to attach muscle to bone by merging with fibrous periosteum and underlying bone.

51
Q

Epiphyses are separated from diaphysis by a cartilaginous ______________, connected to the diaphysis by _____________

A

epiphyseal plate; spongy bone

52
Q

What is a metaphysis?

A

Zone of spongy bone that connects epiphysis and diaphysis

53
Q

Whta two components are responsible for the increase in length of long bone?

A

Epiphyseal plate

Metaphysis

54
Q

What are microscopic components of bone?

A

Lamellar bone

  • Spongy bone
  • Compact bone

Woven bone

55
Q

Lamellar bone

A
  • Typical of mature bone
  • With regular alignment of collagen fibers
  • Mechanical strong
  • Formed slowly
56
Q

Woven bone

A
  • In developing bone
  • Irregular alignment of collagen fibers
  • Mechanically weak
  • Formed rapidly and replaced by lamellar bone
  • Also produced during repair of bone fractures
57
Q

What is found at the center of each osteon?

A

Haversian canal

58
Q

What are the two orientations of vascular channels in compact bone, with regard to lamellar structures?

A
  1. Longitudinal capillaries running in center of osteon within Haversian canal
  2. Haversian canals are connected with one another by transverse or oblique canals known as Volkmann’s canals (containing blood vessels from the marrow and some from the periosteum)
59
Q

.Haversian canals are connected with one another by transverse or oblique canals known as ____________

A

Volkmann’s canals

60
Q

Components of Bone Matrix

A

Inorganic (65%) components

  • 85% deposits of calcium phosphate [Ca3(PO4)2]
  • 15% calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

Organic (35%) components

  • 90% collagen type 1 fibers;
  • 10% proteoglycans
  • non-collagenous proteins
61
Q

Components of proteoglycan

A

Chondriotin sulfate

Keratan sulfate

Hyaluronic acid

62
Q

What are the two different lineages of actively growing bone?

A

Osteoblast lineage

  • Derived from mesenchyme
  • Gives rise to oseogenic cells, Osteoblasts, and osteocytes

Osteoclasts

  • Derived from monocyte-machrophage lineage in the bone marrow
  • Gives rise to osetoclasts
63
Q

Osteoblasts

A
  • Epithelial-like cells with cuboidal or columnar shapes
  • Form a monolayer covering all sites of active bone formation
  • Are highly polarized cells: deposit osteoid (nonmineralized organic matrix of the bone) along the osteoblast-bone interface
  • Initiate and control subsequent mineralization of osteoid
64
Q

Steps of Bone mineralization

A
  1. Osteoblasts extrude matrix vesicles into their environment
  2. These vesicles release crystals of hydroxypatite that serve as “seed crystals” for mineralization

3.

65
Q

Role of alkaline phosphatase

A

An enzyme that degrades a calcification inhibitor, pyrophosphate

66
Q

Osteocytes

A

Highly branched cells with their body occupying lacunae (small spaces between lamellae)

67
Q

•When bone formation is completed, osteoblasts flatten out and transform into _____________

A

osteocytes

68
Q

____________ course through lamallae and interconnect neighboring lacunae.

A

Canaliculi

69
Q

Adjacent cell processes, found within canliculi (small channels), are connected by __________

A

Gap junctions

70
Q

How do nutrients travel in osteocytes?

A

•Nutrients diffuse from blood vessel within Haversian canal through canaliculi into lacunae

71
Q

Dense network of osteocytes depends on:

A
  • Intracellular communication across gap junctions
  • Mobilization of nutrients and signaling molecules along the extracellular environment facilitated by canaliculi running from lacuna to lacuna
72
Q

Differentiation of osteoblasts involve which 2 transcription factors. What are the roles of each?

A

Sp7

  • Expression induces mesechymal cells to differentiate into osteoblasts, and subsequently osteocytes
  • Inhibits chondrocyte differentation

Runx2

  • Scaffold for regulatory factors involved in skeletal gene expression
73
Q

Runx2 is also known as ______

A

Cbfa1

74
Q

Sp7 is also known as ________

A

Osterix

75
Q

•Several members of the _________ family and ___________ can regulate the embryonic development and differentiation of the osteoblast

A

BMP; transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)

76
Q

A pluripotent mesechymal cell can differentiate into which cells?

A

Osteoblasts

Muscle cells

Adipocytes

Firbroblasts

Chondroblasts

77
Q

___________induces expression of Runx2/Cbfa1

A

BMP7

78
Q

Cleidocranial dysplasia (CCD) symptoms

A

Hypoplastic clavicles

Delayed ossification of sutures of certain skull bones

Mutations in Runx2/Cbfa1 genes

79
Q

Which cells of the bone play a huge role in bone remodeling and renewal?

A

Osteoclast

80
Q

Osteoclast activity is regulated by which hormones?

A

Calcitonin

Vitamin D3

81
Q

Mechanism for bone degradation

A
  1. αvβ3 integrin—F-actin—osteopontine complex organizes the sealing zone resulting in isolation of resorption space from extracellular space
  2. Protons , generated by carbonic anhydrase II (CAII) activity, are transported through H+-ATPases present in the ruffled membrane and an acidic environment (pH ~4.5) mobilizes bone minerals
82
Q

The cytoplasmic electroneutrality of osteoclast is maintained by ________

A

Cl-/HCO3- exhange

83
Q

___________ is secreted by exocytosis and degrades bone organic matrix (collagen & non-collagen proteins) following solubilization of minerals by acidification

A

Cathepsin K

84
Q

•How do osteoclast get to bone region to resorb?

A
  1. Fatigued bones display microscopic regions of damage called microcracks
  2. Osteocytes near microcracks undergo apoptosis
  3. RANKL induces osteoclast activity by binding to its receptor
  4. Osteoclast activity is stimulated, followed by osteoblast activity
  5. Reabsorbs damaged bone and replaces it with new healthy bone
85
Q

Osteoclastogenesis

A
  • = osteoclast differentiation = process regulated by osteoblasts and stromal cells of bone marrow
  • Is triggered by two relevant molecules produced by osteoblast
  • (1) macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
  • (2) Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa B (NF-κB) ligand (RANKL)
86
Q

Osteopetrosis

A
  • Rare, autosomal dominant or recessive
  • In humans, osteopetrosis is characterized by high-density bone due to absent osteoclastic activity
  • In long bones, this condition leads to occlusion of marrow spaces and to anemia
  • Osteosclerosis (form of osteopetrosis): increase in bone mass due to increase in osteoblastic activity
87
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • = Loss of bone mass leading to bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures
  • Reabsorbed old bone >> formed new bone
  • Due to increased number of osteoclasts
  • Major factor is deficiency of sex steroid estrogen (e.g., postmenopausal woman)
  • Estrogen stimulates production of osteoprotegerin
  • Accelerated turnover state can be reversed by estrogen therapy and calcium and vitamin D supplementation
  • Also observed in men
  • Usually no symptoms until bone fractures
88
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Disease characterized by progressive softening and bending of bones

  • Softening because of defect in mineralization of osteoid
  • Can result from
  • Deficiency in vitamin D (for example intestinal malabsorption) or
  • Heritable disorder of vitamin D activation (e.g., renal 1α-hydroxylase deficiency in which calciferol is not converted to the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol)
89
Q
A

S&F 1 (25 decks)

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