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Bones Flashcards

1
Q

What is bone composed of?

A

Connective tissue composed of ground substance, cells, and fibers

Bone consists of an extracellular matrix and several cell types.

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2
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206 bones

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3
Q

What are the main functions of bones?

A
  • Mechanical support
  • Force transmission
  • Internal organ protection
  • Mineral homeostasis
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4
Q

What is the extracellular component of bone called?

A

Matrix

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5
Q

What are the components of the bone matrix?

A
  • Osteoid (35%)
  • Minerals (65%)
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6
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts?

A

Build bone

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7
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

Consume/absorb bone

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8
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

Help control calcium and phosphate levels

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9
Q

What is the process of bone formation called?

A

Osteogenesis or ossification

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10
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Replacement of hyaline cartilage with bony tissue

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11
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Replacement of sheet-like connective tissue with bony tissue

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12
Q

What are the two classifications of bones based on microscopic structure?

A
  • Compact bone
  • Spongy bone
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13
Q

At what age do girls typically close their growth plates?

A

15-20 years

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14
Q

At what age do boys typically close their growth plates?

A

18-22 years

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15
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Rare genetic disease characterized by reduced bone resorption

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16
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

Decreased bone mass

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17
Q

Define osteoporosis.

A

Severe osteopenia that significantly increases the risk of fracture

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18
Q

What are the two types of osteoporosis?

A
  • Primary
  • Secondary
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19
Q

What can lead to secondary osteoporosis?

A
  • Chronic thyrotoxicosis
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Malabsorption
  • Alcohol/smoking
  • Medications
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20
Q

What is a common clinical feature of osteoporosis?

A

Vertebral fractures

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21
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Impaired mineralization of bone matrix in adults

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22
Q

What is rickets?

A

Impaired mineralization of bone matrix in children

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23
Q

What causes hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increases bone resorption

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24
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy?

A

Skeletal changes occurring in chronic renal disease

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25
What is Paget's Disease?
Increased, disordered, and structurally unsound bone mass
26
What are the three stages of Paget's Disease?
* Initial osteolytic stage * Mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic stage * Burned out quiescent osteosclerotic stage
27
What is a common feature of Paget's Disease?
Lion face (leontiasis ossea)
28
What are the types of fractures?
* Simple * Compound * Displaced * Stress * Greenstick * Pathological
29
What is required for optimal fracture recovery?
Immobilization
30
What is osteonecrosis?
Infarction of bone and marrow
31
What are common causes of osteomyelitis?
* Virus * Bacteria * Fungi * Parasites
32
What are the most common primary bone tumors?
* Osteosarcoma * Chondrosarcoma * Ewing sarcoma
33
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone?
Osteosarcoma
34
What is the typical age range for osteosarcoma occurrence?
75% occur before 20 years old
35
What is the hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis?
Joint effusions, juxta-articular osteopenia with erosions
36
What is the autoimmune response in rheumatoid arthritis initiated by?
CD4+ helper T-cells
37
What are common symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?
* Malaise * Fatigue * Symmetrical joint lesions
38
What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
Unknown cause, present under 16 years, persists for at least 6 weeks
39
What is a common feature of ankylosing spondylitis?
Destruction of articular cartilage and bony ankyloses
40
What is polymyalgia rheumatica?
Muscle pain and stiffness in the upper body and hips
41
What is the treatment for infectious arthritis?
Antibiotics and supportive care
42
What blood tests may be included in the diagnosis of Rheumatica?
* Antinuclear antibody (ANA) * Complete blood count (CBC) * C-reactive protein (CRP) * Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) * Rheumatoid factor (RF) ## Footnote These tests help assess inflammation and immune response.
43
What are common treatments for Rheumatica?
* Corticosteroids * NSAIDS * Exercise * Rest * Self-care ## Footnote These treatments aim to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms.
44
What characterizes Suppurative Arthritis?
Haematogenous spread of bacterial infection leading to sudden development of acutely painful and restricted joint with a restricted ROM ## Footnote Fever, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR are also common.
45
Which joints are most commonly involved in Infectious Arthritis?
* Knee * Hip * Shoulder * Elbow * Wrist * Sternoclavicular joint ## Footnote Typically involves a single joint.
46
What is the definition of Gout?
Transient attacks of acute arthritis initiated by monosodium urate crystals deposited within and around joints ## Footnote Hyperuricaemia (plasma urate >6.8mg/dL) is a key factor.
47
What are the primary risk factors for Gout?
* Age >20 years * Male > Female * Genetic predisposition (HGPRT gene) * Alcohol consumption * Obesity/drugs ## Footnote These factors contribute to the development of elevated uric acid levels.
48
What are the typical symptoms of a Gout attack?
* Sudden onset * Excruciating pain * Localised hyperaemia and warmth * Monoarticular involvement * Lasts hours to weeks ## Footnote Subsequent attacks may become polyarticular.
49
What lifestyle modifications can help manage Gout?
* Weight loss * Reduce purine intake * Reduce alcohol and sugar * Regular exercise ## Footnote These changes can help control uric acid levels.
50
What pharmacological management options are available for Gout?
* Uricosuric drugs (allopurinol) * NSAIDS * Colchicine ## Footnote These medications aim to lower uric acid levels and relieve pain.
51
What is Crystal Deposition Disease (CPPD) also known as?
Pseudogout ## Footnote It typically affects individuals over 50 years.
52
What is a common radiographic finding in CPPD?
Chondrocalcinosis ## Footnote This condition can present with acute, subacute, or chronic arthritis.
53
What are Ganglion Cysts?
Small cysts usually located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath ## Footnote They develop due to connective tissue degeneration.
54
What is a Synovial Cyst?
Herniation of synovium through a joint capsule ## Footnote An example is the Popliteal cyst (Baker Cyst) associated with RA.
55
What is a Lipoma?
Benign tumour of fat, the most common soft tissue tumour in adults ## Footnote It is usually asymptomatic and harmless.
56
What is Liposarcoma?
Malignant tumour of adipose tissue ## Footnote It develops in deep tissues of proximal extremities or the retroperitoneum, typically in individuals over 60 years.
57
What characterizes Nodular Fasciitis?
Self-limiting fibroblastic proliferation in young adults, often following trauma ## Footnote It typically shows rapid growth over weeks to months.
58
What is Superficial Fibromatosis?
Benign growth that can cause local deformity ## Footnote It presents as nodular proliferative lesions and is more common in males.
59
What is Dupuytren Contracture?
Thickening of the palmar fascia ## Footnote It is a type of Superficial Fibromatosis.
60
What are the types of Bone Fractures?
Various classifications exist, including but not limited to: * Simple * Compound * Comminuted * Greenstick ## Footnote Each type has distinct characteristics and implications for treatment.

patho (13 decks)

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