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Manchester Progress Test > Cards > Flashcards

Cards Flashcards

1
Q

what are the side effects of tamsulosin

A

dizziness and postural hypotension

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2
Q

how can you catergorise urinary symptoms

A

voiding symptoms
storage symptoms
post- micturition

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3
Q

what are the management options for BPH

A 
watch and wait
alpha 1 antagonists
5 alpha reductase inhibitors
combination therapy 
TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate)
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4
Q

what class of drug is tamsulosin and alfuzosin

A

alpha one antagonist

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5
Q

how does tamsulosin work

A

decreases smooth muscle tone of the prostate and bladder

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6
Q

what class of drug is finasteride

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

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7
Q

how does finasteride work

A

blocks the conversion of testosterone to DHT which induces BPH
this can reduce the size of the prostate

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8
Q

what are the side effects of finasteride

A

erectile dysfunction, reduced libido, ejaculation problems

increases PSA levels

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9
Q

how is pre eclampsia prevented in at risk women

A

aspirin 75mg from 12 weeks

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10
Q

discribe BP changes during pregnancy

A

blood pressure falls in the first trimester until 20 weeks

after this BP usuallly increases to pre pregnancy levels

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11
Q

how is hypertension in pregnancy usually defined

A

140/90

or an increase from normal of over 30

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12
Q

what is pregnancy induced hypertension

A

hypertension in the latter half of pregnancy

no proteinuria or oedema

increased risk of pre eclampsia or hypertension

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13
Q

what is pre eclampsia

A

pregnancy induced hypertension with proteinuria

may also be oedema

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14
Q

what are the features of papilloedema

A

venous engorgement
blurring of the optic disc margin
elevation of the optic disc
loss of optic cup

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15
Q

what are the causes of papilloedema

A 
SOL
malignant hypertension 
intercranial hypertension 
hydrocephalus
hypercapnia
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16
Q

what is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea

A

e coli

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of giardia lamblia

A 
watery non bloody diarrhoea
bloating
apyrexial
dry mucous membranes
lethargy 
malabsorption
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18
Q

how do you treat giardiasis

A

metronidazole

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19
Q

what are the features of MND

A

upper and lower motor neurone signs

  • fasculations
  • no sensory signs
  • mixture of UMN and LMN
  • wasting of small hand muscles
  • no cerebellar signs
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20
Q

what are the features of C diff

A

usually occurs after prolonged antibiotic use in in patients
gram postive
treat with metronidazole or vancomycin

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21
Q

What organism causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

c diff

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22
Q

what are the features of c diff

A

diarrhoea
abdo pain
raised white cell count
toxic megacolon

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23
Q

what is thumb printing a sign of

A

bowel inflammation

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24
Q

what does QDS mean

A

four times a day

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25
Q

what are some features of GORD

A

delayed gastric emptying (40%)
impaired oesophageal clearance of refluxed acid
presence of columnar epithelium

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26
Q

what causes prothrombotic tendency in nephrotic syndrome

A

loss of antithrombin 3 in the urine
increased plasma conc of fibrinogen
increased plasma conc of factors 5, 7, 8, 10

increased risk of developing renal vein thrombosis

27
Q

what is nephritic syndrome

A

inflammation of the kidneys (glomerulus), with blood in the urine

28
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of nephritic syndrome

A 
haematuria
proteinuria
hypertension
blurred vision
azotemia
oligouria
29
Q

what are some causes of nephritic syndrome

A 
post strep glomerulonephritis
haemolytic uraemic syndrome
goodpastures syndrome
SLE
infective endocarditis
30
Q

what are the signs of nephrotic syndrome

A 
protein in the blood
low albumin levels
swelling 
anasarca (dropsy)
hyponatraemia
31
Q

what is anasarca aka dropsy

A

extreme generalised oedema

32
Q

what is mass effect

A

a growing mass (eg cancer or haematoma) that causes symptoms by pushing on or displacing surrounding tissues

33
Q

what is paraneoplastic syndrome

A

a syndrome caused by humoural factors released by a neoplasm or an immune response to that neoplasm

34
Q

what cancers commonly have associated paraneoplastic syndromes

A

lung
breast
ovaries
lymphatic system

35
Q

what is a lymphoma

A

cancer of lymphocytes

36
Q

what is the defining feature of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

reed sternberg cell

37
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

NK cells, T cells and B cells

main cell type found in lymph

38
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

not enough ADH

polyuria and polydipsia

39
Q

SIAHD features

A

too much ADH

oligouria

40
Q

causes of SIADH

A

too much release from posterior pituitary gland

release from an inappropriate source (eg a small cell lung cancer)

41
Q

what are the symptoms of a SVC obstruction

A

SOB
dilated chest wall veins
facial swelling
plethora

42
Q

why is albumin a good marker of liver function

A

only produced by hepatocytes

43
Q

what LFT is raised in billiary disease

A

ALP

due to it being synthesised in the biliary tree

44
Q

what pathology would you find unconjugated bilirubin

A

pre hepatic jaundice

45
Q

what pathology would you find conjugated bilirubin

A

hepatic or post hepatic jaundice

46
Q

what pathology would you find an elevated prothrombin time

A

vitamin K deficiency

47
Q

when would you request a group and save

A

elective surgery

involves identifying the blood group and cross matching for antibodies

48
Q

what ECG signs would you expect with hypertension

A

left ventricular hypertrophy shown by tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2.

49
Q

what is Conn’s

A

primary hyperaldosteronism - salt and water retention with hypokalaemia

50
Q

what causes Conn’s

A

adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

51
Q

where are phaeochromocytomas found

A

adrenal medulla

  • headaches
  • sweating
  • palpitations
  • weight loss
  • tremours
52
Q

what are the causes of phaeochromocytomas

A

MEN2
Von Hippel Lindau syndrome
NF1

53
Q

what is Von Hippel Lindau syndrome

A

autosomal dominant angiomatosis

54
Q

what are the features of familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

autosomal dominant condition due to mutation in the LDL receptor, causing elevation of LDL

increased risk of coronary artery disease

55
Q

abnormal extension (2)

A

decerebrate rigidity

56
Q

abnormal flexion (3)

A

decorticate rigidity

57
Q

what arteries supply blood to the lung parenchyma

A

bronchial arteries from descending aorta

58
Q

where do bronchial veins drain to

A

pulmonary vein

59
Q

what does the ductus arteriosis connect

A

pulmonary artery to the aortic arch

60
Q

what is the function of the DA

A

allows blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus’ lungs

61
Q

what is erythema nodusum

A

tender red nodules usually seen on the shins

inflammation of the fat cells

62
Q

what are some causes of erythema nodusum

A 
TB
mycoplasma pneumoniae
EBV
IBD
sarcoidosis 
cancer
63
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of sarcoidosis

A 
fatigue
SOB
weight loss 
erythema nodudosum
hilar lymphadenopathy
hypercalcaemia

Manchester Progress Test (15 decks)

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