Cardiac & Resp. - Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Thoracic cavity

A

contains the lungs and the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mediastinum

A

contains the heart and the major blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

true ribs

A
  • 1st seven pairs

- Attached to vertebral and sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

false ribs

A
  • 8-10 ribs
  • Attach to rib above
  • No sternum attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

floating ribs

A
  • 11-12 ribs

- No anterior attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Intercostal spaces

A

spaces b/t ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1st intercostal space

A

Count from collar bone and first rib is space 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where do you hood up leads EKG?

A

intercostal spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diaphragm

A

major muscle of respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

External intercostal muscles

A

Allow inspiration and lift ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Internal intercostal muscles

A

Accessory muscles for exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Primary functions of the nasal cavity

A

warm, filter debris, and (moisture) the incoming air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what transports air?

A

nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sinuses

A
  • Air filled cavities with in the bones surrounding the nose

- Provide resonance during speech and decrease the weight of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nasopharynx

A

contains the adenoids and the openings of the Eustachian tubes which connect the pharynx to the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oropharynx

A

contains the tongue and palatine tonsils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tonsils

A
  • filter debris

- important part of immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Laryngopharynx and larynx

A
  • connect the pharynx to the trachea
  • houses the epiglottis and the vocal cord
  • Strong cough and spasm reflex to prevent aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Upper Respiratory Tract

A

Nasal cavity, sinuses, mouth, pharynx, and larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lower Respiratory Tract

A

Trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carina

A

division where bronchi break off into rt and lt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bronchi

A

Main stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Right main stem

A

shorter and wider, more likely to aspirate onto this side because of the angle, listen for crackles in rt lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

left main stem

A

can aspirate here but more likely to go to the rt side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Terminal bronchiole

A

last of pure conducting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cilia in the Lungs

A
  • Move debris out
  • Make you cough
  • Bring up sputum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lower airways

A
  • anatomical dead space

- Lined with cilia and mucus - protectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How much air is trapped here?

A

150 mL of air, never really goes anywhere, keeps lung in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what paralyzes cilia?

A

Smoking, asthma, inhaled chem. exposure, pneumonia, anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

bronchioles

A

Transition from conducting airways to respiratory zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where does gas exchange begin?

A

with bronchioles which lead into the alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs and ultimately the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how many alveoli does an adult have?

A

300 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do type II cells produce?

A

surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

surfactant function

A
  • Keep alveoli open
  • Lubricates
  • Reduces surface tension
  • Prevent alveolar collapse
  • Keep lungs inflated
  • Limits expansion - prevents over inhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lung compliance

A

lost ability to recoil, decreased surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

who has a barrel chest?

A

Emphazema and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the chief organ of respiration?

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which lung is thicker, wider, and shorter?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which lung has 3 lobes?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

why does left lung have only 2 lobes?

A

placement of heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

3 parts to lungs

A

Apex, mid-lung (right side only), and base (lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how many layers are the lungs covered with?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

names of the layers that surround the lungs

A

visceral pleura & parietal pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the inner layer to the lungs called?

A

visceral pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the outer layer to the lungs called?

A

parietal pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is between the two layers around the lungs?

A

Small amount of lubricating fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the space between the two layers named?

A

pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

why is their lubricant between the two layers?

A

glide over each other without friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

should you be able to see the pleural space on x-ray?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

when can you see the pleural space?

A

when their is pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

pleural effusion

A

the pleural space fills with fluid, blood, pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what causes pleural effusion?

A
  • Gun shot wound, car accident, trauma

- Inflammation and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why would you insert a chest tube?

A

drain the fluid, blood or pus that has collected in the pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is an early sign of lung cancer?

A

Frequent pneumonia/fluid in pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Functions of the Respiratory System

A
  • Gas exchange
  • Synthesis of surfactant and other chemicals
  • Metabolism and detoxification of drugs and toxins
  • Defense against infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

why do you want babies to be born at full term?

A
  • Babies make surfactant closer to term

- May give mom supplemental surfactant so that it goes to baby to develop lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what respiratory function is important to pharmacology?

A

Metabolism and detoxification of drugs and toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how does the respiratory system defend against infection?

A
  • Nose tries to get rid of things

- Cilia work against infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

External respiration

A
  • Bringing in atmospheric air
  • Most important, cant bring it in then you can’t exchange it
  • Much of interventions happen here
  • Help people breathe better
  • Mechanical ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

mechanical ventilation

A

Intubate and ventilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Internal respiration

A

Cellular level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Ventilation

A

movement of gases into and out of the lungs. Ventilation is affected by lung compliance, elastic recoil, and airway resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what limits ventilation?

A

disease, infection, and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how is ventilation studied?

A

utilizing spirometry, peak flow meters, pulmonary function testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Perfusion

A

refers to the blood flow thru the vessels of a specific organ or body part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Diffusion

A

movement of gases across the capillary membrane from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Involuntary ventilation

A
  • During sleep, coughing

- Back up system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation

A
Triggers you to breathe
Hematology system
Lifespan and Development
Environment
Lifestyle
Medications
Pathophysiological Conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Triggers you to breathe

A
  • CO2 levels builds up

- Triggers you to take a breath (bring in oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Hematology system

A
  • Enough hemoglobin to allow oxygen to bind

- Anemic patients will sometime have respiratory issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Lifespan and Development

A
  • RDS (respiratory distress syndrome) - infant or adult
  • ARDS - adult
  • URI - upper respiratory infection
  • Adolescent smoking
  • How well you can oxygenate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Environment

A

Stress and allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Lifestyle

A
  • Nutrition, exercise, substance abuse, etc.
  • Nutrition - adequate diet of iron to make RBC
  • Exercise - improves oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Medications

A
  • Can alter oxygen levels

- Help them breathe or make it worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Factors that Influence Oxygenation - Pathophysiological Conditions

A
  • Alterations in oxygen and carbon dioxide levels
  • Alterations in pulmonary system
  • Pulmonary circulation
  • Neuromuscular abnormalities
  • Cardiovascular abnormalities
  • Oxygen transport problems
  • Metabolic problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Alterations in oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

A
  • Asthma
  • Chronic bronchitis
  • COPD
  • Emphysema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

asthma

A

harder time getting appropriate oxygen in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Emphysema

A

no problem with bringing oxygen in but struggle with getting CO2 out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Alterations in pulmonary system

A

structure, airways, and tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Pulmonary circulation

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Neuromuscular abnormalities

A

MS, Lou Gehrig’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Cardiovascular abnormalities

A
  • heart disease/vessel disease
  • Cardiac and respiratory go hand in hand
  • If you have cardiac disease you are at risk for respiratory disease and vice versa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pathophysiological Conditions - Metabolic problems

A

Endocrine disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how big is the heart?

A

Generally about the size of a fist and weighs less than one pound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

how much blood does the heart pump in a lifetime?

A

80 million gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

function of the circulatory system

A
  1. Provide oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the cells.
  2. Remove CO2 and waste products from the cells.
  3. Distribute heat throughout the body to maintain body temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

If temp is too high

A

vasodilation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

If temp is too low

A

vasoconstriction, conserve heat, protect inner core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Layers of the Heart

A
  • Endocardium
  • Myocardium
  • Epicardium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Endocardium

A
  • inner lining of the heart
  • made of endothelial cells
  • line the heart chambers and valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Myocardium

A
  • thickest part of the heart that consists of cardiac muscle
  • does the work
  • muscle layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Epicardium

A

consists of a visceral layer and parietal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A

heart stops because it can’t pump, cardiac standstill, too much fluid between the two spaces, too much pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

visceral epicardium

A

attaches to the myocardium and is the outer layer of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

parietal epicardium

A

forms the sac called the pericardium that surrounds the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

how many chambers does the heart have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what do the chambers do?

A

fill and empty of blood with each contraction and relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Contraction

A

depolarization (no charge) of the cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

relaxation

A

repolarization (get ready to take on new electrical charge) of the cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what are the upper chambers of the heart called?

A

atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what are the lower chambers of the heart called?

A

ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

is the myocardium thicker on the left or right?

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

why does the left ventricle work the hardest?

A

needs to contract efficiently enough to get all of the blood into aorta which is a high pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

where does congestive heart failure occur?

A

left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

where is the worst place to have a heart attack?

A

Posterior side of heart, don’t have a lot of vessels but 2nd worst is lt ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how many valves does the heart have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

name the heart valves

A
  • tricuspid, pulmonic, mitral, and aortic

- tissue paper my assets

109
Q

chordae tendineae

A
  • Valves have fibrous cords

- Attached to the cusps of the mitral and tricuspid valves that attach to the papillary muscles

110
Q

Valve dysfunction

A
  • what does it affect: valve, chordae tendonae, papillary muscles
111
Q

Mitral valve prolapse

A
  • Graded or staged according to how much destruction into chordae tendonae or papillary muscle
  • Grade 4 - entire anatomical structure is destroyed
112
Q

how many arteries serve the heart?

A

2

113
Q

Rt coronary artery

A

feeds rt side of heart has a little bit that goes back to the posterior side

114
Q

Lt coronary artery

A
  • Circumflex - left coronary artery that goes around to the posterior
  • Patient presented in ER - doa, turn them over and have big bruise on their back (blood that is pooling), posterior side of heart blows out, no ability to revive them
115
Q

how much blood is on the posterior side of the heart?

A

not a lot

116
Q

Rt ventricle just contracted where must blood go next?

A

Pulmonic valve must open

117
Q

Stroke volume

A

volume of blood pumped by the ventricles with each contraction

118
Q

Cardiac output

A

volume of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute

119
Q

How does cardiac output impact pharmacology principles?

A

Medicine affects stroke volume and cardiac output

120
Q

what happens to meds if cardiac output is too high?

A
  • med goes out into circulation to quickly, go through liver for first past quickly, come back to liver
  • meds do not get the half life that they expect
  • benefit of med for shorter amount of time
121
Q

what happens to meds if cardiac output is too low?

A
  • half life too long, do not clear through liver in a timely manner, become toxic from meds
122
Q

early sign of lenoxin toxicity

A
  • Patient will ask if it looks hazy, blurry, smoky, halos
  • Meals - play with food
  • Next day don’t want to eat, smell makes them nauseous
  • Call physician
123
Q

CHF

A
  • extra fluid in heart
  • lt ventricle is working harder already
  • increased cardiac output to a point and then it starts to fall behind
124
Q

where is the electrical impulse sent from?

A

SA node

125
Q

what is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA node

126
Q

where does the SA node send the impulse?

A

AV node

127
Q

what happens when the impulse reaches the AV node?

A

the atria contracts creating a P wave on the EKG

128
Q

where does the impulse go after the AV node?

A

Bundle of HIS

129
Q

where does the impulse go after the bundle of HIS?

A

the message splits into the left and right bundle branches until it reaches the Purkinje Fibers

130
Q

what happens when the impulse reaches the purkinje fibers?

A

the ventricles contract creating the QRS complex on the EKG

131
Q

QRS complex

A
  • ventricles have contracted
  • got rid of electrical charge
  • depolarized
132
Q

Q

A

goes down

133
Q

R

A

is the spike

134
Q

S

A

is at the base line

135
Q

T wave

A

ventricular repolarization, ventricles are ready to take another charge

136
Q

Atrial repolarization

A

overcome by QRS complex so you don’t see it, might see a U wave, most people don’t have these

137
Q

U wave

A
  • may be normal for some but others might be an electrolyte imbalance most likely Potassium imbalance
  • if all of a sudden present with P wave, notify dr
138
Q

Nursing assessment

A
  • Patient history
  • Health history
  • Last CXR, mantoux, and PFT
  • Family history
  • Smoking
  • Occupation
  • Military history
139
Q

Nursing assessment - smoking

A
  • How much, how long

- Packs per day over the number of years

140
Q

Nursing assessment - occupation

A
  • Now and in past

- May have worked in factory prior

141
Q

Nursing assessment - military history

A
  • Where did they serve

- Exposed to? Ex. Agent orange

142
Q

Nursing assessment - Health history

A
  • Respiratory/cardiac illnesses

- TB, asthma

143
Q

Nursing assessment - family history

A
  • TB, asthma
144
Q

Cough, nasal secretions, pain, dyspnea, and fatigue

A
  • Cough like

- Kind of secretions

145
Q

Physical exam

A

Chest - changes in diameter/structure

146
Q

Auscultation of lung sounds

A

what is the rate, depth, effort

147
Q

What is the expansion

A
  • use of accessory muscles

- flare nostrils

148
Q

Crackles

A
  • Discontinuous sounds
  • High pitched popping sounds
  • Low pitched bubbling sounds
  • Caused by - fluid in alveoli
149
Q

Wheezes

A
  • High pitched, continuous musical sounds

- Caused by - Narrowing of the airways

150
Q

Rhonchi

A
  • Low pitched continuous gurgling sounds

- Caused by - Secretions in the large airways

151
Q

Pleural rub

A
  • Squeaking or grating sounds of the pleural linings rubbing together
  • Caused by - layers are inflamed and have lost their lubrication
152
Q

Stridor

A
  • Piercing, high-pitched sound
  • Primarily during inspiration
  • Caused by - Experiencing respiratory distress or obstructed airway
153
Q

Cough

A

protective mechanism for clearing the lower airways

154
Q

Cough - Chronic

A
  • Associate with some type of irritation

- Experience for months or longer

155
Q

Cough - Chronic - Common causes

A
  • Smoking
  • Allergies
  • Chronic sinus infection
  • Living in inner cities - pollution
156
Q

Cough - Paroxysmal

A
  • Spasmodic

- Cough and cough and cough, feel terrible, hard to get it to stop, feel like you will pee your pants

157
Q

Cough - Paroxysmal - Common Causes

A
  • Asthma

- Chronic bronchitis

158
Q

Cough - Dry or nonproductive

A
  • Not able to bring anything up

- Hydrate to loosen up secretions

159
Q

Cough - Productive

A
  • Able to cough and bring up sputum

- Color of sputum, describe sputum

160
Q

Mucoid

A

white to clear

161
Q

Purulent

A
  • dark yellow green
  • might be from smoker and not an infection
  • sudden onset, feel pressure across face, chest tight, fever - can assume that their might be an infection
162
Q

Mucopurulent

A

combination of more mucus than pus

163
Q

Rusty

A
  • traces of blood but not frank bright red

- indication of TB

164
Q

Bloody

A

hemoptysis - really bloody, frank blood

165
Q

Frothy

A
  • white might be pink/blood tinged

- congestive heart failure or pulmonary edema

166
Q

Nasal secretions/Expectoration of Sputum

A
  • 95% water
  • the more you drink the better
  • harder to bring up when secretions get below 95% water
167
Q

Pain

A
  • Tissue in lungs doesn’t have ability to feel pain

- Likely from the muscles work (Coughing/Work hard at breathing)

168
Q

Pleuritic pain

A
  • Pleural space should only have enough fluid to allow the layers to glide over them
  • Gets dry or fluid builds up
169
Q

Pleurisis

A

point to side, hurts worse when they take in a deep breath

170
Q

Intercostal pain

A

Cartilage between ribs, comes from coughing a lot

171
Q

Generalized pain

A

Over all pain from coughing and fever or infection

172
Q

Dyspnea

A

have two of these descriptors, rapid audible labored breathing, use of accessory muscles, dilated or flared nostrils, tachycardia, anxious, gasping, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, conversational dyspnea, or cyanosis

173
Q

Hypoxemia

A

low oxygen in blood, reflective in arterial blood gasses

174
Q

Hypoxia

A

low oxygen in tissue

175
Q

How do you know patient has hypoxia?

A

changes in color, cyanosis, modeling

176
Q

ABG

A

arterial blood O2 stats

177
Q

O2 stats

A

have margin of error of couple of percent

178
Q

Hypnoxia

A

no oxygen; absence of oxygen

179
Q

Hypercapnia

A
  • too much co2, not ventilating proper
  • pneumonia
  • COPD live in hypercapnia all of the time, CO2 levels are always higher than they should be
180
Q

Hypocapnia

A
  • not enough co2, breathe too quickly, blow off to much CO2
  • anxiety or panic attack
  • numbness/tingling around mouth and extremities; look like they maybe having a stroke; get them to slow down breathing usually makes the symptoms subside
181
Q

Respiratory Failure

A

not specific diagnosis, system as whole is not able to do job adequately, body not getting enough oxygen and not getting rid of co2

182
Q

Respiratory Failure causes

A

Caused by COPD, asthma, airway obstruction, broken ribs, drug overdose, anesthesia, pneumonia, head trauma, pulmonary embolus

183
Q

Carbon dioxide narcosis

A

people become comatose; CO2 goes so high that it starts to suppress respiratory center in brain; may turn around by putting them on a ventilator of some sort (bipap, mechanical vent)

184
Q

Is it typical chest pain-patient needs to describe and when does the pain occur?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Crushing, elephant standing on chest
  • Feels like indigestion
  • Atypical symptoms are harder to diagnosis
185
Q

Does the patient have any complaints of dyspnea?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Has it changed, if so how?
  • Present over the course of time - 6 months ago, 3 months ago, recently
  • Gradually onset vs sudden onset
  • Different tests for gradual and sudden onset
186
Q

Does the patient voice any concerns about edema?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Patient points out obvious signs
  • Does it resolve itself during the night or unrelently edema
  • Can easily gain 10 pounds before you see edema
  • 4+ pitting, 20 to 25 extra pounds of water
187
Q

Do they ever experience any vertigo?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Microvalve prolapse
  • Connection between heart and vertigo
188
Q

Do they ever have cardiac palpitations?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Stress induced is pretty common
  • Caused by caffeine
189
Q

Do they ever become diaphoretic?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Sweat really bad
  • Indication of heart disease
  • Come in to wipe themselves off when shoveling snow, heart attack waiting to happen
190
Q

Do they fatigue easily?

A
  • Subjective Complaints
  • Develop over time, valve issues
  • Develop over a course of time tend to be valve problems
191
Q

Monitor skin

A
  • Objective Complaints

- Paleness, cyanosis

192
Q

Assess the neck veins for distention

A
  • Objective Complaints

- Jugular vein distention

193
Q

What are the vital signs?

A
  • Objective Complaints
194
Q

Examine the abdomen and check for ascites

A
  • Objective Complaints
  • Ascites is the build up of fluid in the space between the lining of the abdomen and abdominal organs (the peritoneal cavity)
195
Q

What is their current weight and is this their usual weight?

A
  • Objective Complaints
  • Is this typical weight? Down or up
  • Not everyone tells the truth
196
Q

Do they have any edema?

A
  • Objective Complaints
  • Remember a patient can gain ten pounds before edema can be detected by sight
  • 1+ Barely visible
  • 2+ Obviously present
  • 3+ Able to indent but rebounds
  • 4+ Indentation remains
197
Q

Pulmonary Function Studies

A
  • Inhalation, exhalation
  • Done by respiratory therapy or nurse
  • Dr order to get an overall picture of respiratory condition
  • Measure volume & capacity of lungs
  • Use to make diagnosis and how effective is treatment
198
Q

ABG’s

A
  • pH, CO2, O2, bicarb level
  • Go on O2 at home, need to meet criteria to have insurance cover the cost
  • Nurses don’t generally do arterial blood draws
199
Q

Pulse Oximetry

A

normal is 95-100%

200
Q

Cultures and smears

A
  • Nasal

- Sputum

201
Q

When is the best time to get a sputum sample?

A

First thing in morning, brush teeth, and then get sample

202
Q

Smears

A
  • cytology

- cancer

203
Q

X-ray

A
  • Chest
  • Common starting point for all people who have respiratory and cardiac disease
  • What is size and shape of heart and lungs
  • What position are they in
  • Do the lungs look symmetrical
  • Look at pleural spaces
  • Pericardial sac
  • Helps to decide on other tests they want to do
204
Q

What should you ask a female before doing x-ray?

A
  • ask if they are pregnant

- if pregnant need to shield abdomen and pelvis

205
Q

Fluoroscopy

A
  • Chest xray
  • Projected on a screen
  • Dr is going to go into a mass in the lung with a needle and try to get biopsy
  • Allows them to see where they are at
  • Go directly into lesions that they are looking at
  • Use fluoroscopy to place some needles or markers
206
Q

Lung Scan

A
  • Ventilation - air flow
  • Perfusion - what is blood flow like in lungs
  • Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, lung cancer
207
Q

Peak Flow Monitor

A
  • Patients who have asthma
  • Measures max expiratory flow rate
  • Use everyday and record where they are at
  • Dr uses this to treat patients more effectively
208
Q

EKG

A

starting point, is it normal or abnormal

209
Q

Stress

A

EKG is marginal, walk on tread mill, hooked up to monitors, increase speed and incline, stay on as long as possible, make sure to cool down on treadmill slowly, have them sit and watch them when they are done, make sure you have a dr there before you start

210
Q

Thallium

A
  • injection of dye, does the same thing to heart that exercise dose, increases heart rate and then brings it down, helpful if they can go on treadmill for a short time, see x-ray of rate
  • Positive - heart disease, need some type of treatment
211
Q

Holter or event monitor

A

leads on chest, 24 to 72 hours, takes the monitor home, diary of what you do, is there something in the day that triggers events, button to press when you feel symptoms, person reading the report can identify when the person felt the symptoms

212
Q

Bronchoscopy

A
  • Surgical procedure so you need consent
  • Direct visualization of trachea, branches, lung tissue
  • Complete for diagnosis
  • Treat and evaluate disease
  • Take biopsies
  • Remove item from lungs (penny, peanuts, sunflower seeds)
213
Q

Laryngoscopy

A
  • Need consent
  • Diagnostic or therapeutic
  • Surgical - looks at larynx
  • Done in DR office or ER bay
  • Quick procedure
  • Use local anesthesia
  • Look at why patient is hoarse, polyps, lesions
  • Tells dr if they should refer to ENT
214
Q

Atropine

A
  • Used prior to bronchoscopy/laryngoscopy

- Medicine that dries up secretions, given before

215
Q

Thoracentesis

A
  • Consent form
  • Aspirate fluid, air or pus
  • Take out fluid from pleural space
  • May need a chest tube
  • Possibility of collapsing a lung during procedure
  • Watch for hemorrhage, collapse, increased shortness of breath
216
Q

Lung Biopsy

A
  • Brush on lesion, needle, cut

- Trying to know if lesion is cancerous or not

217
Q

Promote Venous Return

A
  • Feet up
  • TEDS
  • compression
  • Leg exercises, movement, ambulation
218
Q

Immunizations

A
  • Prevent upper respiratory infection
  • Flu shot - once per year
  • Pneumonia vac - once per 10 years or as prescribed by DR
219
Q

Positioning

A

Elevate head of bed

220
Q

Pneumonia

A
  • side to side, move around and don’t stay on back

- more they reposition gives the fluid and infection less time to settle

221
Q

Aspiration Precautions

A
  • Any patient that you think will aspirate is RN level assessment, do not delegate
  • Able to swallow/risk for aspiration - done by RN or speech therapy
222
Q

Mobilizing secretions

A
  • Deep breathing and cough
  • Keep well hydrated
  • Chest Physiotherapy
  • Oxygen Therapy
223
Q

Arterial blood gas measurement

A
  • Measures the amount of CO2, O2, & pH
  • CO2 is an acid
  • pH falls if CO2 rises
  • pO2 reflects O2 level in blood
  • SaO2 (or SpO2) reflects % saturation
224
Q

Nursing Interventions

A
  • Cough and deep breath
  • Incentive Spirometer
  • Diaphragmatic breathing
225
Q

Nursing Assessment

A
  • Arterial blood gas measurement
  • Pulmonary function studies
  • Peak flow meter
226
Q

Diaphragmatic Breathing

A
  • Use diaphragm rather than accessory muscles.
  • Lie down, left hand on ribcage, right hand just above navel, little finger on navel and thumb on sternum.
  • Take a deep breath thru the nose and use pursed lip breathing on expiration. If done correctly left hand should not move.
  • Use for CPOD, chronic bronchitis, issues post-op
  • Enhance ability to bring O2 in and CO2 out
  • Conserve energy and breathe better
  • Improve CO2 and O2 in blood
227
Q

Pursed-Lip Breathing

A
  • Prolongs expiration and increases pressure in the lower airways preventing collapse of bronchioles.
  • Moves CO2 out so more room for fresh O2.
  • Inhale thru nose with relaxed abdominal muscles and exhale slowly with pursed lips and abdominal muscles contracted.
  • Exhalation needs to be twice as long as inhalation.
  • Patient can practice by using a straw to make small bubbles in a glass of water.
228
Q

CPAP

A

provides pressure to the airways at the end of expiration to prevent airways from collapsing

229
Q

BIPAP

A

provides end expiration pressure like CPAP plus pressure at the end of inhalation to assist greatest inhalation

230
Q

Manual respiration

A
  • Uses resuscitator bag (ambu); O2 source, tubing; face mask or airway adaptor (if intubated), 2 people if not intubated
  • O2 to 15 L, position mask for a tight seal, compress bag until chest rises, allow exhalation, every 5 seconds (adult)
  • Watch for gastric distension
231
Q

Chest physiotherapy

A
  • To assist in removal of secretions when large amounts are present
  • Postural drainage, percussion, vibration
  • Trendelenburg is the best position or modified - Trendelenburg
  • Make sure that they haven’t just eaten
  • Listen to lungs before and after
232
Q

Postural drainage

A
  • Position downward angle, < = 25 degrees
  • Remains in position 3-15 minutes • Side to side, then supine, repeat
  • Cough in dependent position, deep breath between position changes
  • Slowly return to sitting position, address sputum produced, hygiene, evaluate
233
Q

Chest percussion

A
  • Hands cupped, flex elbows and wrists
  • Gently, rhythmically, clap over area to be drained
  • Alternate hands, hollow sound, no pain
  • Each area 3-5 minutes, not breasts or bones
  • Cough after percussion
  • Handle secretions, hygiene, evaluate
234
Q

Chest vibration

A
  • Follows percussion, postural drainage in each position
  • Client to exhale slowly through pursed lips
  • Hands flat, moderate pressure, contract and relax your arms and shoulders, 3-4 exhalations over each area, cough before position change
  • Handle secretions, hygiene, evaluate
235
Q

How much oxygen do you breathe in?

A

21%

236
Q

How much oxygen do you breathe out?

A

15-16%

237
Q

Nasal Cannula

A
  • Delivers 24-44% oxygen at flow rates from 1-6 liters … dependent on rate and depth of respiration
  • 24% oxygen at 1 L
  • 44% oxygen closer to 6 L
238
Q

Simple mask

A
  • Provides 35-65% FIO2 at 8-12 Liter/min flow rate

- Can run at 5 to 6L

239
Q

Masks with reservoir bag

A
  • Allow for higher FIO2 levels

- Acute situation or near end of life

240
Q

Masks with reservoir bag - Partial rebreathing

A
  • Beginning of expiration mixes in the bag with inspired air, most escapes
  • FIO2 40-60%, 6-10 L/min
  • Exhales the O2 gets trapped in bag and rebreathe it
241
Q

Masks with reservoir bag - Non-rebreathing

A
  • Valve closes during expiration so is not “rebreathed”, no inhalation of room air
  • FIO2 60-100%, 6-15 L/min
242
Q

Venturi mask

A
  • Uses adaptors, more precise FIO2 delivery with minimal CO2 buildup
  • FIO2 24-50% depending on liter flow and adapter used
  • Most precise
  • Intensive care
243
Q

Bubblers

A
  • Connected to concentrator/tank
  • Get more humidify air
  • Look at when it gets to 5L
  • Use distilled water
244
Q

Oxygen hood

A
  • Fits over a baby’s head
  • Warms and humidifies the O2
  • 28-85 % at 5-12 L
  • OB, NICU
245
Q

Why do you have to be careful when using an oxygen hood?

A
  • Can cause child to go blind - oxygen toxicity

- Deteriorates retina

246
Q

Oxygen tent

A
  • Encloses the child, canopy, provides O2, humidity, and cool environment
  • FIO2 up to 50%, 10-15L/min.
  • Also called “croup tent”
  • Acute bronchitis, bronchio spasm
247
Q

What precautions do you need to take with the oxygen tent?

A

Make sure tent is well supported by crib, suffocation hazard

248
Q

Oropharyngeal

A
  • Use in OR, keep tongue in place, airway open
  • Easier to use with ambu bag
  • Side of mouth to ear to measure
  • Insert upside down and rotate; patient can take out
249
Q

Nasopharyngeal

A
  • Go in nose, lubricate with water soluble
  • Variety of sizes
  • Oral surgery, car accident
250
Q

Endotracheal

A
  • Use metal blade to guide - laryngoscope
  • Hold tongue down
  • Secure with strap or tape
  • Balloon inflated to keep in place
  • May come out of surgery with one
  • Contemplating to hooking up to ventilator, short term
  • Can use ambubag with this
  • Short term use, 7-10 days
  • Not usually put in by a nurse
251
Q

Tracheostomy

A
  • May have an inner and outer cannula
  • May have a cuff
  • Change every 30 to 90 days
  • Weaning process if it is going to be taken off, heal from inside out
  • Need two people to change trach
  • Sometimes when you try to put it back in the person will have a broncho spasm
  • Sterile procedure
  • Want the tube that goes into the patient to remain sterile
252
Q

How often do you change an inner cannula?

A

every day

253
Q

When would you deflate the cuff?

A
  • Deflate at particular times of the day
  • Can leave balloon deflated
  • Vent full time, don’t usually deflate balloon
254
Q

Mechanical Ventilation

A
  • Used to overcome the patient’s inability to ventilate or oxygenate adequately
  • Can be intermittent or continuous.
  • Can be short-term or long-term
255
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - Negative pressure or positive pressure

A
  • Most often see positive pressure

- Exerts full pressure on alveoli

256
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - Assist

A
  • Respiratory efforts trigger vent

- Will come on when there is not enough thoracic pressure

257
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - Control

A
  • Machine does all the work
  • No breaths on own
  • Head injury
258
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - assist-control

A
  • Back up to make sure that there is control
  • Triggered by each breath that is inadequate
  • Based on tidal volume
259
Q

how often should you check a mechanical ventilator?

A

every 2 hours

260
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - high alarm

A

resistance to machine, something is wrong, something is occluding their airway

261
Q

Mechanical Ventilation - low alarm

A

pressure has significantly dropped, something has come apart, often happens in suctioning

262
Q

Chest Tubes

A
  • Lungs are surrounded by the pleura which should have negative pressure within the pleural space which creates a vacuum that keeps the lungs expanded.
  • Breaking this vacuum causes the lungs or lung to collapse.
  • To recreate this a chest tube must be placed.
263
Q

How do you know if a chest tube is operating properly?

A

seeing normal tidaling

264
Q

How do you know if a chest tube is NOT operating properly?

A
  • rapid bubbles

- start at entry point, check for leaks and kinks all the way

265
Q

Nasopharyngitis (Common cold)

A

common in children can have 6 to 9 colds per year

266
Q

Pharyngitis

A

common in the 4-7 year old

267
Q

influenza

A

common in school-age children

268
Q

Why would you deflate a balloon in an endotracheal patient?

A
  • it damages trach and vocal cords

- do not leave patient while it is deflated