Cardiology/BW Flashcards
1
Q
What side effect might make a patient stop taking an ACEI?
A
Cough
2
Q
Define orthostatic hypotension
A
A drop in systolic BP of >20mmHg when standing up
3
Q
You feel a pulse that seems to be vibrating. What term do you use to describe it?
A
Thrill
4
Q
What are three things in your differential if you have a paradoxical pulse?
A
Cardiac tamponade, pericarditis, and obstructive lung disease
5
Q
On palpation, what size is normal for the aorta?
A
Less than 3 cm
6
Q
A fixed or consistent split S2 should make you think of what diagnosis?
A
Atrial Septal Defect
7
Q
A pathologthic S3 is most commonly associated with what diagnossis?
A
CHF
8
Q
If you hear a midsystolic click you should immediately be thinking about what diagnosis?
A
Mitral Valve Prolapse
9
Q
An opening snap on auscultation of the heart should make you think of what diagnosis?
A
Mitral Stenosis
10
Q
A continuous murmur most likely involves what area of the heart?
A
It is most likely a septal defect
septal area
11
Q
You hear a continuous machine like murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
PDA
12
Q
List three medications which may be used for a pharmacological stress test.
A
Adenosine, dobutamine, dipyridamole, and persantine.
13
Q
What is the gold standard for diagnosing coronary artery disease?
A
Cardiac catheterization
14
Q
Define stage 1 hypertension according to JNC 7
A
Systolic pressure of 140-159 and diastolic of 90-99
15
Q
What is the treatment goal BP for a diabetic with hypertension?
A
130/80
16
Q
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A
Chronic Kidney Disease
17
Q
No matter what medications you use, you are having trouble keeping a patient’s blood pressure under control You also notice hyperpigmented skin and truncal obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Cushing’s disease
18
Q
List three signs or symptoms which will likely be included in a description of a patient with a pheochromocytoma?
A
Thin, diaphoretic, tachycardic, agitated, and hypertensive
19
Q
You have a patient with the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. While waiting for surgery should you use an alpha or a beta blocker?
A
Alpha blocker (you should never use a pure beta blocker)
20
Q
A young boy comes into your office. He has elevated blood pressure when taken in his arm, but no palpable femoral pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Coarctation of the aorta
21
Q
According to the CDC, what is the range for a normal BMI?
A
18.5 - 24.9
22
Q
What is the first line medical treatment for stage 1 hypertension?
A
A Thiazide Diuretic
23
Q
After a thiazide diuretic, what medication should you start in a hypertensive patient who also has diabetes?
A
An ACE-Inhibitor or an ARB
24
Q
Following a myocardial infarction, what medication should you be using to treat hypertension?
A
Beta blocker
25
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea should make you think of what diagnosis?
CHF
26
What is the most common cause of CHF?
Coronary artery disease
27
What ejection fraction is typical for a patient with CHF?
35% - 40%
28
What is the most likely diagnosis for a young man who experiences sudden death while playing sports?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
29
Batwing vessels or Kerley B lines on a chest x-ray should make you think of what diagnosis?
CHF
30
A beta natriuretic peptide below what levels rules our CHF?
< 100
31
What is the therapeutic range for INR following a mechanical valve replacement?
2.5 - 3.5
32
What is the first line IV inotropic agent when dealing with cardiogenic shock?
Dopamine
33
What diagnosis is most likely in an IV drug user with a new heart murmur and fever?
Endocarditis
34
List two diagnoses which require antibiotic prophylaxis for "dirty procedures?"
Prosthetic valve, valve repair with any prosthetic material, prior endocarditis diagnosis, congenital cyanotic heart defect.
35
Does a patient with mitral valve prolapse require prophylactic antibiotics for dental work?
No, a recent change moves mitral valve prolapse from high risk to moderate risk.
36
What are the three major criteria for endocarditis?
2 positive blood cultures, a positive TEE, new murmur.
37
Which are painful and found on the fingers and toes, Osler nodes or Janeway lesions?
Osler nodes
38
List the 4 minor criteria for diagnosing endocarditis?
Fever, embolic event (janeway lesions or petechiae, splinter hemorrhages), immunological event (osler nodes, glomerulonephritis), 1 positive blood culture
39
What are the five components of Tetralogy of Fallot
| wait there's 5?, according to brian wallace there is
1. VSD
2. Over-riding aorta
3. Pulmonic stenosis
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
(5. Right sided aortic arch)
40
What is the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis?
Myocardial biopsy
41
Where do most aortic dissections occur?
The ascending or descending thoracic aorta
42
A patient complains of severe pleuritic chest pain that is worse when leaning forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pericarditis
43
What is the first line medical treatment for pericarditis?
NSAIDS and Aspirin
44
What is the name of the syndrome that involves pericarditis several days after a myocardial infarction?
Dressler syndrome
45
A patient presents to the ER with chest pain. An EKG shows diffuse ST elevations in almost all of the leads. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pericarditis
46
Define paradoxical pulse
There is a large difference in pulse pressure between inhalation and exhalation
47
Define pulsus alternans
EKG waveform changes from beat to beat
48
What is the difinitive treatment for cardiac tamponade?
Pericardiocentesis
49
On physical exam you hear a harsh systolic murmur along the right sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Aortic stenosis
50
A wide pulse pressure with a blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur at the right 2nd intercostal space should make you think of what diagnosis?
Aortic regurgitation
51
What is the best location to hear problems with the aortic valve?
2nd right intercostal space
52
Where is the disease of the pulmonary valve best heard?
2nd left intercostal space
53
What two antibiotics are used for empiric treatment of endocarditis?
Ceftriaxone + Vanco are 1st line empiric therapy
54
What two valvular issues do patients with Marfan's syndrome often have?
Aortic regurgitation and MVP
55
What are the two main causes of aortic stenosis?
Congenital bicuspid valve and calcification of the valve secondary to coronary artery disease
56
An elderly patient presents with dyspnea, angina and syncope on exertion. The EKG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Aortic stenosis
57
On auscultation you hear a harsh blowing pansystolic murmur at the apex. What is most likely diagnosis?
Mitral regurgitation
58
You suspect mitral regurgitation. What is the most accurate way to prove your diagnosis?
Transesophogeal echo
59
A patient with MVP will often have what physical characteristics? (gender and appearance)
Thin female
60
What is the best patient position to hear aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis?
Sitting up and leaning forward
61
What is Tietze syndrome?
Costochondritis
62
Are most pulmonary valve problems congenital or acquired?
Congenital (95%)
63
What is the therapeutic range for INR following an organic valve replacement?
2 - 3
64
A 60 year old male presents to the ED with severe dizziness and back pain. His BP is dropping and you can feel an abdominal pulsatile mass on physical exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ruptured aortic aneurysm
65
In a patient with aortic stenosis, will the PMI be medially displaced, normal, or laterally displaced?
It will be laterally displaced due to left ventricular hypertrophy
66
A patient complains of severe crushing chest pain. EKG shows ST segment elevations. All labs including troponins and CK-MB are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Prinzmetal's Angina
67
A question about Prinzmetals angina will often contain what key thing in the patient's history?
Cocaine use
68
Name two things that would constitute a positive stress test?
A drop in blood pressure, a new arrhythmia, an increase in angina symptoms, ST depressions
69
Are ulcers from venous insufficiency painful or painless?
Painless
70
A patient has just recieved a cardiac stent. how long will he be on aspirin and clopidogrel?
One year
71
Where is disease of the mitral valve best heard?
At the apex
72
What is the initial treatment for a myocardial infarction?
MONA - Morphine, Oxygen, Nitro, Asprin
73
Clot busting drugs should be used within 3 hours of which two cardiac events?
STEMI and new left bundle branch block
74
List three catastrophic complications of an MI?
Papillary muscle rupture, myocardial wall rupture, and left ventricular aneurysm.
75
An EKG shows a regular heart rate of 200 bmps. QRS is narrow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Supraventricular tachycardia
76
What is the most common cause of sudden death?
Ventricular fibrillation
77
Acute endocarditis is most commonly caused by what organism?
Staph Aureus
78
List three congenital heart diseases
ASD, VSD, Coarctation, PDA, TOF
79
What is the most common cause of an atrial septal defect?
PFO
80
Where on your patient should you listen for the murmur associated with an atrial septal defect?
At the left 2nd or 3rd interspace
81
A chest x-ray shows a "3" sign with notching of the ribs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Coarctation of the aorta
82
What is the appropriate treatment to close a patent ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
83
A Blalock procedure is used to correct what congenital heart condition?
Tetralogy of Fallot
84
You hear a loud, harsh pulmonary murmur along the left sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
VSD
85
Subacute endocarditis is most commonly caused by what organism?
Strep Viridans
86
What is the most common place for an aortic aneurysm?
In the abdomen and below the renal arteries
87
Who is more likely to have an aortic aneurysm males or females?
Males are 8 times more likely to have an aortic aneurysm.
88
The accessory pathway known as the James bundle should make you think of what syndrome?
Lown-Ganong-Levine Syndrome
89
What imaging needs to be done before taking a patient tot he OR with an aortic aneurysm?
CT (echo may be used as initial study, but CT is needed for surgery)
90
List two risk factors for an aortic dissection?
HTN, Marfan's, Bicuspid aortic valve, pregnancy
91
A patient presents to the ED with tearing chest pain radiating to his back. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Aortic dissection
92
What will a chest x-ray show for a patient with an aortic dissection?
Widened mediastinum
93
What is the best test to diagnose an aortic dissection?
CT
94
List the 6 P's of an ischemic limb.
Pain, parasthesias, pallor, pulselessness, poikilothermia, paralysis.
95
You have a patient with pulsus alternans. What two diagnosis should you be thinking of?
Pericarditis, pericardial effusion, and obstructive lung tissue.
96
A patient complains of pain in his leg when he walks. It goes away after sitting. What term comes to mind for his symptom? What diagnosis is it associated with?
Intermittent claudication. Peripheral arterial disease.
97
Giant cell arteritis is associated with what other disease?
Polymyalgia Rheumatica
98
A sawtooth pattern on EKG should make you think of what diagnosis?
Atrial flutter
99
What is the accessory pathway associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
The bundle of Kent
100
A biphasic P wave should make you think of what diagnosis?
Left atrial enlargement
101
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of giant cell arteritis?
Biopsy of the temporal artery
102
What is the treatment for giant cell arteritis?
High dose prednisone (one time, 60mg)
103
List the components of Virchow's triad?
Stasis, vascular injury, hypercoagulability.
104
Calf pain should always make you think of what diagnosis?
DVT
105
Where is disease of the tricuspid valve best heard?
Along the left lower sternal border.
106
What is the most common congenital heart disease?
VSD
107
Are ulcers from arterial insufficiency painful or painless?
Painful
108
Give two contraindications for using an ACE-Inhibitor
Bilateral renal artery stenosis, history of angioedema, pregnancy.
109
Both lead I and avF have positive QRS complexes. Does this represent normal axis, left axis deviation or right axis deviation?
Normal axis
110
What medication might you switch to if a patient develops an intolerable cough on an ACE-I?
ARBs
111
What class of cardiac medications should be avoided in patients with asthma?
Beta blockers
112
A boot shaped heart on chest x-ray should make you think of what congenital heart condition?
Tetralogy of Fallot
113
An RSR prime in leads V1 or V2 should make you think of what diagnosis?
Right bundle branch block
114
Which lab should be tightly monitored in a patient taking an aldosterone antagonist?
Potassium (they may have hyperkalemia)
115
What is the best test for diagnosing CHF?
Echo
116
Which cardiac medication is used to help with cardiac contractility after you have optimized most of the other cardiac medications?
Digoxin
| lookup dig toxicity symptoms
117
A blockage of which artery causes an anterior wall MI?
Left anterior descending artery
118
What lab result will increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity?
Hypokalemia or hypercalcemia
119
A patient presents to the ER in acute CHF. What drug class will likely be the first choice?
Loop diuretics
120
A patient has a GFR of 25 and HTN. Which class should you use, a loop or a thiazide diuretic?
A loop will work no matter how low the GFR is (Zero order kinetics?). Thiazides will only work with a GFR over 30.
121
Which EKG leads are used to diagnose an anterior wall MI?
V1, V2, V3
122
Do loop diuretics cause hyperkalemia or hypokalemia?
Hypokalemia
123
Statins are the drug of choice to treat what type of dyslipidemia?
Elevated LDL
124
A patient recently started taking Lipitor. He is now c/o aches and pains. What test should you order.
Serum Creatinine Kinase
| looking for Rhabdomyolysis
125
How does ezetimibe work?
Decreases intenstinal absorption of cholesterol.
126
Which hyperlipidemia medication may cause flushing?
Niacin
127
Name three medications "classes" which are indicated for reduction in LDL.
Statins, ezetimibe, niacin, and nicotinic acid
128
Name two fibric acid derivatives
Fenofibrate and Gemfibrozil
129
List the three class 1a antiarrhythmics
Disopyamide, quinidine, procainamide.
130
You are counting boxes from the peak of a QRS wave on an EKG in order to determine the heart rate. What would the heart rate be if the next QRS wave peak were three boxes away? What numbers are associated with the first five boxes?
The answer is 100. The heart rates by counting boxes are 300, 150, 100, 75, 60.
131
A U wave on EKG should make you think of what diagnosis?
Hypokalemia
132
What will the heart rate be if the AV node is pacing the heart?
40-60 beats per minute
133
Which cardiac medication has gynecomastia in its side effect profile?
Spironolactone
134
Lead I has a QRS that is up and the acF lead has a QRS complex that is down. Does this represent normal axis, left axis deviation, or right axis deviation?
Left axis deviation
135
An Osborne of J wave on EKG should make you think of what diagnosis?
Hypothermia
136
What is the first line medication for a patient with symptomatic bradycardia?
Atropine
137
What is the heart rate for tachycardia? How about bradycardia?
60 & 100
138
On EKG there is an early but otherwise normal PQRS complex. After that beat there is a slight pause and then a normal rhythm continues. What is the term for this one beat?
Premature atrial contraction
139
How do you treat polymyalgia rheumatica
Low dose prednisone
140
What is the management of a patient in supreventricular tachycardia?
Vagal maneuvers, carotid massage, adenosine
141
What is the first medication you should give for atrial flutter?
Adenosine
142
An 82 year old patient c/o headaches and jaw claudication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
143
The EKG shows a regular rate of 50 beats per minute. The QRS is narrow and there is no visible P wave. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Junctional Rhythm
144
Name a common cause of a junctional rhythm
Digoxin toxicity
145
An EKG shows two premature ventricular contractions. These two QRS waves look very different. What is the term for this?
Multifocal premature ventricular contractions
146
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?
Ventricular fibrillation
147
Tall peaked T waves should make you think of what diagnosis?
Hyperkalemia
148
How do you define 1st degree AV block?
The PR interval is longer than .2 seconds (or one block on the EKG)
149
What is the other term for Mobitz type I?
Wenckebach
150
What is the most important complication of giant cell arteritis?
Blindness
151
What two labs do you want to monitor in a patient on an ACEI?
Serum Creatinin and potassium
152
The HR is irregular so you can't count boxes between QRS waves to determine heart rate. What is another method you can use to determine heart rate on an EKG?
Count QRS waves in a 6 strip and multiple by 10.
153
What is the treatment for a patient with a Mobitz II AV block?
Pacemaker
154
You see regular P waves and regular QRS complexes, but they do not seem to have any correlation to each other. What is the diagnosis?
3rd degree AV block
155
Name on aldosterone antagonist
Spironolactone, eplerenone
156
You see a short PR interval and a delta wave on EKG. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Wolff-Parksinson-White syndrome
157
What two leads do you use to determine the axis of the heart?
Lead I and avF
158
An RSR prime in leads V5 or V6 should make you think of what diagnosis?
Left bundle branch block
159
Which finding requires immediate attention, left bundle branch block or right bundle branch block?
New left bundle block is a STEMI equivalent. RIght bundle branch block is usually not a problem.
160
What medication class is used to lower triglycerides?
Fibric acid derivatives
161
Tall peaked P waves should make you think of what diagnosis?
Right atrial enlargement
162
List two causes of right atrial enlargement?
Pulmonary HTN, severe lung disease, pulmonary valve stenosis.
163
Which EKG leads are used to diagnose an anterolateral MI?
V5 and V6
164
Which are the three inferior leads?
II, III, avF
165
A blockage of which artery causes a lateral wall MI?
Left circumflex artery
166
What is represented by ST segment depressions greater than 1mm on EKG?
Ischemia
167
Rheumatic fever most commonly affects which valve?
The mitral valve
168
What is the only cyanotic congenital heart disease on the NCCPA blueprint?
Tetralogy of Fallot
169
On EKG there is an early wide QRS complex with no associated P wave. After that beat there is a slight pause and then a normal rhythm continues. What is the term for this one beat?
Implanted defibrillator
170
On an EKG you notice a patient has a gradually lengthening PR interval and then a missed QRS complex. The pattern repeats again. What type of AV block is this?
Mobitz I or Wenckebach
171
List three side effects of Digoxin
Nausea/vomiting, anorexia, confusion, arrythmias (sinus brady, AV block), fatigue, vision disturbances, etc.
172
What is the first line medical treatment for Torsades de Pointes?
Magnesium sulfate
