Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCCEE > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What is the acute treatment of HF?

A 
Lasix - frusemide 
Morphine 
Nitrates
Oxygen 
Position - upright
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chronic treatment of CHF

A

Lifestyle: limit Na and fluid intake

Drugs

  • beta blocks and ACE/ARB for class II-IV
  • Loop diuretic
  • low dose spironolactone
  • daily ASA and statin if the cause is prior history of MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Which drug out of this has been shown to reduce mortality risk in HF? 
thiazide 
CCB 
spironolactone 
ACE
A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the symptoms of LHF?

A 
L sided S3/S4 gallop 
Bilateral basically rales 
Pleural effusion 
Pulmonary edema 
PND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the symptoms of RHF?

A

R sided S3/S4 gallop
JVD
Hepatojugular reflex
peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is systolic dysfunction

A

EF is reduced

L ventricular end-diastolic volume is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is non-systolic dysfunction

A

reduced ventricular compliance with systolic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are 4 side effects of loop diuretics (frusemide)?

A 
HypoCalcemia 
HypoKalemia 
Ototoxicity 
Dehydration 
Gout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are side effects of thiazide?

A

HyperGLUC

  • glycemic
  • lipidemia
  • uricemia
  • calcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are side effects of K+ sparing?

A

Hyperkalemia
Gynecomastia
Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most common cardiomyopathy?

A

dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to left ventricular size at end of diastole and systole in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

increase in size of both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to EF in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to left ventricular size at end of diastole and systole in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Decreases in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens to EF in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common cause of cardiomyopathy?

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which infections can cause a cardiomyopathy?

A

Cocksackievirus
Chagas
HIV
Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drugs can cause a cardiomyopathy?

A

doxorubicin
AZT
Cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does S4 suggest?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Aortic stenosis
Systemic HTN
Idiopathic hypertrophic sub aortic stenosis

atria contracting forcefully in an effort to overcome an abnormally stiff or hypertrophic ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy present

A

Crescendo-Decrescendo increasing with reduced preload

reduced preload = standing, Valsalvs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the treatment of stable angina?

A

ASA
B-blocker
NG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

U ain’t got enzymes with ….

A

Unstable Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When your patient is MOANing from an MI remember

A

Morphine
Oxygen
Aspirin
Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What patients have atypical MI’s?

A

Diabetics
Women
Post-heart transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the mainstay treatment of a STEMI?

A

Emergency angiography and PCI if within 90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the treatment of STEMI if it is after 90mn of symptoms?

A

thrombolysis but has to be within the 3 hours of presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the long-term treatment of STEMI?

A 
ASA 
ACE 
B-blocker 
High dose statin 
Clopidogrel (if PCI was performed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the side effects of statin medication?

A

Raised LFT
Myositis
Warfarin potentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are SE of fibrates?

A

GI upsets
Cholelithiasis
Myositis
Raised LFT

31
Q

What are the side effects of niacin?

A 
Skin flushing 
Parasthesia 
Pruritus 
GI upset 
RaisedLFT
32
Q

What is the definition of HTN

A

BP >140 and/or > 90 on 3 occasions

33
Q

what is the treatment goal for HTN in a patient who is over 60?

A

150/90

34
Q

what is the treatment goal for HTN in a patient who is less 60?

A

140/90

35
Q

What is the treatment of a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV labetalol/nitroprusside/nicardipine

Don’t lower BP more than 25% over the first 2 hours to prevent hypo perfusion

36
Q

What is the Conn’s disease triad?

A

HTN
HypoK
Metabolic alkalosis

37
Q

What is Conn’s Disease ?

A

Hyperaldosteronism

38
Q

What are the causes of pericardial disease?

A

CARDIAC RIND

Collagen vascular disease 
Aortic dissection 
Radiation 
Drugs 
Infections 
Acute renal failure 
Cardiac MI

Rheumatic fever
Injury
Neoplasm
Dressler syndrome

39
Q

What are the symptoms of pericarditis

A

Pleuritic chest pain
Cough
SOB
Fever

40
Q

What is the treatment of pericardial tamponade?

A

Volume expansion with IV fluids
Urgent pericardiocentesis

May need to do a pericardial window

41
Q

Commonest sites of aortic dissection

A

Aortic valve

Distal to L subclavian artery

42
Q

What are the symptoms of aortic dissection?

A

Hypertension

Asymmetric pulse and BP measurements

43
Q

What is the gold standard for imaging of aortic dissection?

A

CT angiography

44
Q

What is the treatment of aortic dissection?

A

manage BP

give beta-blocker before vasodilators

45
Q

What is a type A aortic dissection?

A

proximal to L subclavian artery

46
Q

What are the SE of ACE inhibitors?

A

ANGIOEDEMA
Cough
Rash
HyPERkalemia

47
Q

What are the side effects of Dihydropyridines

A

Headache
Flushing
Peripheral edema

48
Q

What drugs are dihydropyridine

A

Nifedipine
Felodipine
Amlodipine

49
Q

What drugs are nonDihydropyridines

A

diltiazem

verapamil

50
Q 
Which one of these nitrates is not administered sublingual? 
Isosorbide dinitrate 
Isosorbide monodinitrate 
Glyceryl trinitrate 
Erythrityl tetranitrate
A

isosorbide mononitrate

51
Q 
Which one of these nitrates needs to be dilated? 
Isosorbide dinitrate 
Isosorbide monodinitrate 
Glyceryl trinitrate 
Erythrityl tetranitrate
A

Erythrityl tetranitrate

52
Q

What is the name of angina that occurs lying down?

A

Angina decubitus

53
Q

What are the side effects of nonDihydropyridines

A

bradycardia

54
Q

What is the main side effect of amiodarone?

A

Thyroid dysfunction

55
Q

In what patients should PDE be avoided? (cilostazol)

A

CHF``

56
Q

What effect does Digoxin have on the heart?

A

Reduces filling pressure
Increases contractility
Increases CO
Decreases HR

57
Q

Fixed splitting of S2 suggests

A

ASD

58
Q

What is the commonest SE of aspirin

A

rigning in the ears

59
Q

What is the presentation of aortic regurgitation?

A

Blowing/descrendo diastolic murmur
Widened pulse pressure
3rd intercostal space on the L

60
Q

What is the presentation of aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur
split S2
Plusus parvus et tardus

61
Q

What is the presentation of mitral stenosis?

A

Mid-diastolic murmur at the apex

62
Q

What is the presentation of mitral regurgitation?

A

Holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla

63
Q

This presentation suggest:

  • Genital ulceration
  • Oral ulceration
  • Ocular involvement
  • Skin lesions
A

Behcet’s Syndrome

64
Q

Which disease has painless ulcers?

A

Syphilis

65
Q

What is the cause of axillosubclavian vein thrombus?

A

Repeated use of arm in a raised position.

66
Q

Which drugs reduce preload and after load?

A

ACE inhibitors
AngII
Nitroprusside
Prazocin

67
Q

Why should NSAID’s be avoided in HF?

A

Cause fluid retention

68
Q

What is a normal ABI?

A

0.9-1.2

69
Q

What is the ABI of someone with claudication?

A

0.7- 0.4

70
Q

What is the ABI of someone with claudication at rest?

A

< 0.4

71
Q

What is a normal EF?

A

55-75%

72
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A 
AV-block 
Thrombocytopenia 
Delirium 
Severe bradycardia 
Ventricular arythmie
73
Q

Which drugs are Beta 1 selective blockers?

A

Atenolol
Acembutol
Metoprolol
Esmolol (IV)

74
Q

What is the treatment of HTN in a patient who is having a stroke?

A

Monitor if < 220/120

MCCEE (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions