Buzz Words/Challenge bowl Flashcards
1
Q
what is the only artery in the blood that carries deoxygenated blood?
A
pulmonary artery
2
Q
which Ab appears in serum early in the course of infection?
A
IgM
3
Q
What is the name for an acute polyneuropathy that is associated with an ascended paralysis, and may be triggered by infection?
A
Guillain-Barre Syndrome (absent deep tendon reflexes)
4
Q
What is trousseau’s sign? and what is it associated with?
A
tapping of the inferior portion of the zygoma will produce facial spasms. Hypocalcemia
5
Q
What is chvostek’s sign? and what is it associated with?
A
eliciting carpal spasm by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining the cuff pressure above systolic. hypocalcemia
6
Q
What should you advise your patients taking taking metronidazole not to do?
A
Don’t drink alcohol
7
Q
The most common heart valve involved in bacterial endocarditis in the general population?
A
mitral valve
8
Q
Thumb print sign, drooling, leaning forward
A
epiglottitis
9
Q
Best treatment for gonorrhea?
A
250mg IM cefttriaxone
10
Q
What is the most sensitive physical exam technique for for diagnosing ACL tear?
A
lachman’s test
11
Q
What is the R in MANTRELS scoring system? What do the rest of the letters stand for?
A
Migration to the right iliac fossa, Anorexia, Nausea/Vomiting, Tenderness in the right iliac fossa, Rebound pain, Elevated temperature (fever), Leukocytosis, and Shift of leukocytes to the left
12
Q
A pt with dermatomyositis may present with what distinctive rash?
A
heliotrope rash
13
Q
what is the most abundant protein in the human body?
A
collagen
14
Q
The most likely organism to cause an infection after a cat bite is?
A
Pasteurella multocida.
15
Q
The most likely organism to cause cat scratch disease?
A
Bartonella henselae
16
Q
Grey Turner’s sign
A
ecchymosis of the flanks. acute pancreatitis
17
Q
sister Mary nodule
A
GI cancer
18
Q
The most common pharmacologic Tx for reynaud’s disease is?
A
CCB
19
Q
Pregnant women should be test for group B strep during which week of gestation?
A
35th
20
Q
The most commonly diagnosed type of skin cancer?
A
Basal cell carcinoma
21
Q
Child with colic abdominal pain and red currant jelly stool
A
intussusception
22
Q
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
A
papillary carcinoma
23
Q
epidural hematomas usually are caused by injuries to which vessels?
A
middle meningeal artery
24
Q
Hypernatremia may result when patients with this disorder have limited access to water?
A
Diabetes insipidus
25
What is the most common type of testicular cancer?
seminoma
26
The condition in which the placenta completely or partially cover the cervical os is?
placenta previa
27
The center criteria are used to determine the likelihood of Strep pharyngitis. What are the four components?
FLAP = fever, lack of cough, pharyngeal exudates, anterior lymphadenopathy
28
A pt with RUQ pain and hx of recent STI may have what particular syndrome?
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis (liver capsule infection secondary to PID)
29
Charcot's triad
jaundice, fever, RUQ pain
30
Renald's pentad
jaundice, fever, RUQ pain, hypotension and confusion
31
A patient experiencing a lateral wall MI may have STelevation in which leads?
I, aVL, V5, V6
32
guttate psoriasis is closely associated with which type of infection?
Strep pharyngitis
33
Horner's syndrome
ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis
34
Auer rods
AML
35
which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle?
CN6
36
Name the risk stratification system used to determine the anticoagulation goals for pts with A fib.
CHADS2 score
37
An austin flint murmor is the mid diastolic heart murmur heard at the apex of the heart in patients with this valvular abnormality.
aortic regurgitation
38
The anti-rhythmic medication, amiodarone, can increase the risk of what endocrine disorder?
hypothyroidism
39
Arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis
Reiter's syndrome (reactive arthritis)
40
Narcissistic, antisocial, borderline and histrionic are all grouped together as?
personality disorders. particularly cluster B
41
non-caseating granulomas in the lungs, name the systemic disease.
Sarcoidosis
42
The interruption of the cardiac conduction cycle is characterized by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until an atrial beat is blocked
Wenckebach
43
Tetralogy of fallot
Right ventricular hypertrophy, VSD, overriding aorta and pulmonic stenosis
44
CREST syndrome stands for.
calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotilitiy, sclerodactyl, telangiectasia
45
HELLP
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
46
caseating granulomas
TB
47
Aganglionic large intestines
Hirschsprungs disease
48
Tram track appearance on Xray
bronchiectasis
49
virchow's triad
hypercoagubility, hemodynamic changes, endothelial dysfunction
50
Reed-sternberg
Hodgkin's lymphoma
51
positive bifringence, rhomboid
pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals
52
what test do you do for sjogrens disease?
schirmer's test
53
negative bifringence
Gout
54
Four muscles of rotator cuff
SITS = supraspinatus, infraspinatur, teres minor and subscapularis
55
positive finkelsteins test?
de quervain's tenosynoovitis
56
steeple sign
croup
57
sweat chloride test more than 60
cystic fibrosis
58
currant jelly sputum
klebsiella pneumoniae
59
rust colored sputum
pneumoncoccal pneumonia
60
eggshell calcifications
silicosis
61
hampton's hump
pulmonary embolism
62
westermark sign
pulmonary embolism
63
S1Q3T3
pulmonary embolism
64
parenchymal bullous, subpleural blebs
emphysema
65
most common cause of croup?
parainfluenza virus
66
What does CURB65 assess?
risk for mortality in community acquired pneumonia
67
What are the components of CURB65?
confusion, Urea more than 7 mmol/L, RR more than 30, BP sys less than 90, Diastolic less than 60, age over 65. More than 2 admit. more than 4 possible ICU
68
If you come across a question where the patient has erythema nodosum AND enlarged parotid glands, what diagnosis should you be thinking?
sarcoidosis
69
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and elevated ACE
sarcoidosis
70
non-caseating granuloma
sarcoidosis
71
What is Beck's triad and where does it appear?
1. hypotension, 2. JVD, 3 distant muffled heart sounds. Seen in pericardial tamponade
72
List the dermatologic signs of endocarditis
janeway lesions, roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, osier nodes
73
Kussmaul's sign
a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) on inspiration. It can be seen in some forms of heart disease and is usually indicative of limited right ventricular filling due to right heart failure.
74
S3, bibasilar rales/crackles, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
CHF
75
HACEK group
cause endocarditis - (Haemophilus aphrophilus; Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans; Cardiobacterium hominis; Eikenella corrodens; and Kingella kingae
76
cherry red macula
central retinal artery occlusion
77
hot potato voice
peritonsillar abcess
78
tear drop pupil
globe rupture
79
"blood and thunder" appearance
central retinal vein occlusion
80
curtain coming down
retinal detachment
81
red steamy cornea
acute angle closure glaucoma
82
drusen bodies
dry type macular degeneration
83
ramsey hunt
HSV associated with bell's palsy in the ear
84
A patient describes his vision loss as a curtain coming down and then going back up. What might the diagnosis be?
amaurosis fugax
85
skip lesions
Crohn's disease
86
cobblestone appearance
Crohn's disease
87
Bowel disease associated with anterior uveitis and aphthous ulcers
Crohn's disease
88
Child-pugh score
Assesses the prognosis of liver disease, typically cirrhosis using five criteria - 1. Total bilirubin, 2. Serum albumin, 3. PT INR, 4. Ascites, 5. Hepatic encephalopathy
89
what child-pugh numbers are associated with the worst one year survival (45%) and two year survival (35%)?
between 10-15
90
reynolds pentad
fever, abdominal pain, jaundice, confusion and hypotension
91
risk factors for cholelithiasis?
5 Fs - fat fair fertile forty female
92
Ranson's criteria
assess mobility of acute pancreatitis
93
rice water stool
cholera
94
blood and mucous/pus diarrhea
shigella
95
primary biliary cirrhosis
AMA (anti mitochondrial antibodies)
96
hutchinson's sign
A skin lesion on the tip of the nose precedes the development of ophthalmic herpes zoster.
97
ghons complex
TB
98
waterhouse-friedrich syndrome
adrenal failure due to bleeding into adrenal caused by severe bacterial infection (typically Neiserria meningitidis)
99
MCC of septic arthritis in sexually active
Neisseia gonorrhoeae
100
pontiac disease is cause by what organism?
legionella
101
red blood cell casts
glomerulonephritis
102
white blood cell casts
pyelonephritis
103
nephrotic vs nephritic
Nephrotic → protein loss. Nephritic → Blood
104
clue cells
bacterial vaginosis
105
fishy odor
bacterial vaginosis
106
strawberry cervix
trichomoniasis
107
lumpy-bumpy
acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
108
spike and dome
membranous glomerulonephritis
109
Snowstorm pattern on US, Grape Like vesicles on US
hydatidiform mole
110
boggy prostate
prostatitis
111
bite cells
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
112
heinz bodies
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
113
Hutchinson’s triad
Interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson’s incisors and 8th nerve deafness
114
6 "Ps" associated with compartment syndrome
1. Pain out of proportion
2. paresthesia
3. pallor
4. paralysis
5. pulselessness
6. pressure
115
3 D’s of epiglottis
drooling, dysphagia and distress
116
Which vessel?
Contralateral hemiparesis, worse in face and arm, than leg
Dysarthria
Aphasia/apraxia if dominant hemisphere, or sensory issues if non-dominant affected
Homonymous hemianopsia
Middle cerebral artery - Most common site affected
117
Which vessel?
Majority of frontal lobe function; poor judgment, personality, altered MS, contralateral extremity weakness (usually legs), urinary incontinence, grasp reflex; FRONTAL LOBE SIGNS
anterior cerebral artery
118
```
Which vessel?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (VF CUT)
Unilateral cortical blindness
Memory loss
Unilateral 3rd CN palsy
```
posterior cerebral artery
119
```
Which vessel?
Unilateral or bilateral CN deficits
Coma, death, resp insufficiency
Tachycardia
Labile BP
```
vertebrobasilar
120
Which vessel causes Amaurosis fugax
opthalmic artery
121
Which vessel?
Absence of cortical defects plus: isolated hemiparesis, dystonia, dysarthria, unilateral sensory defects, unilateral Parkinsonian signs
Lacunar infarcts
122
3 key areas used in cincinnati per-hospital stroke scale?
facial droop, arm drift and speech
123
Meningism triad
nuchal rigidity, photophobia and headache.
124
motor impairment in the left side of the body and a right-sided primary injury evokes motor impairment in the right side of the body
Kernohan's phenomenon
125
O'Brien's test
produces pain when the arm is adducted across the chest with the thumb pointed inferiorly, but no pain with the thumb pointed superiorly -- points to SLAP tear (If pain with both movements suspect an AC joint injury)
126
What test is used in evaluation of bursitis or biceps tendinopathy?
Speed's test
127
What test is used to determine anterior instability of the shoulder?
Apprehension test. though sometimes dislocation may lead to a SLAP injury, the O'Brien's test is more specific for SLAP injuries than the Apprehension test
128
What test is used in evaluation of biccipital tendonitis, and is pain in the biccipital groove with resisted supination?
Yergason's test
129
What test is used to increase suspicion for carpal tunnel syndrome, and is a reproduction of symptoms after having the patient hold one or both wrists in the fully flexed position for 30-60 seconds?
Phalen's test
130
What test involves the administration of a cholinesterase inhibitor, thus prolonging the life of Ach at the junction. The diagnosis is confirmed if the patient shows marked clinical improvement following administration of this compound
Tensilon test for Myesthenia gravis
131
What is the most common leading cause of drug related deaths in the United States?
Opioid analgesics (75.2%), benzodiazepines (29.4%), antidepressants (17.6%), antiepileptic & antiparkinsonism drugs (7.8%).
132
bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and polyps
cystic fibrosis
133
Well's criteria
Prediction Rule for Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
134
Kehr sign
acute pain in the tip of the shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity when a person is lying down and the legs are elevated. Kehr's sign in the left shoulder is considered a classical symptom of a ruptured spleen.
135
cyanotic congenital heart disease
5 Ts and H
Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
Transposition of the great arteries (d-TGA)
Truncus arteriosus (Persistent)
Tricuspid atresia
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)
136
Which of the following muscles contribute to form the pes anserinus tendon?
sartorius
gracilis
semitendinosus
137
exclamation point hairs
Alopecia areata
138
smudge cells
CLL
139
pleural fluid analysis suggestive of an exudative effusion?
Fluid/serum protein ratio > 0.5, and LDH ratio > 0.6
140
Horner's Syndrome is commonly associated with what?
small cell lung cancer
141
what is the most common subtype of ovarian cancer?
Epithelial cell
142
What is the most common lab result consistent for anorexia nervosa?
Nearly all patients with anorexia nervosa show decreased levels of T3, LH, and FSH. Other lab abnormalities that can occur include elevated levels of growth hormone, plasma cortisol, transaminases (12%), and serum cholesterol (50%). Leukopenia may also be present, especially if severe.
143
What can mimic mania?
1. AIDS
2. Cushing’s disease
3. Hyperthyroidism
4. Lupus
5. Multiple Sclerosis
6. Brain Tumors
144
What is the definitive treatment for subconjunctival hemorrhage?
Symptomatic treatment
145
The most common virus associated with the common cold is?
Rhino virus
146
The average lifespan of RBC?
120 days
147
Which antibody is produced first after infection?
IgM
148
What should a pt taking metronidazole be advised?
Do not drink alcohol
149
The most commonly dx type of skin cancer is?
BCC
150
A pt with a positive chovsteks sign could be afflicted with?
Hypocalcemia
151
The most common cause of conjunctivitis is?
Viral
152
Surgery can be curative for which inflammatory bowel disease?
Ulcerative colitis
153
An acute non-infectious granulomatous inflammation of the mebobium gland is called?
Chalazion
154
Hypertension associated with weightloss, sweating, tachycardia and hypotension suggests what dx?
Pheochromocytoma
155
Pts presenting with post-menopausal bleeding must be assessed for what?
Endometrial cancer
156
This endocrine disorder is associate with anovulation and hursuitism?
PCOS
157
A thumb sign on x ray?
Epiglottitis
158
In pts with acute narcotic overdose, tx?
Narcan
159
This is sometimes inserted into the inferior vena cava for prophylaxis against embolism?
IVC filter
160
The condition where the placenta partially covers the os?
Placenta previa
161
What type of rash of lupus?
Malar rash
162
What is the name of the enlarged supraclavicular lymph node caused by metastatic carcinoma of the stomach?
Virchows node
163
Hemotympanum on PE should raise your suspicion of?
Basilar skull fracture
164
Guttate psoriasis is closely associated with which type of infection?
Strep pharyngitis
165
In a pt who has overdosed on Tylenol, the appropriate loading dose?
150 mg/kg N-acetylcystine (mucomyst)
166
Which nerves innervate the diaphragm?
C3,4,5
167
A positive homens sign?
DVT
168
What was the first organ to be successfully transplanted in 1950?
Kidney
169
Over what age does the CDC received the herpes zoster vaccine?
Over 60
170
Name 3 of the bones that make up the auditory ausicles?
Incus, maleus, stapes
171
What is the most common type of testilucar cancer?
Seminoma
172
What sign makes up horners syndrome?
Pitosis, miosis, and anhydrosis
173
Hypertensive urgency is considered with a BP exceeds 220 systollic or 125 diastolic. What else is needed for the dx of HTN emergency?
End-organ damage
174
An Austin flint murmur is the mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex of the heart with this valvular abnormality?
Aortic regurgitation
175
Deletion of all four alpha globin genes in this hereditary disorder results in hydrops fetalis ?
Alpha thalassemia
176
This comc=lplication can result in hospitalized pts receiving anticoagulant and results in decreased platelet count?
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
177
The premature separation of a normally ?
placeta abrutio
178
What is the most common type of breast cancer?
Invasive ductal
179
Charcots triad includes?
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice
180
external hemorrhoids and internal hemmoroids are distinguished by?
Dentate line
181
T/F activated charcoal is effective in the overdosing of Iron?
False
182
The L in Mantrels stands for?
Leukocytosis
183
In pts suffereing from anterolateral MI?
V3, V4, V5, V6, AvL and I
184
what is the score guide to used to predict the lifkehood of stroke and guide anticoagulation therapy?
CHADS2 score
185
which of the following is best described by a superficial epidermal lesioncontaining clear fluid and measuring more than 1cm?
bullae
186
a pt with possible infectious endocarditis presents with painful lesion on the palms of the soles?
Janeway lesion
187
Impacted cerumen in the right auditory canal will have what result when performing a weber test?
Right sided lateralization
188
what type of rash commonly presents with a herald patch?
Pityriasis rosea
189
What does CREST syndrome stand for?
calcinosis, Reynaud’s, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyl, telangiectasia
