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MRCP Revision > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bisferiens Pulse a sign off (double pulse on palpation of the artery)

A

Mixed aortic valve disease

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2
Q

Most common cause of infective endocarditis:
1) < 2 months post valve surgery
2) No cardiac surgery or over 2 months post cardiac surgery

A

1) Staphylococcus epidermis
2) Staphylococcus Aureus

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3
Q

Optimal time to take a statin?

A

Last thing in the evening

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4
Q

Patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension, who have a positive response to vasodilator testing should be treated with?

A

Calcium channel blockers (e.g. Nifedipine)

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5
Q

Medical definition of eisenmengers syndrome?

A

The reversal of a left to right shunt

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6
Q

In the management of stable angina, all patients should receive what combination of medication?

A

Aspirin + Statin

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7
Q

What is the first line medication for management of stable angina symptoms?

A

BB or CCB

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8
Q

What additional heart sound will be heard in:
1) DCM
2) HOCM

A

1) 3 (3 letters)
2) 4 (4 letters)

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9
Q

First line antihypertensive for pregnancy induced hypertension?

A

Labetalol

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10
Q

First cardiac enzyme marker to rise in acute MI?

A

Myoglobin

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11
Q

Cardiac enzyme which is useful to look for re-infarction within 3 days of acute ischaemic event?

A

CK-MB

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12
Q

Murmur: early diastolic murmur

A

Aortic Regurgitation

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13
Q

Murmur: loud systolic ejection murmur

A

Aortic Stenosis

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14
Q

Murmur: mid-systolic click usually accompanied by a late systolic murmur. It is more common in people with connective tissue disorders, such as Marfan syndrome.

A

Mitral Valve prolapse

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15
Q

Murmur: low-pitched, rumbling, mid-diastolic murmur heard loudest over the apex. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever

A

Mitral Stenosis

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16
Q

What two conditions are Pulsus Paradoxus associated with?

A

1) Severe Asthma
2) Cardiac Temponade

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17
Q

What 3 conditions is a collapsing pulse associated with?

A

Aortic Regurgitation
Patent ductus arteriosus
Hyperkinetic states

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18
Q

Pulses alternans is associated with what condition?

A

LVF

19
Q

“Jerky Pulse” is associated with what condition?

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

20
Q

Pulmonary artery hypertension patients with negative response to vasodilator testing should be treated with?

A

Prostacyclin Analogues
Endothelin Receptor antagonists
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

21
Q

What is the reversal agent for bleeding when on Dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

22
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics which can result in hypokalaemia?

A

Increased delivery of sodium to the distal part of the convoluted tubule

23
Q

Mechanism of furosemide?

A

Inhibits the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of henle

24
Q

What is the main ECG abnormality that you would see in Hyper Ca2+?

A

Shortening of the QTC interval

25
Q

Inherited long QT syndrome, sensorineural deafness, due to an abnormal potassium channel

A

Lervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

26
Q

S2 Hear sound (closure of the aortic valve followed by closure of pulmonary valve)
1) Loud
2) Revere Split
3) Widely Split
4) Fixed in the middle

A

1) Hypertension
2) LBBB, Severe Aortic Stenosis
3) RBBB, Deep Inspiration
4) Atrial septal defect

27
Q

Patients with poor dental hygiene are at risk of developing infective endocarditis from what source of bacteria?

A

Viridans Streptococci (e.g. Streptococcus sanguinis)

28
Q

A newborn is suffering from a continuous machine like murmur which subsequently is diagnosed as a PDA. What medications can promote closure of a PDA?

A

Ibuprofen OR Indomethacin

29
Q

In Cyanotic heart disorders such as transposition of great vessels, what can keep the PDA open?

A

Prostaglandins

30
Q

What is the most common cause of death (arrythmia) in patients following a myocardial infarction?

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

31
Q

What ECG feature would be suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia rather than a supreventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction?

A

Atrioventricular dissociation

32
Q

Patient with congestive cardiac failure, oedematous despite furosemide. Key physiological changes:
-Aldosterone levels
-What activates renin angiotensin aldosterone system?

A

-Elevated
-Reduced renal pressure identified by the Juxtaglomerular apparatus

33
Q

JVP Wave Forms:
A wave
C wave
V wave
X Descent
Y Descent

A

A wave = Atrial contraction
C Wave: Closure of tricuspid valve
V wave = Giant in tricuspid regurgitation
X Descent = Fall in atria pressure during ventricular systole
Y Descent = Opening of tricuspid valve

34
Q

What receptors do Clonidine act on?

A

a-2 adrenoreceptors

35
Q

MOA of Hydralazine?
-Contraindications

A

Elevates levels of cyclic GMP leading to relation of smooth muscle to a greater extent in the arterioles than the veins
-SLE/IHD

35
Q

Congenital heart disease. Most common cyanotic causes:
-Birth
-Overall

A

-Transposition of great arteries
-Tetralogy of fallot

36
Q

Congenital Heart Disease. Most common acyanotic cause

A

Ventricular Septal defect

37
Q

Ventricular Septal Defect:
-Cyanotic or Acyanotic
-Murmur

A

-Acyanotic
-Pan Systolic

38
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot
-Cyanotic or Acyanotic
-4 features

A

-Cyanotic
-VSD + Right ventricular hypertrophy + RVOT obstruction due to pulmonary stenosis and Overriding aorta

39
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus
-Acyanotic or cyanotic
-Where is abnormal connection
-Risk factors
-Features
-Management to close the connection

A

-Acyanotic
-Pulmonary trunk and descending aorta
-Premature babies, high altitude, rubella infection in the first trimester
-Left subclavivcular thrill + continuous machinery murmur
-Indomethacin

40
Q

Atrial Septal Defects
-Two types
- Feautres

A

-Ostium Secundum and Ostium Primum
-Ejection systolic murmur, fixed splitting of S2

41
Q

In atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease, foam cells play a key role, from what cell lineage are they derived?

A

Monocytes

42
Q
A

MRCP Revision (17 decks)

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