Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms of AF?

A

palpitations, chest pain, SOB, dizziness, irregularly irregular pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for AF

A

apixaban, warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is rhythm control for AF?

A

LMWH, amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is rate control for AF?

A

B-blocker, digoxin, anti-coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for unstable AF?

A

DC cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

A

Calcium gluconate via IV injection, then insulin and dextrose, then nebuliser salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalaemia from impaired excretion?

A

AKI, CKD, ACEi, potassium sparing diuretics, NSAIDs, LMWH, Ciclosporin, Hypoaldosteronism, Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalaemia from increased release from cells?

A

Lactic acidosis, insulin deficiency, haemolysis, Digoxin toxicity, beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes Torsades de pointes and how do you treat it?

A

VT - caused by meds/long QT syndrome
DC shock, then IV amiodarone, then once stable, IV magnesium sulphate, remove drugs and correct electrolyte abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes of systolic HF?

A

IHD, dilated cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, infiltration, HTN

Use EF to assess severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of diastolic HF?

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, restrictive cardiomyopathy, cardiac tamponade, constructive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of high-output HF?

A

Anaemia, AV malformation, Paget’s disease, pregnancy, thyrotoxicosis, thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the signs of LHF?

A

Pulmonary congestion and systemic hypoperfusion

Cor pulmonale, SOB, orthopnoea, PND, nocturnal cough, tachpnoea, bibasal fine crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the signs of RHF?

A

Venous congestion and systemic hypoperfusion

Ankle swelling, weight gain, abdo distension, anorexia/nausea, increased JVP, peripheral oedema, ascites, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What investigations are done for HF?

A

ECG, BNP (releases by ventricles in response to myocardial stretch).
Echo - ventricular dysfunction
Chest X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is seen on a chest X-ray for HF?

A 
Alveolar collapse
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Upper lobe diversion
Pleural effusion
Fluid in horizontal fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What interventions are given for HF patients.

A

Smoking cessation, decreased salt and fluid intake, cardiac rehabilitation
Pharmacological: ACEi and beta-blocker, loop diuretic, aldosterone antagonists, Digoxin
Surgical: ICD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute mitral regurgitatation?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, pulmonary oedema
SOB, exertional dyspnoea, fatigue, weakness
2-10 days post-MI, medical emergency - need valve repair and replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of malignant HTN?

What other conditions can it lead to?

A

Headache and blurry vision (papilloedema in both eyes)
BP > 180/120
Symptomatic, end organ damage, intracranial haemorrhages, raised ICP, aortic dissection and AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of myocarditis?

A

Chest pain, ECG changes, raised troponin, Hx of viral illness, fatigue, palpitations, symptoms of HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does HOCM present?

A

Asymptomatic, young exertion syncope, SOB, chest pain, palpitations, HF, double apex pulse, ejection systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the signs of aortic regurgitation?

A

Wide pulse pressure, decreased DBP, high pulse pressure, early diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What treatment is given in an anterior STEMI?

A

Aspirin 300mg (anti-thrombotic and analgesic)
GTN, IV morphine
PCI if less than 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is seen in hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Flare haemorrhages and cotton wool spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you assess stable angina?

A

CT coronary angiography, then stress Echo/MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the diagnosis and management if a pt presents with SOB, chest pain, worse on coughing and a STEMI 3 weeks ago

A

Pericarditis/Dressler’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is seen in a JVP with complete heart block?

A

Cannon A-wave (atrial contraction against closed tricuspid valve)

28
Q

After what conditions is Mobitz type 2 likely to present?

A

MI, mitral valve repair, rheumatic heart disease

29
Q

What are some causes of first degree heart block?

A

athlete, MI, electrolyte disturbance, B-blocker, CCB, digoxin

30
Q

What treatment is given in orthostatic hypotension?

A

Fludrocortisone and midrodrine (increase renal Na+ reabsorption)

31
Q

What can be given within 6 hours after an inferior STEMI?

A

IV tenecteplase (fibrinolysis), PCI is done within 2 hours

32
Q

What is the management for fast AF?

A 
DC cardioversion (due to adverse features, e.g. syncope, HF, myocardial ischaemia and shock)
B-blocker if there are no adverse features
33
Q

What are the signs of aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur, radiates to carotids on inspiration, narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, syncope, angina, dyspnoea
Severe: peak trans-valvular pressure gradient over 40 mmHg

34
Q

What 3 things could a pan-systolic murmur be?

A

Mitral regurgitation - loudest at apex, radiates to axilla, loudest on expiration
Tricuspid regurgitation - loudest at left sternal edge on inspiration
Ventricular septal defect - loudest at left sternal edge, common in Down’s

35
Q

What is the main causative agent for infective endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, found on skin, can enter through IV needles

36
Q

What is a side-effect of statins?

A

Rhabdomyolosis - pain/swelling, brown urine, AKI

37
Q

What is torsades de pointes and what is the treatment?

A

Ventricular tachycardia, prolonged QT

Treatment - IV magnesium sulphate, stop causative medications, haemodynamically unstable - defib

38
Q

What are the causes and signs of aortic regurgitation?

A

Rheumatic fever, pancarditis, fibrosis, stenosis, regurgitation of valves
Signs: SOB, fatigue, signs of HF, wide pulse pressure, CVS collapse

39
Q

What is the treatment for SVT?

A

6mg bolus adenosine, then 12mg, then 30mg, verapamil if asthmatic
If irregular - amiodarone, and then B-blocker to control rate

40
Q

What is the treatment for VF?

A

Unsynchronised cardioversoin, 1mg adrenaline, 300mg amiodarone

41
Q

Define long QT syndrome

A

Uncorrected QT interval > 460 ms, HR 60bpm, precipitated by anti-epileptic meds

42
Q

Why is there tachypnoea with acute decompensated HF? What is the treatment?

A

Impaired left ventricle secondary to IHD, less flow to kidneys, AKI, back pressure into pulmonary veins, alveolar oedema, tachypnoea
Treatment: IV loop diuretic, chest x-ray and echo

43
Q

What is aortic sclerosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur with no radiation, age-related senile degradation of valve

44
Q

What is the first-line treatment for HF?

A

ACE-i, B-blocker, loop diuretic, aldosterone receptor antagonist
If not, then cardiac resynchronisation therapy - decreased LVEF, sinus rhythm, prolonged QRS
Final step: digoxin/left ventricular assist device
If sinus and impaired EF: Ivabradine

45
Q

What is prescribed when a pt has HTN and T2DM

A

ACEi

46
Q

What are the side effects of amlodipine?

A

Leg swelling - unresponsive to diuretic therapy

47
Q

What are the causes of high-output HF?

A

Pregnancy, anaemia, hyperthyroidism, AV malformation, Paget’s disease, thiamine deficiency
Increased pulse, JVP, pitting oedema

48
Q

What is the management for stable narrow-complex tachycardias?

A

Regular - vagal manoeuvre, adenosine

Irregular - AF: LMWH if < 48h, B-blocker and anti-coagulation if > 48h

49
Q

What is the management if an AAA is more than 5.5 cm?

A

Refer for surgery in 2 weeks, BP control, smoking and cessation

50
Q

What is hereditary haemochromatosis, treatment and what does it cause?

A

Iron deposits in ventricles, then atria, then LV dysfunction and cardiomyopathy (restrictive and dilated cardiomyopathy)
Need regular venesection
Causes DM, cirrhosis, arthropathy and depression

51
Q

What can cause RBBB?

A

Can be a normal finding, RV hypertrophy, PE, IHD, CHD

52
Q

What are the signs of mitral stenosis and what causes it?

A

Opening snap, malar flush, AF - increased LA pressure and LA dilatation, rheumatic disease

53
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic aortic stenosis?

A

Surgical aortic vale replacement

54
Q

What is the initial treatment for varicose veins?

A

Weight loss

55
Q

What is the A:V ratio in atrial flutter?

A

2:1

56
Q

What is amyloidosis and what does it cause?

A

Amyloid protein deposition - heart, restrictive cardiomyopathy, HF w/ preserved EF
Arrhythmia, conduction disturbances, nephrotic range proteinuria = oedema

57
Q

What are the contraindications for GTN?

A

Low BP, GTN decreases it further, can cause cardiac arrest

58
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of infective endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus, Strep viridans

59
Q

How is pulmonary HTN diagnosed?

A

Right heart catheterisation, pulmonary pressures

60
Q

What is the best combination for B-blocker and CCB?

A

Bisoprolol and Felodipine - dihydropyridine, less chance of bradycardia and AV block

61
Q

What complication can rhabdomyolysis lead to?

A

Hyperkalaemia -> arrhythmia e.g. VT

62
Q

What JVP waveform is seen in tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Prominent V-wave

63
Q

What complication can amiodarone cause in terms of thyroid function?

A

Abnormal TFTs -> induces thyrotoxicosis

64
Q

What is the management of a Mobitz type 2?

A

Permanent pacemaker - chance of a complete heart block

65
Q

What valve deformity is common in Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

66
Q

What is the sign for Boerhaave’s perforation?

A

Vomiting, ripping chest pain (oesophageal perforation), crackling sound between S1 and S2

Year 3 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions