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patho > Bones > Flashcards

Bones Flashcards

1
Q

What is bone composed of?

A

Connective tissue composed of ground substance, cells, and fibers

Bone consists of an extracellular matrix and several cell types.

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2
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206 bones

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3
Q

What are the main functions of bones?

A
  • Mechanical support
  • Force transmission
  • Internal organ protection
  • Mineral homeostasis
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4
Q

What is the extracellular component of bone called?

A

Matrix

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5
Q

What are the components of the bone matrix?

A
  • Osteoid (35%)
  • Minerals (65%)
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6
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts?

A

Build bone

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7
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

Consume/absorb bone

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8
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

Help control calcium and phosphate levels

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9
Q

What is the process of bone formation called?

A

Osteogenesis or ossification

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10
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Replacement of hyaline cartilage with bony tissue

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11
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Replacement of sheet-like connective tissue with bony tissue

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12
Q

What are the two classifications of bones based on microscopic structure?

A
  • Compact bone
  • Spongy bone
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13
Q

At what age do girls typically close their growth plates?

A

15-20 years

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14
Q

At what age do boys typically close their growth plates?

A

18-22 years

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15
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Rare genetic disease characterized by reduced bone resorption

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16
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

Decreased bone mass

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17
Q

Define osteoporosis.

A

Severe osteopenia that significantly increases the risk of fracture

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18
Q

What are the two types of osteoporosis?

A
  • Primary
  • Secondary
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19
Q

What can lead to secondary osteoporosis?

A
  • Chronic thyrotoxicosis
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Malabsorption
  • Alcohol/smoking
  • Medications
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20
Q

What is a common clinical feature of osteoporosis?

A

Vertebral fractures

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21
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Impaired mineralization of bone matrix in adults

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22
Q

What is rickets?

A

Impaired mineralization of bone matrix in children

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23
Q

What causes hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increases bone resorption

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24
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy?

A

Skeletal changes occurring in chronic renal disease

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25
Q

What is Paget’s Disease?

A

Increased, disordered, and structurally unsound bone mass

26
Q

What are the three stages of Paget’s Disease?

A
  • Initial osteolytic stage
  • Mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic stage
  • Burned out quiescent osteosclerotic stage
27
Q

What is a common feature of Paget’s Disease?

A

Lion face (leontiasis ossea)

28
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A
  • Simple
  • Compound
  • Displaced
  • Stress
  • Greenstick
  • Pathological
29
Q

What is required for optimal fracture recovery?

A

Immobilization

30
Q

What is osteonecrosis?

A

Infarction of bone and marrow

31
Q

What are common causes of osteomyelitis?

A
  • Virus
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Parasites
32
Q

What are the most common primary bone tumors?

A
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing sarcoma
33
Q

What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone?

A

Osteosarcoma

34
Q

What is the typical age range for osteosarcoma occurrence?

A

75% occur before 20 years old

35
Q

What is the hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Joint effusions, juxta-articular osteopenia with erosions

36
Q

What is the autoimmune response in rheumatoid arthritis initiated by?

A

CD4+ helper T-cells

37
Q

What are common symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Malaise
  • Fatigue
  • Symmetrical joint lesions
38
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Unknown cause, present under 16 years, persists for at least 6 weeks

39
Q

What is a common feature of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankyloses

40
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Muscle pain and stiffness in the upper body and hips

41
Q

What is the treatment for infectious arthritis?

A

Antibiotics and supportive care

42
Q

What blood tests may be included in the diagnosis of Rheumatica?

A
  • Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
  • Complete blood count (CBC)
  • C-reactive protein (CRP)
  • Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
  • Rheumatoid factor (RF)

These tests help assess inflammation and immune response.

43
Q

What are common treatments for Rheumatica?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • NSAIDS
  • Exercise
  • Rest
  • Self-care

These treatments aim to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms.

44
Q

What characterizes Suppurative Arthritis?

A

Haematogenous spread of bacterial infection leading to sudden development of acutely painful and restricted joint with a restricted ROM

Fever, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR are also common.

45
Q

Which joints are most commonly involved in Infectious Arthritis?

A
  • Knee
  • Hip
  • Shoulder
  • Elbow
  • Wrist
  • Sternoclavicular joint

Typically involves a single joint.

46
Q

What is the definition of Gout?

A

Transient attacks of acute arthritis initiated by monosodium urate crystals deposited within and around joints

Hyperuricaemia (plasma urate >6.8mg/dL) is a key factor.

47
Q

What are the primary risk factors for Gout?

A
  • Age >20 years
  • Male > Female
  • Genetic predisposition (HGPRT gene)
  • Alcohol consumption
  • Obesity/drugs

These factors contribute to the development of elevated uric acid levels.

48
Q

What are the typical symptoms of a Gout attack?

A
  • Sudden onset
  • Excruciating pain
  • Localised hyperaemia and warmth
  • Monoarticular involvement
  • Lasts hours to weeks

Subsequent attacks may become polyarticular.

49
Q

What lifestyle modifications can help manage Gout?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Reduce purine intake
  • Reduce alcohol and sugar
  • Regular exercise

These changes can help control uric acid levels.

50
Q

What pharmacological management options are available for Gout?

A
  • Uricosuric drugs (allopurinol)
  • NSAIDS
  • Colchicine

These medications aim to lower uric acid levels and relieve pain.

51
Q

What is Crystal Deposition Disease (CPPD) also known as?

A

Pseudogout

It typically affects individuals over 50 years.

52
Q

What is a common radiographic finding in CPPD?

A

Chondrocalcinosis

This condition can present with acute, subacute, or chronic arthritis.

53
Q

What are Ganglion Cysts?

A

Small cysts usually located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath

They develop due to connective tissue degeneration.

54
Q

What is a Synovial Cyst?

A

Herniation of synovium through a joint capsule

An example is the Popliteal cyst (Baker Cyst) associated with RA.

55
Q

What is a Lipoma?

A

Benign tumour of fat, the most common soft tissue tumour in adults

It is usually asymptomatic and harmless.

56
Q

What is Liposarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour of adipose tissue

It develops in deep tissues of proximal extremities or the retroperitoneum, typically in individuals over 60 years.

57
Q

What characterizes Nodular Fasciitis?

A

Self-limiting fibroblastic proliferation in young adults, often following trauma

It typically shows rapid growth over weeks to months.

58
Q

What is Superficial Fibromatosis?

A

Benign growth that can cause local deformity

It presents as nodular proliferative lesions and is more common in males.

59
Q

What is Dupuytren Contracture?

A

Thickening of the palmar fascia

It is a type of Superficial Fibromatosis.

60
Q

What are the types of Bone Fractures?

A

Various classifications exist, including but not limited to:
* Simple
* Compound
* Comminuted
* Greenstick

Each type has distinct characteristics and implications for treatment.

patho (13 decks)

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