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Board Exam Review > Cardiac > Flashcards

Cardiac Flashcards

1
Q

CHARGE is associated with what heart defect

A

ASD, VSD

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2
Q

DiGeorge is associated with what heart defect

A

aortic arch anomalies, tetralogy

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3
Q

Downs is associated with what heart defect

A

AV canal, AV septal defects, VSD

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4
Q

Marfan is associated with what heart defect

A

aortic root dissection, MVP

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5
Q

Noonan is associated with what heart defect

A

PS, ASD

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6
Q

Turner is associated with what heart defect

A

Coarc of the aorta

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7
Q

Williams is associated with what heart defect

A

Supravalvular stenosis

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8
Q

What are the s/s of CHF? (13)

A
  1. Increased resp rate
  2. poor feeding
  3. reduced exercise intolerance
  4. chronic cough
  5. tachycardia
  6. organomegaly
  7. pallor
  8. mottling
  9. puffy eyelids
  10. decreased pulses
  11. wheezes, rales
  12. poor weight gain
  13. cyanosis
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9
Q

What are the major characteristics of tetralogy of Fallot? (4)

A
  1. 4 defects = pulmonary stenosis, VSD, overriding aorta, RVH
  2. harsh ejection murmur with a thrill
  3. x-ray = boot shaped heart (you wear in the fall)
  4. TET spells, often in the AM, acute increase in cyanosis with hypernea, leads to limpness, IOC, rarely convulsions
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10
Q

What are major characteristics of transposition of the great vessels? (4)

A
  1. Single S1, loud or slightly split S2
  2. Can have murmur from VSD or PS
  3. When PDA closes = symptoms (ductal dependent)
  4. X-ray = egg on string
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11
Q

what are the major characteristics of tricuspid atresia? (3)

A
  1. Absent tricuspid valve and underdevelopment right ventricle
  2. single S1
  3. Ductal dependent
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12
Q

What are the characteristics of pulmonary atresia? (2)

A
  1. no pulmonary valve

2. under-developed right ventricle

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13
Q

Describe the characteristics of a pathologic murmur (6)

A
  1. murmur in patient with genetic syndrome
  2. Diastolic murmur, systolic murmur with thrill or click continuous murmurs that cannot be altered
  3. Fixed splitting of s2, loud s2 or s4
  4. High grade
  5. Harsh in sound
  6. Radiation
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14
Q

Describe characteristics of an innocent murmur (5)

A
  1. usually low grade and will change with positioning
  2. will vary from visit to visit and with fever, anemia, excitement
  3. musical or vibratory in sound
  4. usually systolic, rarely radiation
  5. Normal VS, EKG, health status
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15
Q

Describe a venous hum (4)

A
  1. continuous supraclavicular
  2. disappears when lying down or turning head
  3. Constant, swishing sound, soft, no radiation
  4. On the right upper side of chest
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16
Q

Describe a supraclavicular bruit (4)

A
  1. systolic, ejection, high pitched, harsh
  2. Heard in the supraclavicular fossa, minimal radiation
  3. Never heard below clavicle
  4. Not affected by sitting/lying
17
Q

Describe aortic stenosis (3)

A
  1. Thrill at RUSB, ejection click, harsh systolic ejection murmur with rad to neck
  2. Associated with CHF and LVH
  3. Bicuspid aortic is commonly associated with this
18
Q

Describe pulmonic stenosis (4)

A
  1. systolic murmur, at LUSB, with a click
  2. CLick decreases inspiration, increases expiration
  3. Thrill at LUSB, radiate to the back/sides
  4. Associated with other defects
19
Q

Describe a peripheral pulmonic stenosis murmur (4)

A
  1. Systolic ejection
  2. Disappears by 6 mo, lasts longer with Williams syndrome, congenital rubella
  3. Heard in the chest/axillae, loudest at axillary
  4. Soft with middle/high pitch
20
Q

Describe a pulmonary flow murmur (5)

A
  1. Short, systolic ejection, louder with expiration
  2. Upper LSB, RSB, transmits to the back
  3. All ages, straight back, thin body
  4. Increases with supine position, cardiac output, fever, anemia
  5. soft blowing, no click or thrill
21
Q

What describes a Still’s murmur (3)

A
  1. Short, systolic, musical, soft-blowing, virbrating, buzzing, twangy string
  2. LLSB, louder when supine, disappears with Valsalva
  3. Common in 3-8 years
22
Q

What are the s/s and secondary causes of HTN?

5; definition, s/s, primary, secondary, tx

A
  1. Increased BP, BP>95% on at least 3 occasions
  2. s/s - usually asymptomatic, headache, visual problems, dizziness, nosebleeds
  3. Primary = no known cause, hereditary, stress, obesity
  4. Secondary = aorta coarct, renal dis., hyperaldosteronism, plasma aldosterone, Cushings
  5. Tx: weight reduction, exercise, thiazide diuretic, beta blocker, ACE inhibitor, tx underlying disease
23
Q

What is the clinical definition and criteria for Kawasaki disease? (4)

A
  1. Small vessel vasculitis, number 1 cause of coronary heart disease
  2. Fever, warm swollen erythematous edematous hands and feet, polymorphous rash, cervical lymphadenopathy, mucous membrane changes (strawberry tongue, red lips/gums)
  3. MUST HAVE 5 = arthritis, EKG changes, v/d, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, increased ESR, CRP, conjunctival injection
  4. Increased in males and asains, slightly higher in hispanics
24
Q

What is the tx of kawasaki disease? (2)

A
  1. IV gamma globulin

2. Aspirin to prevent clots

25
Q

Describe coarc of the aorta (4)

A
  1. Bruit at LUSB
  2. 2-3/6 systolic ejection murmur with rad to L interscapular area
  3. can have bicuspid aortic valve
  4. Decreases pulse/BP in lower extremities
26
Q

What are characteristics of VSD? (5)

A

MOST COMMON IN CHD

  1. 2-4/6 holosystolic murmur at LLSB
  2. Thrill if 4/6
  3. LVH, LAH can occur
  4. Loudness of murmur does not indicate size of hole
27
Q

What are the characteristics of an ASD (4)

A
  1. Wide fixed split s2, 2-3/6 systolic ejection murmur
  2. 2nd ICS
  3. Decreased hole, increased murmur
  4. RVH, rt. axis deviation, cardiomegaly
28
Q

Describe a PDA (3)

A
  1. Common in preterm infants
  2. Machinery like, diastolic/systolic murmur
  3. Can have hypertrophy
29
Q

What are the characteristics of hypertropic cardiomyopathy? (3)

A
  1. Can be dilated, have bi-ventricular tract obstruction in infancy, murmur or be asymptomatic
  2. murmur will increase when child stands
  3. Associated with sudden cardiac death
30
Q

What are the MAJOR Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever (6)

A
  1. Clinical and/or subclinical carditis
  2. Seen on ECG
  3. Monoarthritis, polyarthritis, and/or polyarthralgia
  4. Chorea
  5. Erythema Marginatum
  6. Subcutaneous nodules
31
Q

What are the MINOR Jones criteria (4)

A
  1. prolonged PR interval
  2. Monoarthralgia
  3. > 38C
  4. Peak ESR >30 min in 1 hour and/or CRP >3.0mg/dl

Board Exam Review (15 decks)

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