Campylobacter, Helicobacter, & Arcobacter Flashcards

1
Q

Where do Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Arcobacter, and Lawsonia typically cause disease?

A

genital and gastrointestinal pathogens/commensals

(some are potential pathogens of the UPPER GI tract, causing gastritis)

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2
Q

What are the 3 main phenotypic characteristics of Campylobacter?

A
  1. Gram-negative
  2. slender comma-shaped or curved/spiral rods (2 together look like seagulls)
  3. motile by long polar flagella
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3
Q

Is Campylobacter hemolytic? What aerobic conditions does it grow best in?

A

non-hemolytic

microaerophilic - needs 3-15% oxygen and 3-5% carbon dioxide (normal atmospheric tension is too high)

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4
Q

What media does Campylobacter grow best in? How does it respond to oxidase and urease tests?

A

selective (antibiotic) media, like Clark, Duffy, and Sparrow, since the GI tract is highly contaminated

oxidase + (unlike Vibrio)
urease - (unlike Helicobacter)

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5
Q

What species of Campylobacter require higher temperatures for growth?

A

C. jejuni —> 42 degrees C

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6
Q

What are the 5 pathogenic species/subspecies of Campylobacter? What do each cause?

A
  1. C. fetus subsp. fetus* - septicemia and abortion
  2. C. fetus subsp. venerealis - epizootic bovine infertility
  3. C. jejuni/C. coli - diarrhea and enterocolitis
  4. Lawsonia intracellularis - proliferative enteropathy
  5. C. upsaliensis* - diarrhea
  • = zoonotic
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7
Q

Where does Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis cause infection? How is it transmitted? How does age affect transmission?

A

obligate parasite of bovine genital tract

venereal
- young bulls are transient carriers
- older bulls may be permanent carriers

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8
Q

What 3 things happen upon Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis infection?

A
  1. placenta and fetus become infected, sometimes with abortion or newborn death
  2. placenta becomes hemorrhagic and edematous
  3. metritis and infertility with shedding from uterus
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9
Q

Why is it important to screen bulls for Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis infection before breeding?

A

bulls are asymptomatic

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10
Q

How does Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis infection progress? What are 2 characteristic clinical signs?

A

following transmission, the bacteria colonize the female reproductive tract in an ascending manner: vagina, to the cervix, uterus, and oviducts

(bovine genital campylobacteriosis)
1. endometritis within 2 weeks of exposure
2. reduced conception rate resulting in “repeat breeders”

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11
Q

What makes Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis especially virulent? How is it able to avoid host recognition?

A

proteinaceous micro-capsule, S-layer, that makes the bacterium serum-resistant and phagocytosis-resistant through inhibition of complement binding (C3b) and blocking the binding of LPS antibody

S-layer can antigenically phase vary

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12
Q

What is the best form of immunity against Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis?

A

stable O-antigen and flagella antibodies result in immobilization
- unable to use S-layer antibodies since it can change and elude specific antibodies (IgA); heterogenous antibodies can be protective (vaccine efficacy questionable)

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13
Q

What is the best preventative measure against Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis?

A

artificial insemination
- this is why its rare incidence in the US

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14
Q

What way of diagnosis is avoided for Campylobacter infection?

A

serology

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15
Q

How is Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis infection diagnosed?

A
  • CULTURE: microaerophilic with 10% carbon dioxide and 5% oxygen
  • FLUORESCENT AB TEST: detect bacteria in tissues
  • PCR/DNA PROBES
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16
Q

Why is the serum agglutination test not reliable for Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis diagnosis?

A
  • not all infected animals develop antibodies (low sensitivity)
  • most cattle have O antigen antibodies (low specificity)
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17
Q

What disease is most commonly caused by Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus? What else can it cause?

A

ENZOOTIC ABORTION in sheep (previously called vibriosis)
- bacteremia
- high abortion rate resulting from placentitis
- metritis

disease in cattle - sporadic abortion occurring during the second half of gestation and infertility

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18
Q

Where does Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus infection occur? What animals act as carriers?

A

genital tract following bacteremia

GI tract of birds and asymptomatic animals within the herd of cattle, sheep, and humans (ZOONOTIC)

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19
Q

What virulence factor of Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is most important?

A

protein antigens forming an S-layer
- serovars A-2 and B based on O antigens

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20
Q

Where does Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus primarily inhabit? How is it transmitted?

A

GI tract NOT genital tract

ingestion of infectious material and contaminated feed/water (NO VENEREAL TRANSMISSION)

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21
Q

What are 2 common gross lesons of Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus infection? What is infection commonly mixed with?

A
  1. aborted fetus mid to late term
  2. focal hepatic necrosis

Chlamydia

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22
Q

What is serotype-specific immunity to Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus based on?

A
  • LPS antibodies
  • S-layer protein antigens 1 and 5 (serotypes prevalent in the US) antibodies
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23
Q

What 2 lesions are used to diagnose Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus infection?

A
  1. placental edema
  2. fetal changes
    - necrotizing, fibrinous arteritis with edema
    - blood-tinged fetal fluids
    - focal hepatic necrosis
24
Q

How is Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus isolated? What antibody test can identify it?

A

on selective media in microaerophilic conditions

fluorescent antibody staining of cotyledon impression smears

25
Q

Where are Campylobacter jejuni, coli, and lari most commonly found?

A

intestinal tract of domestic and wild animals
- 10% dogs
- 5% cats
- 50% chickens
- 5-100% cattle

26
Q

How are Campylobacter jejuni, coli, and lari transmitted? What diseases do they cause?

A

highly infectious - oral transmission

  • enteritis associated with blood in calves, sheep, dogs, cats, foals, and humans
  • bovine mastitis (shed in milk)
  • abortions in sheep
  • infectious hepatitis in chickens
27
Q

What are the 3 major virulence factors of Campylobacter jejuni, coli, and lari?

A
  1. LOS with N-acetylneuraminic acid and sialic acid (mimics human antigens —> no O antigen)
  2. leukotoxin - enterotoxin, cytotoxin, adenylate cyclase
  3. Shiga-like toxin - hemolysin
28
Q

What initiates Campylobacter jejuni, coli, and lari infection? How are they able to reach deeper tissues?

A

bacteria penetrating the mucosal layer and infecting enterocytes

  • flagella motility
  • ability to survive in macrophages due to superoxide dismutase and catalase, which inhibit oxidative radicals
    (facultative intracellular pathogen)
29
Q

How does Campylobacter grow on media?

A

gray, mucoid colonies on blood agar and charcoal selective agar

30
Q

What are 4 clinical signs of Campylobacter jejuni infection?

A
  1. fever
  2. abdominal pain
  3. nausea, vomiting
  4. blood in feces
31
Q

In what conditions is Campylobacter jejuni cultured?

A
  • selective media (Skirrow)
  • incubate at 42 degree C (warmer than other species)
  • microaerophilic
32
Q

Antibiotics are not typically used for Campylobacter infections. How is infection controlled?

A

meticulous hygiene in kennels and catteries

33
Q

In what animals does Campylobacter upsaliensis typically cause disease? What virulence factor is most important?

A
  • dogs and cats (may be zoonotic)
  • cytolethal distending toxin
34
Q

What diseases are Campylobacter hyointestinalis and Campylobacter mucosalis associated with? What virulence factor is most important?

A

PIGS (may be zoonotic)
- proliferative eneritis
- intestinal adenomatosis

cytolethal distending toxin

35
Q

What 3 diseases is Campylobacter associated with in humans?

A
  1. enteric and systemic infections in humans - C. fetus subsp. fetus
  2. enteritis only - C. jejuni, C. coli, C. lari
  3. infectious food poisoning
36
Q

When is supportive care necessary in Campylobacter infection? How is infection controlled?

A

with enteritis

  • artificial insemination (C. fetus subsp. venerealis)
  • prompt removal of aborted materials (C. fetus subsp. fetus)
  • cull carrier bulls
  • maintain clean environment
  • bacterins can eliminate bull carrier state in C. fetus subsp. venerealis
37
Q

What 3 diseases in humans is Helicobacter pylori the causative agent of?

A
  1. gastritis
  2. stomach ulcers
  3. carcinoma
38
Q

What species of Helicobacter cause disease in animals?

A

H. pylori, H. felis, H. heilmanii (H. suis), H. salomonis in dogs, cats, and swine —> gastritis, ulcers

39
Q

What 2 species of Helicobacter cause disease in rodent colonies?

A
  1. H. hepaticus
  2. H. bilis

cause hepatitis

40
Q

What characteristic enzyme is necessary for Helicobacter survival in the GI tract?

A

urease —> neutralizes urea into ammonia to increase pH

41
Q

What effective treatment is used for Helicobacter infection?

A

bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) in combination with metronidazole and amoxicillin or tetracycline

42
Q

What are the 2 major species of Helicobacter identified in animals?

A
  1. gastric species
  2. enterohepatic species
43
Q

What species of Helicobacter are associated with gastritis in cats? Dogs?

A

H. felis, H. canis, H. pylori, H. heilmannil

H. bilis, H. felis, H. canis, H. salomonis, H. rappini, H. heilmannil

44
Q

What are 7 clinical symptoms of Helicobacter infection in dogs and cats?

A
  1. vomiting
  2. regurgitation
  3. abdominal pain
  4. fever
  5. diarrhea
  6. weight loss, poor condition
  7. malaise (discomfort)
45
Q

What are the only documented animal pathogens of Helicobacter? What do they cause?

A

H. hepaticus and H. bilis

decimate rodent research colonies and breeding facilities with hepatitis
(H. hepaticus can also result in hepatic neoplasia)

46
Q

What is Helicobacter sus infection associated with?

A

gastritis in pigs; may cause disease in humans
(previously known as H. heilmannii type 1)

47
Q

How is Arcobacter unique compared to Campylobacter and Helicobacter?

A

aerotolerant and grows at 30 degrees C

48
Q

What species of Arcobacter are associated with disease?

A

A. cryaerophilus, A. butsleri, A. skirrowii —> enteritis and late-term abortion in livestock/dogs + low-grade masitis
- likely to also cause disease in humans (ZOONOTIC)

49
Q

What media does Arcobacter grow best in? What else is presumptive of Arcobacter growth?

A

leptospiral media at 25 degrees C and subculture growth to blood agar under microaerophilic conditions

darting motility, growth in ambient air, growth on Yersinia selective media

50
Q

What is the best way to identify Arcobacter?

A

PCR-based tests of 16S rDNA sequence

51
Q

Where does Lawsonia intracellularis live?

A

only inside epithelial cells and cultivvate in epithelial cell cultures —> obligate intracellular pathogens

52
Q

What disease is Lawsonia intracellularis associated with?

A

proliferative intestinal enteropathy in swine and hamsters + chronic diarrhea with fibrin deposits

AKA: proliferative entiritis, porcine intestinal adenomatosis, proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy, ileitis, WET-TAIL DISEASE, intestinal adenomatous hyperplasia

53
Q

What are the 2 major forms of disease manifestations in Lawsonia intracellularis infection? How does this tend to affect the intestine?

A
  1. acute hemorrhagic enteropathy and diarrhea (sudden death of replacement animals and those close to market age)
  2. chronic mild diarrhea and reduced growth

loss of normal vilus structure and replacement of glandular epithelium

54
Q

What are the 2 classical lesions of swine proliferative enteropathy from Lawsonia intracellularis?

A
  1. thickened mucosa
  2. intracytoplasmic curved rods in intestinal epithlium
55
Q

What is the best way of diagnosing Arcobacter infection? How else can it be diagnosed?

A
  • histopathology: proliferate in enterocytes and are obligate intracellular pathogens —> isolation on cell culture not practical
  • herd history
  • gross pathology
  • fluorescent antibody
  • PCR
56
Q

What are 3 possible ways to control/treat Arcobacter infection?

A
  1. prevent introduction of carrier animals with ELISA and serology screening
  2. live attenuated vaccine
  3. antibiotics in feed (not popular)