Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Buzz Words & Brian Wallace > Buzz Words/Challenge bowl > Flashcards

Buzz Words/Challenge bowl Flashcards

1
Q

what is the only artery in the blood that carries deoxygenated blood?

A

pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which Ab appears in serum early in the course of infection?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the name for an acute polyneuropathy that is associated with an ascended paralysis, and may be triggered by infection?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (absent deep tendon reflexes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is trousseau’s sign? and what is it associated with?

A

tapping of the inferior portion of the zygoma will produce facial spasms. Hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is chvostek’s sign? and what is it associated with?

A

eliciting carpal spasm by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining the cuff pressure above systolic. hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you advise your patients taking taking metronidazole not to do?

A

Don’t drink alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most common heart valve involved in bacterial endocarditis in the general population?

A

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thumb print sign, drooling, leaning forward

A

epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Best treatment for gonorrhea?

A

250mg IM cefttriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most sensitive physical exam technique for for diagnosing ACL tear?

A

lachman’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the R in MANTRELS scoring system? What do the rest of the letters stand for?

A

Migration to the right iliac fossa, Anorexia, Nausea/Vomiting, Tenderness in the right iliac fossa, Rebound pain, Elevated temperature (fever), Leukocytosis, and Shift of leukocytes to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A pt with dermatomyositis may present with what distinctive rash?

A

heliotrope rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most abundant protein in the human body?

A

collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most likely organism to cause an infection after a cat bite is?

A

Pasteurella multocida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most likely organism to cause cat scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Grey Turner’s sign

A

ecchymosis of the flanks. acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sister Mary nodule

A

GI cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most common pharmacologic Tx for reynaud’s disease is?

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pregnant women should be test for group B strep during which week of gestation?

A

35th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most commonly diagnosed type of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Child with colic abdominal pain and red currant jelly stool

A

intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

epidural hematomas usually are caused by injuries to which vessels?

A

middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hypernatremia may result when patients with this disorder have limited access to water?

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common type of testicular cancer?

A

seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The condition in which the placenta completely or partially cover the cervical os is?

A

placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The center criteria are used to determine the likelihood of Strep pharyngitis. What are the four components?

A

FLAP = fever, lack of cough, pharyngeal exudates, anterior lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A pt with RUQ pain and hx of recent STI may have what particular syndrome?

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis (liver capsule infection secondary to PID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Charcot’s triad

A

jaundice, fever, RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Renald’s pentad

A

jaundice, fever, RUQ pain, hypotension and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A patient experiencing a lateral wall MI may have STelevation in which leads?

A

I, aVL, V5, V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

guttate psoriasis is closely associated with which type of infection?

A

Strep pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Auer rods

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle?

A

CN6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name the risk stratification system used to determine the anticoagulation goals for pts with A fib.

A

CHADS2 score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An austin flint murmor is the mid diastolic heart murmur heard at the apex of the heart in patients with this valvular abnormality.

A

aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The anti-rhythmic medication, amiodarone, can increase the risk of what endocrine disorder?

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis

A

Reiter’s syndrome (reactive arthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Narcissistic, antisocial, borderline and histrionic are all grouped together as?

A

personality disorders. particularly cluster B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

non-caseating granulomas in the lungs, name the systemic disease.

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The interruption of the cardiac conduction cycle is characterized by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until an atrial beat is blocked

A

Wenckebach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tetralogy of fallot

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy, VSD, overriding aorta and pulmonic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CREST syndrome stands for.

A

calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal dysmotilitiy, sclerodactyl, telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HELLP

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

caseating granulomas

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Aganglionic large intestines

A

Hirschsprungs disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tram track appearance on Xray

A

bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

virchow’s triad

A

hypercoagubility, hemodynamic changes, endothelial dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Reed-sternberg

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

positive bifringence, rhomboid

A

pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what test do you do for sjogrens disease?

A

schirmer’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

negative bifringence

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Four muscles of rotator cuff

A

SITS = supraspinatus, infraspinatur, teres minor and subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

positive finkelsteins test?

A

de quervain’s tenosynoovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

steeple sign

A

croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

sweat chloride test more than 60

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

rust colored sputum

A

pneumoncoccal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

eggshell calcifications

A

silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hampton’s hump

A

pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

westermark sign

A

pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

S1Q3T3

A

pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

parenchymal bullous, subpleural blebs

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

most common cause of croup?

A

parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does CURB65 assess?

A

risk for mortality in community acquired pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the components of CURB65?

A

confusion, Urea more than 7 mmol/L, RR more than 30, BP sys less than 90, Diastolic less than 60, age over 65. More than 2 admit. more than 4 possible ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If you come across a question where the patient has erythema nodosum AND enlarged parotid glands, what diagnosis should you be thinking?

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and elevated ACE

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

non-caseating granuloma

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is Beck’s triad and where does it appear?

A
  1. hypotension, 2. JVD, 3 distant muffled heart sounds. Seen in pericardial tamponade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

List the dermatologic signs of endocarditis

A

janeway lesions, roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, osier nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

a paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure (JVP) on inspiration. It can be seen in some forms of heart disease and is usually indicative of limited right ventricular filling due to right heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

S3, bibasilar rales/crackles, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

HACEK group

A

cause endocarditis - (Haemophilus aphrophilus; Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans; Cardiobacterium hominis; Eikenella corrodens; and Kingella kingae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

cherry red macula

A

central retinal artery occlusion

77
Q

hot potato voice

A

peritonsillar abcess

78
Q

tear drop pupil

A

globe rupture

79
Q

“blood and thunder” appearance

A

central retinal vein occlusion

80
Q

curtain coming down

A

retinal detachment

81
Q

red steamy cornea

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

82
Q

drusen bodies

A

dry type macular degeneration

83
Q

ramsey hunt

A

HSV associated with bell’s palsy in the ear

84
Q

A patient describes his vision loss as a curtain coming down and then going back up. What might the diagnosis be?

A

amaurosis fugax

85
Q

skip lesions

A

Crohn’s disease

86
Q

cobblestone appearance

A

Crohn’s disease

87
Q

Bowel disease associated with anterior uveitis and aphthous ulcers

A

Crohn’s disease

88
Q

Child-pugh score

A

Assesses the prognosis of liver disease, typically cirrhosis using five criteria - 1. Total bilirubin, 2. Serum albumin, 3. PT INR, 4. Ascites, 5. Hepatic encephalopathy

89
Q

what child-pugh numbers are associated with the worst one year survival (45%) and two year survival (35%)?

A

between 10-15

90
Q

reynolds pentad

A

fever, abdominal pain, jaundice, confusion and hypotension

91
Q

risk factors for cholelithiasis?

A

5 Fs - fat fair fertile forty female

92
Q

Ranson’s criteria

A

assess mobility of acute pancreatitis

93
Q

rice water stool

A

cholera

94
Q

blood and mucous/pus diarrhea

A

shigella

95
Q

primary biliary cirrhosis

A

AMA (anti mitochondrial antibodies)

96
Q

hutchinson’s sign

A

A skin lesion on the tip of the nose precedes the development of ophthalmic herpes zoster.

97
Q

ghons complex

A

TB

98
Q

waterhouse-friedrich syndrome

A

adrenal failure due to bleeding into adrenal caused by severe bacterial infection (typically Neiserria meningitidis)

99
Q

MCC of septic arthritis in sexually active

A

Neisseia gonorrhoeae

100
Q

pontiac disease is cause by what organism?

A

legionella

101
Q

red blood cell casts

A

glomerulonephritis

102
Q

white blood cell casts

A

pyelonephritis

103
Q

nephrotic vs nephritic

A

Nephrotic → protein loss. Nephritic → Blood

104
Q

clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

105
Q

fishy odor

A

bacterial vaginosis

106
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomoniasis

107
Q

lumpy-bumpy

A

acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

108
Q

spike and dome

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

109
Q

Snowstorm pattern on US, Grape Like vesicles on US

A

hydatidiform mole

110
Q

boggy prostate

A

prostatitis

111
Q

bite cells

A

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

112
Q

heinz bodies

A

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

113
Q

Hutchinson’s triad

A

Interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson’s incisors and 8th nerve deafness

114
Q

6 “Ps” associated with compartment syndrome

A
  1. Pain out of proportion
  2. paresthesia
  3. pallor
  4. paralysis
  5. pulselessness
  6. pressure
115
Q

3 D’s of epiglottis

A

drooling, dysphagia and distress

116
Q

Which vessel?
Contralateral hemiparesis, worse in face and arm, than leg
Dysarthria
Aphasia/apraxia if dominant hemisphere, or sensory issues if non-dominant affected
Homonymous hemianopsia

A

Middle cerebral artery - Most common site affected

117
Q

Which vessel?
Majority of frontal lobe function; poor judgment, personality, altered MS, contralateral extremity weakness (usually legs), urinary incontinence, grasp reflex; FRONTAL LOBE SIGNS

A

anterior cerebral artery

118
Q 
Which vessel?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (VF CUT)
Unilateral cortical blindness
Memory loss
Unilateral 3rd CN palsy
A

posterior cerebral artery

119
Q 
Which vessel?
Unilateral or bilateral CN deficits
Coma, death, resp insufficiency 
Tachycardia
Labile BP
A

vertebrobasilar

120
Q

Which vessel causes Amaurosis fugax

A

opthalmic artery

121
Q

Which vessel?
Absence of cortical defects plus: isolated hemiparesis, dystonia, dysarthria, unilateral sensory defects, unilateral Parkinsonian signs

A

Lacunar infarcts

122
Q

3 key areas used in cincinnati per-hospital stroke scale?

A

facial droop, arm drift and speech

123
Q

Meningism triad

A

nuchal rigidity, photophobia and headache.

124
Q

motor impairment in the left side of the body and a right-sided primary injury evokes motor impairment in the right side of the body

A

Kernohan’s phenomenon

125
Q

O’Brien’s test

A

produces pain when the arm is adducted across the chest with the thumb pointed inferiorly, but no pain with the thumb pointed superiorly – points to SLAP tear (If pain with both movements suspect an AC joint injury)

126
Q

What test is used in evaluation of bursitis or biceps tendinopathy?

A

Speed’s test

127
Q

What test is used to determine anterior instability of the shoulder?

A

Apprehension test. though sometimes dislocation may lead to a SLAP injury, the O’Brien’s test is more specific for SLAP injuries than the Apprehension test

128
Q

What test is used in evaluation of biccipital tendonitis, and is pain in the biccipital groove with resisted supination?

A

Yergason’s test

129
Q

What test is used to increase suspicion for carpal tunnel syndrome, and is a reproduction of symptoms after having the patient hold one or both wrists in the fully flexed position for 30-60 seconds?

A

Phalen’s test

130
Q

What test involves the administration of a cholinesterase inhibitor, thus prolonging the life of Ach at the junction. The diagnosis is confirmed if the patient shows marked clinical improvement following administration of this compound

A

Tensilon test for Myesthenia gravis

131
Q

What is the most common leading cause of drug related deaths in the United States?

A

Opioid analgesics (75.2%), benzodiazepines (29.4%), antidepressants (17.6%), antiepileptic & antiparkinsonism drugs (7.8%).

132
Q

bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and polyps

A

cystic fibrosis

133
Q

Well’s criteria

A

Prediction Rule for Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

134
Q

Kehr sign

A

acute pain in the tip of the shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity when a person is lying down and the legs are elevated. Kehr’s sign in the left shoulder is considered a classical symptom of a ruptured spleen.

135
Q

cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

5 Ts and H
Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
Transposition of the great arteries (d-TGA)
Truncus arteriosus (Persistent)
Tricuspid atresia
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)

136
Q

Which of the following muscles contribute to form the pes anserinus tendon?

A

sartorius
gracilis
semitendinosus

137
Q

exclamation point hairs

A

Alopecia areata

138
Q

smudge cells

A

CLL

139
Q

pleural fluid analysis suggestive of an exudative effusion?

A

Fluid/serum protein ratio > 0.5, and LDH ratio > 0.6

140
Q

Horner’s Syndrome is commonly associated with what?

A

small cell lung cancer

141
Q

what is the most common subtype of ovarian cancer?

A

Epithelial cell

142
Q

What is the most common lab result consistent for anorexia nervosa?

A

Nearly all patients with anorexia nervosa show decreased levels of T3, LH, and FSH. Other lab abnormalities that can occur include elevated levels of growth hormone, plasma cortisol, transaminases (12%), and serum cholesterol (50%). Leukopenia may also be present, especially if severe.

143
Q

What can mimic mania?

A
  1. AIDS
  2. Cushing’s disease
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Lupus
  5. Multiple Sclerosis
  6. Brain Tumors
144
Q

What is the definitive treatment for subconjunctival hemorrhage?

A

Symptomatic treatment

145
Q

The most common virus associated with the common cold is?

A

Rhino virus

146
Q

The average lifespan of RBC?

A

120 days

147
Q

Which antibody is produced first after infection?

A

IgM

148
Q

What should a pt taking metronidazole be advised?

A

Do not drink alcohol

149
Q

The most commonly dx type of skin cancer is?

A

BCC

150
Q

A pt with a positive chovsteks sign could be afflicted with?

A

Hypocalcemia

151
Q

The most common cause of conjunctivitis is?

A

Viral

152
Q

Surgery can be curative for which inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Ulcerative colitis

153
Q

An acute non-infectious granulomatous inflammation of the mebobium gland is called?

A

Chalazion

154
Q

Hypertension associated with weightloss, sweating, tachycardia and hypotension suggests what dx?

A

Pheochromocytoma

155
Q

Pts presenting with post-menopausal bleeding must be assessed for what?

A

Endometrial cancer

156
Q

This endocrine disorder is associate with anovulation and hursuitism?

A

PCOS

157
Q

A thumb sign on x ray?

A

Epiglottitis

158
Q

In pts with acute narcotic overdose, tx?

A

Narcan

159
Q

This is sometimes inserted into the inferior vena cava for prophylaxis against embolism?

A

IVC filter

160
Q

The condition where the placenta partially covers the os?

A

Placenta previa

161
Q

What type of rash of lupus?

A

Malar rash

162
Q

What is the name of the enlarged supraclavicular lymph node caused by metastatic carcinoma of the stomach?

A

Virchows node

163
Q

Hemotympanum on PE should raise your suspicion of?

A

Basilar skull fracture

164
Q

Guttate psoriasis is closely associated with which type of infection?

A

Strep pharyngitis

165
Q

In a pt who has overdosed on Tylenol, the appropriate loading dose?

A

150 mg/kg N-acetylcystine (mucomyst)

166
Q

Which nerves innervate the diaphragm?

A

C3,4,5

167
Q

A positive homens sign?

A

DVT

168
Q

What was the first organ to be successfully transplanted in 1950?

A

Kidney

169
Q

Over what age does the CDC received the herpes zoster vaccine?

A

Over 60

170
Q

Name 3 of the bones that make up the auditory ausicles?

A

Incus, maleus, stapes

171
Q

What is the most common type of testilucar cancer?

A

Seminoma

172
Q

What sign makes up horners syndrome?

A

Pitosis, miosis, and anhydrosis

173
Q

Hypertensive urgency is considered with a BP exceeds 220 systollic or 125 diastolic. What else is needed for the dx of HTN emergency?

A

End-organ damage

174
Q

An Austin flint murmur is the mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex of the heart with this valvular abnormality?

A

Aortic regurgitation

175
Q

Deletion of all four alpha globin genes in this hereditary disorder results in hydrops fetalis ?

A

Alpha thalassemia

176
Q

This comc=lplication can result in hospitalized pts receiving anticoagulant and results in decreased platelet count?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

177
Q

The premature separation of a normally ?

A

placeta abrutio

178
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal

179
Q

Charcots triad includes?

A

RUQ pain, fever, jaundice

180
Q

external hemorrhoids and internal hemmoroids are distinguished by?

A

Dentate line

181
Q

T/F activated charcoal is effective in the overdosing of Iron?

A

False

182
Q

The L in Mantrels stands for?

A

Leukocytosis

183
Q

In pts suffereing from anterolateral MI?

A

V3, V4, V5, V6, AvL and I

184
Q

what is the score guide to used to predict the lifkehood of stroke and guide anticoagulation therapy?

A

CHADS2 score

185
Q

which of the following is best described by a superficial epidermal lesioncontaining clear fluid and measuring more than 1cm?

A

bullae

186
Q

a pt with possible infectious endocarditis presents with painful lesion on the palms of the soles?

A

Janeway lesion

187
Q

Impacted cerumen in the right auditory canal will have what result when performing a weber test?

A

Right sided lateralization

188
Q

what type of rash commonly presents with a herald patch?

A

Pityriasis rosea

189
Q

What does CREST syndrome stand for?

A

calcinosis, Reynaud’s, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyl, telangiectasia

Buzz Words & Brian Wallace (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions