cancer Flashcards

1
Q

outline the MoA of tamoxifen

A

competes w oestrogen receptors (ER) at AF2 (= binding site for co-activation transcription factors)
this reduces tumour growth

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2
Q

outline the MoA of bleomycin

A

binds to DNA and removes the C4 hydrogen atom
this introduces single and double DNA strand breaks
this inhibits DNA polymerase and DNA replication = cell death

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3
Q

outline the mechanism of action of gleevec/imatinib (Bcr-Abl TKI)

A

Bcr-Abl promotes downstream pathways which stimulates cell growth in the nucleus
gleevec acts on the ATP binding site of the Bcr-Abl kinase which locks it in a closed configuration
inhibition of Bcr-Abl inhibits the downstream pathways and prevents phosphorylation = cell death

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4
Q

outline the MoA of MTX

A

normally DHFR (dihydrofolate reductase) enzymes converts into THR (tetrahydrofolate) (= needed for purine + pyrimidine synthesis)
MTX inhibits DHFR enzymes = reduced THR
THR deficiency causes decreased thymidylate synthesis
this disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis during S phase of mitosis = cell death

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5
Q

outline the MoA of paclitaxel

A

paclitaxel binds to beta-tubulin MT subunits
MTs are stabilised which locks them in a rigid state
stabilisation means the mitotic spindle cannot disassemble and depolymerise
cells cannot undergo anaphase = cell death

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6
Q

outline MoA of alkylating agents (i.e., cyclophosphamide)

A

main anti tumour activity is due to formation of interstrand crosslinks (90%) = formation of cross-links between 2 guanine bases on different DNA strands
intrastrand crosslinks can also occur (10%) = formation of cross-links between 2 adjacent guanine bases on the same DNA strand
after intrastrand crosslinks are formed, the drug binds to the N7 nucleophilic site on the guanine base
this inhibits transcription as the DNA cannot separate
DNA cannot replicate = cell death

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7
Q

outline the MoA of capecitabine (5-FU)

A

caepecitabine is a prodrug of 5-FU and is converted through a series of enzymatic reactions
5-FU converts into its active form –> FdUMP
FdUMP forms stable complex with thymidylate synthase
this stops the conversion of dUMP –> dTMP (DNA building block)
reduced dTMP inhibits DNA synthesis and repair = cell death

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8
Q

outline the MoA of cisplatin

A

cisplatin enters cell
aquation occurs due to lower intracellular conc of Cl- ions which replaces these ions w H2O molecules
the aqua ligand makes the platinum more susceptible to bind to guanine bases
this forms intrastrand crosslinks –> inhibits DNA strand separation
this inhibits DNA replication + transcription –> impairs DNA mechanisms (so DNA cannot repair itself) –> cell death

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9
Q

outline the MoA of vincristine (vinca alkaloids)

A

usually MTs undergo polymerisation (growth) & depolymerisation (shrinkage) during mitosis
vincristine binds to alpha and beta tubulin heterodimers & MT ends
this disrupts polymerisation & depolymerisation of MTs which in turn disrupts the formation of the mitotic spindle
this blocks the formation of MTs
this causes mitotic arrest = cell death

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10
Q

outline three MoAs of anthracyclines (doxorubicin, etoposide)

A
  1. topoisomerase II inhibitors - topo II normally helps to recleave (cut + rejoin) DNA
    anthracyclines inhibit these enzymes which prevents DNA recleaving & introduces double stranded DNA breaks.
    accumulation of strand breaks = cell programmed cell death
  2. DNA intercalation - anthracyclines have planar aromatic structure which allows for the drug to insert into DNA
    this causes changes in the structure + function of DNA = cells cannot replicate = cell death
  3. formation of reactive oxygen species - anthracyclines have quinine scaffold which allows molecules to transfer electrons to make oxygen free radicals
    radicals react w/ O2 to make O2- (superoxide) and H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)
    reactive oxygen species can cause membrane + DNA damage = cell death
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11
Q

outline the two main MoAs of trastuzumab

A
  1. HER2 receptor blockade - binds to domain IV on extracellular part of HER2 receptor
    this disrupts dimerisation = reduced cell growth + survival & cell cycle arrest
  2. antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) -
    Fc region of trastuzumab draws immune cells to the tumour sites which overexpresses HER2 –> kills HER2 cells
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12
Q

what is the primary MoA of 5-FU?

A

inhibition of thymidylate (dTMP) synthesis

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13
Q

what is the primary MoA of imatinib (Gleevec)?

A

inhibition of Bcr-Abl protein kinase

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14
Q

what is the antidote for cyclophosphamide (or ifosfamide) induced haemorrhagic cystitis? how does it work?

A

mesna
binds to acrolein which is what cyclophosphamide breaks down into (acrolein irritates bladder lining causing it to shed)

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15
Q

why are hemastix offered to patients taking cyclophosphamide?

A

these detect blood in urine
+ve test can indicate haemorrhagic cystitis

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16
Q

what is extravasation? what does it cause?

A

accidental leakage of fluids from vein into SC tissue causing tissue damage, i.e., necrosis
DNA binding more toxic than non-DNA binding since hangs around for longer

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17
Q

what s/e is associated w anthracyclines (doxorubicin)?
how do you manage it?

A

plantar-palmar erythema –> red/tender hands/feet, peeling, numbness, difficulty using hands/feet
limit hot water use on hands/feet
cool them
avoid heat sources inc sauna or sitting in sun
gently apply skin creams
wear loose fitted clothes
try not to walk barefoot

18
Q

what are long term s/e associated w tamoxifen?

A

increased risk of endometrial cancer and thromboembolism (DVT, PE)

19
Q

what four cancer drug classes are associated w alopecia?

A

taxanes - paclitaxel
antimetabolites - MTX and capecitabine
vinca alkaloids - vincristine
anthracyclines - doxorubicin, etoposide

20
Q

what four cancer therapies have a higher risk of causing diarrhoea?

A

capecitabine
irinotecan
TKIs (i.e., Gleevec)
immunotherapy

21
Q

what are the three main methods of tumour reduction and when are they used?

A

surgery - localised disease, non vital organs
radiotherapy - localised disease cure for palliation of disseminated disease
chemo - localised or disseminated disease

22
Q

what three classes of cancer drugs are most associated w peripheral neuropathy?

A

vinca alkaloids - vincristine
platinum agents - cisplatin
capecitabine (but not MTX)

23
Q

what types of cancer agents are most likely to cause extravasation?

A

vesicants - DNA & non DNA binding (DNA: doxorubicin, epirubicin – WORST one, non: paclitaxel, vincristine)
irritants - etoposide, 5-FU, ifosfamide, MTX, melphalan, trastuzumab
acidic or alkaline agents

24
Q

how does Tx differ for extravasation for DNA binding and non-DNA binding vesicants?

A

DNA binding - body cannot flush out, causes BAD tissue damage, cold pack to = vasoconstriction - reduces blood flow to prevent drug spread in system
non-DNA binding - quickly metabolised, can be more easily removed, hot pack to = vasodilation - increases blood flow to allow drug metabolism + excretion

25
what are 14 key toxicities associated w cancer drugs?
n+v alopecia mucositis extravasation diarrhoea neutropenia thrombocytopenia anaemia RI HI tumour lysis syndrome cardiotoxicities haemorrhagic cystitis plantar palmer erythema
26
what is a key condition you need to keep an eye out for w bloods? what signs would there be?
myelosuppression - reduced platelets watch for signs of bruising/bleeding, sore throat
27
why is combination chemo used?
differing MoA of drugs = synergistic activity (affect different parts of cell cycle) reduces s/e intensity as lower doses needed of each
28
what are cancer drugs associated w high emetogenic potential?
cisplatin, high dose cyclophosphamide (>1500 mg/m2), high dose doxorubicin ( >60 mg/m2)
29
what are cancer drugs associated w moderate emetogenic potential?
taxanes - paclitaxel, doxorubicin, intermediate and low doses of cyclophosphamide, high doses of MTX (0.1– 1.2 g/m2) imatinib melphalan
30
what cancer drugs are associated w mild emetogenic potential?
fluorouracil, etoposide, MTX (<100 mg/m2), vinca alkaloids, trastuzumab
31
which cancer drugs are associated w alopecia? how can this be mitigated?
taxanes vinca alkaloids MTX scalp cooling - wet hair and water through hat to prevent cause capillaries feeding scalp to strip away - prevents chemo being as close to hair avoid perming, dyeing hair
32
which cancer drugs are associated w mucositis? how can this be mitigated?
fluorouracil, capecitabine, MTX, melphalan difflam mouthwash, paracetamol prevent via good oral hygiene, corsodyl mouthwash (preventing infection chances) arises due to damage to mucosal lining of GI tract = increases infection risk and reduces oral intake melphalan - shreds entire inside of GI tract :(
33
which cancer drugs are associated w diarrhoea? how can it be mitigated?
capecitabine, irinotecan, TKIs, immunotherapy loperamide for first 3 but immunotherapy diarrhoea due to inflammation of gut mucosa so need steroids can add codeine to loperamide ORT sachets ocreotide for extreme/if loperamide not working atropine for irinotecan (offsets cholinergic response)
34
which cancer drugs are associated w neutropenia? how can this be mitigated?
anthracyclines, docetaxel medical emergency if sepsis signs then broad spectrum antibiotic: piperacillin and gentamicin GCSF - stimulate neutrophil production and reduces neutropenia duration granulocyte colony stimulating factor
35
which cancer drugs are associated w thrombocytopenia? how can this be mitigated?
melphalan, etoposide, carboplatin dose dependent: cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, MTX may need to reduce dose may need pools of platelets (but this has temporary benefit) withdrawal of chemo and cessation of antiplatelets usually does the trick
36
which cancer drugs are associated w anaemia? how can this be mitigated
caused by most chemo agents iron tablets severe - blood transfusion (if Hb critical) risk - transfusion dependency can = iron overload
37
which cancer drugs are associated w RI? how can this be mitigated?
cisplatin, high dose MTX ensure good urine output and IV fluids given monitor renal anything below 60 for eGFR indicates RI
38
which cancer drugs are associated w HI? how can this be mitigated?
trastuzumab, emtansine AST/ALT/bilirubin raised LFT can be raised between doses w MTX, vincristine, gemcitabine but blood should be checked week later as should come down reversible if Tx withheld
39
which cancer drugs are associated w tumour lysis syndrome? how can this be mitigated?
cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin etoposide, MTX, imatinib occurs due to breakdown of malignant cells impacts electrolytes: high uric acid (can crystallise and block renal tubules = RI), hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hypocalcaemia associated w high tumour burden and cancers w high proliferation rates allopurinol 300 mg BD as prophylaxis rasburicase more potent and used in bulky disease management of hyperkalaemia dialysis potentially
40
which cancer drugs are associated w cardiotoxicity? how can this be mitigated?
trastuzumab, anthracyclines (doxorubicin) HER2 receptors on heart oxygen free radicals produced by anthracyclines = oxidative stress in myocardial tissue minimise dose exposure w anthracyclines (lifetime cumulative allowance) monitor heart function