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Manchester Progress Test > cards > Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the latin for head lice

A

pediculosis capitis

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2
Q

what is the spirometry pattern for PF

A

normal FEV1/FVC ratio >70%
but both values reduced

reduced transfer factor

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3
Q

what is the most common lung cancer in non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

usually normal bronchoscopy

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4
Q

what are the three main types of non small cell lung cancer

A

squamous cell

adenocarcinoma

large cell lung carcinoma

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5
Q

what are the features of squamous cell carcinoma

A

central (would see on bronchoscopy)

PTHrP (parathyroid hormone related protein) so hypercalcaemia

finger clubbing

hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

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6
Q

what are the features of adencarcinoma

A

peripheral

non smokers most likely to get this one

normal bronchoscopy

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7
Q

what are the features of large cell lung carcinoma

A

typically peripheral

anaplastic poorly differentiated
poor prognosis

may secrete beta hCG

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8
Q

what are the features of Bell’s palsy

A 
acute 
unilateral 
idiopathic 
facial nerve paralysis
most common in pregnant women

lower motor neuron lesion so forehead also affected

post auricular pain
altered taste
dry eyes
hyperacusis

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9
Q

what would a vesicular rash around the ear suggest

A

ramsey hunt syndrome

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10
Q

what is ramsey hunt syndrome

A 
shingles in cn 7 
near the ear
facial paralysis
hearing loss
vesicular rash around the ear
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11
Q

what is the treatment for bells palsy

A

no treatment or
prednisolone

supportive eye care

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12
Q

how can you differentiate between facial paralysis from a stroke and from bells palsy

A

stroke will usually spare the forehead

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13
Q

what are the features of prader willi syndrome

A

genetic disorder

newborns: weak muscles, poor feeding, slow development, floppyness

constant hunger

intellectual impairment
behaviour problems

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14
Q

what are some causes of neonatal hypotonia

A

neonatal sepsis
werdnig hoffman (SMA1)
hypothyroidism
Prader wili

maternal drugs (benzos)
maternal myesthenia gravis
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15
Q

what is the treatment for pseudogout

A

NSAIDS
Colchinine

methotrexate 2nd line
aspirate
steroids

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16
Q

what is pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate deposition causing microcrystal synovitis

caused by haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia , hypothyroidism, hypomagnesaemia, wilsons disease, acromegaly

normally affects larger joints eg knees
gout normally affects first MCP joint

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17
Q

what is zoons balanitis

A 
rash on glans and foreskin
no itch, pain or discharge
usually older men 
shiny moist, orange-red, well demarcated plaque
pinpoint lesions
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18
Q

what is lichen sclerosis on the penis

A

tip of foreskin develops a tight white ring which may cause phimosis

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19
Q

what is seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

rash on penis
itchy
not well demarcated

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20
Q

why is mastoiditis a medical emergency

A

risk of meningitis

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21
Q

sitagliptin

A

DPP4 inhibitor

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22
Q

what condition presents similarly to turners syndrome

A

noonan syndrome

23
Q

why do renal transplant patients have an increased risk of SCC

A

immunocompromised

24
Q

what is marjolins ulcer

A

SCC in an area of chronic inflammation

25
Q

which skin cancer is multipigmented

A

malignant melanoma

26
Q

where do basal cell carcinomas often appear

A

face, scalp, nose and ear (rodent ulcers with telangectasia)

27
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat whooping cough

A

azithromycin

28
Q

what do brisk tendon reflexes in a pregnant woman suggest

A

pre eclampsia

29
Q

what does pre eclampsia predispose to

A 
fetal prematurity and growth retardation
eclampsia
haemorrhage
cardiac failure
multi organ failure
30
Q

what are the risk factors for pre eclampsia

A 
hypertensive disease in previous pregnancy
CKD 
autoimmune
diabetes 
hypertension

> 40 years old
high BMI
family history
multiple pregnancy

31
Q

what is the treatment for pre eclampsia

A

labetalol
nifedinpine
hydralazine

32
Q

what is dacrycystitis

A

infection of the lacrimal sac

33
Q

what are the symptoms ofdacrycystitis

A

watering of the eye

swelling and eythema of the inner canthus of the eye

34
Q

what can concurrent prescription of trimethoprim and methotrexate cause

A

myelosuppression and pancytpaenia causing infection and bleeding

35
Q

which anaesthetic has the strongest analgesic effect

A

ketamine

36
Q

what are the features of propofol

A 
rapid onset
pain on injection
anti emetic
myocardial depression 
maintains sedation on ITU
37
Q

sodium thiopentone

A

very rapid onset of action
myocardial depression
unsuitable for maintenence
little analgesic effect

38
Q

what are the features of ketamine

A

induction of anaesthesia
strong analgesia
little myocardial depression
nightmares

39
Q

etomidate

A

cardiac safety
no analgesia
adrenal suppression
vomiting

40
Q

what is the autism triad

A

communication problems
impaired relationships
ritualistic behaviour

41
Q

what are the features of myometrial fibroids

A

menorrhagia
subfertililty
abdominal mass
sometimes pain

later: dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, sciatica

42
Q

what is the treatment for uterine fibroids

A 
tranexamic acid
NSAIDS
Progesterones
surgery
IUD
43
Q

how might ALL present

A

DIC- petechial rash

consider meningitis if pyrexia

44
Q

what are the symptoms of ALL

A 
anaemia 
neutropaenia
thrombocytopaenia
bone pain 
splenomegaly
hepatomegaly
testicular swelling
45
Q

what drugs could be used to manage AF

A 
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
digoxin
sotalol
amiodarone
46
Q

what conditions are associated with polyhydramnios

A

diabetes
anencephaly
twins
oesophageal atresia

47
Q

what conditions are associated with oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid)

A

pre eclampsia

48
Q

which oral steroid has the least amount of mineralcorticoid activity

A

dexamethasone

49
Q

what are the risk factors for meconium aspiration

A

post term delivery

50
Q

what is neonatal death

A

death between 1-28 days

51
Q

what is stillbirth

A

born with no signs of life after 28 weeks

52
Q

what are perinatal deaths

A

still birth and death within first 5 weeks of life

53
Q

what is early neonatal death

A

death in the first 7 days of life

54
Q

what brain problem can lead to torsades de point

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

Manchester Progress Test (15 decks)

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