Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OBS and gynae > cardiology > Flashcards

cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

investigation for infective endocarditis

A

3 blood cultures taken from different parts of the body atleast 1 hour apart and a transoesophageal echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

diagnosis for infective endocarditis

A

dukes critera: either 2 major criteria, 1 major and three minor or 5 minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is in duke major criteria

A

positive blood culture tests, strong suggestive abnormality on echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is in duke minor criteria

A

fever more than 38, positive blood culture, but not for correct organism, cardiac/valvular abnormality, vasculitic phenomenon, embolic phenomenon, suggestive echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does aortic stenosis in someone with a biscupid valve present

A

by 30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the difference between stenosis and regurgitation

A

stenosis: valve cannot open properly and impedes forward flow and regurgitation: cannot close properly causing reverse flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In which group is mitral valve prolapse most common

A

mainly women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

most common cause of mitral valve regurg

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what happens to the valves during mitral valve prolapse

A

dense collagen and elastin matrix is replaced by myxoedematous glucoaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is acute heart failure always a complication of

A

MI, either ischaemia, papillary muscle rupture or developing an arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most important risk factor for developing AAA

A

atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

characterising malignant/accelerated hypertension

A

marked raised diastolic pressure over 130mm-140Hg in younger adults where their arteries are not protected by atherosclerosis, fibrinoid necrosis nests are formed within arteries and there are complications of acute renal failure, blindness and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and DIC are complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

investigation for all patients with suspected pericarditis

A

transthoracic echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the first and second line for supraventricular tachycardia

A

valslava manouevre and then adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

side effect of adenosine

A

flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does furosemide act

A

ascending loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when should people with a NSTEMI need a coronary angiography

A

grace score more than 3% do a coronary angiography within 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

common cause of infective endocarditis in iv drug users

A

staph auerus- highly pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what to do for severe pneumonia (CAP)

A

coamoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What pneumonia causative agents does the urine antigen test for

A

legionella and strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how are TSH and T4 and T3 affected by severe pneumoniae

A

normal TSH and low T4/T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

give examples of inspiratory and expiratory wheeze

A

inspiratory: croup, epiglottitis, anaphylaxis and expiratory: COPD and asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where would you see curshmann’s spirals

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ejection systolic murmurs

A

aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis

25
Q

pansystolic murmur

A

mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defect

26
Q

mid systolic murmur

A

mitral valve prolapse

27
Q

early diastolic

A

aortic regurgitation

28
Q

mid diastolic

A

tricuspid stenosis and bicuspid stenosis

29
Q

which hypertensive medication should we avoid in someone with gout

A

thiazide like diuretic: bendroflumethiazide

30
Q

hypotension, tachycardia and muffled heart sounds and raised JVP

A

cardiac tamponade

31
Q

example of a shockable rhythm

A

monomorphic ventricular tachycardia without a pulse

32
Q

short and long term treatment for complete heart block

A

transcutaneous pacing is temporary to wait for a pacemaker

33
Q

what is long QT syndrome and bazots formula

A

long QT syndrome: is 470ms in men and 440ms in women when there is coprescription of a macrolide and antiepileptic medication

34
Q

what can cause hypoxic ischaemic strokes

A

. Precipitous drops in blood pressure can cause “watershed” area ischaemic strokes.

35
Q

difference between mobitz i and ii

A

i is progressively increase PR until P wave drops and ii is constant PR with occasional non conducted p waves and first degoree is when they get progressively longer but no effect on P waves

36
Q

dizziness and yellowing of vision describes the toxicity of which drug

A

digoxin and can be caused by hypokalaemia

37
Q

feature of pericarditis on an ecg

A

saddle shaped st elevation

38
Q

which medication is contraindicated in aortic stenosis

A

nitrates like GTN

39
Q

when do you offer cardiac resynchronisation therapy

A

in an ejection fraction less than 35%

40
Q

reduced ejection fraction with continual heart failure symptoms: treatments

A

ARB/ACEi, mineralocorticoid receptor and beta blocker

41
Q

st elevation in someone with no obstructtive coronary heart disease and looks like an octopus pot

A

takotsubo cardiomyopathy

42
Q

angina with beta blocker is insufficieent what can be used in combination

A

long acting dihydrapyridine calcium channel blocker

43
Q

angina but asthmatic first line medication

A

rate limitng ccb: dilitazem

44
Q

which of the following is not associated with aortic stenosis: soft S2, ejection click murmur, narrow pulse pressure and S4 heart sound and quinickes sign

A

quinickes sign and s4 heart sound

45
Q

u waves

A

hypokalaemia

46
Q

turners syndrome aortic valve

A

bicuspid aortic valve

47
Q

ECG changes in v1 to v4- part of the heart and artery affected

A

anteroseptal and left anterior descending

48
Q

ECG changes in I II avF- part of the heart and artery affected

A

inferior and right coronary artery

49
Q

ECG changes in I, avL, V5-6 part of the heart and artery affected

A

lateral, left circumflex

50
Q

ECG changes in I avL, v1-v6 part of the heart and artery affected

A

anterolateral, proximal left anterior descending

51
Q

ECG changes in v1-3 part of the heart and artery affected

A

posterior, left circumflex and right coronary

52
Q

beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade

A

hypotension, muffled heart sounds and sitended neck veins

53
Q

what can an aortic abscess lead to

A

complete heart block as it is close to the AVN node

54
Q

does aortic regurgitation lead to HFNEF, HFrEF

A

HFrEF

55
Q

pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

56
Q

quinickes sign

A

nail bed pulsation due to aortic regurg: early diastolic

57
Q

which medication can lead to redcued hypoglycaemic awareness

A

beta blockers

58
Q

first line treatment for otitis externa

A

topical antibiotics

OBS and gynae (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions