BM1 QUIZZES Flashcards
One of the following conditions is associated with decrease in amniotic fluid volume
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Intrauterine growth restriction
D. Tracheoesophagealfistula
C. Intrauterine growth restriction
Premature rupture of membranes will most likely result to:
a. Sepsis
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Respiratory distress syndrome
d. Intrauterine growth restriction
a. Sepsis
Of the following, this condition is associated with polyhydramnios:
a. Urethral atresia
b. Amniotic fluid leak
c. Prune Belly Syndrome
d. Diaphragmatic Hernia
d. Diaphragmatic Hernia
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Intrauterine growth restriction results in small for gestational age and small for SGA are due to intrauterine growth restriction.
b. Mortality in a high-risk infant depends on the Apgar Score and Ballard’s Scoring
c. For any given gestational age, the
higher the birth weight, the lower
risk of death.
d. For any given birth weight, the longer the gestational age, the greater likelihood of death.
c. For any given gestational age, the
higher the birth weight, the lower
risk of death.
One of the following is a correct pair:
a. Very low birth weight: < 1000 grams
b. Low birth weight: < 2000 grams
c. Extremely preterm: < 28 weeks
d. Moderate preterm: 30 – 36 weeks
c. Extremely preterm: < 28 weeks
This is the most common problem affecting premature babies:
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Respiratory distress
d. Respiratory distress
One of the following is NOT a complication of large for gestational age babies:
a. Birth asphyxia
b. Cephalohematoma
c. Subgaleal hemorrhage
d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
d. Intraventricular hemorrhage
The first manifestation of seizures in neonates:
a. Absence of respiration
b. Abnormal eye movement
c. Flexion of upper extremities
d. Tongue thrusting
a. Absence of respiration
Jitteriness can be found in the following newborn conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Polycythemia
b. Mothers given Nalbuphine
c. Infants of Diabetic mothers
d. Birth Asphyxia
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
f. None of the above
True of Direct bilirubin, EXCEPT:
a. Water soluble
b. Increased levels are ALWAYS
pathologic
c. Does not cross blood brain barrier
d. Predominantly bound to albumin
e. Elevated if > 1mg/dl for total bilirubin
levels < 5mg/dl
d. Predominantly bound to albumin
In neonates with jaundice, the following laboratory parameters are need, EXCEPT:
a. Blood typing
b. Direct Coomb’s Test
c. Complete Blood Count
d. Serum globulin
d. Serum globulin
This is a common complication of infants with diabetic mothers.’
a. Shoulder dystocia
b. Cardiomegaly
c. Jaundice
d. Polycythemia
a. Shoulder dystocia
The following is/are TRUE of caput succedaneum:
a. Edematous swelling of the scalp
b. Extends across the midline
c. Resolves spontaneously
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Fetal hypoxia after birth can be due to the following:
a. Severe anemia
b. Failure to breath due in utero CNS
injury
c. Severe congenital heart disease or
pulmonary disease
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The following is/are TRUE of apnea of prematurity:
a. Cessation of breathing for >/= 20 secs
b. Cessation of breathing for any duration of cyanosis
c. Treatment includes gentle tactile
stimulation, supplemental oxygen,
methylxanthines
d. A and C only
d. A and C only
The following are features/characteristics of infant of diabetic mothers, EXCEPT:
a. Large and plump with puffy, plethoric facies
b. Can be with normal or low birth weight
c. High-risk of birth trauma
d. Poor Apgar Score
b. Can be with normal or low birth weight
The following metabolic disorders can be seen in infant of diabetic mothers:
a. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia,
hypomagnesemia
b. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia
c. Hypoglycemia, hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia
d. None of the above
a. Hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia
The following are true in infant of diabetic mothers, EXCEPT:
a. High incidence of respiratory distress syndrome
b. Cardiomegaly but no heart failure
c. Can have anencephaly, hypoplastic
left heart, and hydronephrosis
d. Can be jittery, tremulous and hyperexcitable or hypotonic, lethargic
and poor sucking
b. Cardiomegaly but no heart failure
TRUE of infants with diaphragmatic hernia, EXCEPT:
a. Respiratory distress is a cardinal sign
b. can be stable up to 48 hours
c. Scaphoid abdomen with increased chest wall diameter
d. Bowel sounds can be heard in the chest with normal breath sounds
d. Bowel sounds can be heard in the chest with normal breath sounds
One of the following is a low-risk factor for developing meconium aspiration syndrome in a newborn?
a. Preeclampsia
b. Prematurity
c. Oligohydramnios
d. Maternal Infection
b. Prematurity
Bilirubin encephalopathy is a neurologic syndrome resulting from the deposition of this substance in the brain.
a. Biliverdin
b. Urobilinoids
c. Direct Bilirubin
d. Indirect Bilirubin
d. Indirect Bilirubin
One of the following is a common neonatal respiratory problem associated with premature infants
a. Apnea
b. Pneumonia
c. Intraventricular Hemorrhage
d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
a. Apnea
One of the following are increased in large for gestation age.
a. Cephalhematoma
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Cardiac problem
a. Cephalhematoma
Vomiting in the neonatal period is usually due to:
a. Overfeeding
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Milk allergy
d. Inborn errors of metabolism
a. Overfeeding
Regarding intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) of prematurity, the following are true, EXCEPT:
a. It usually develops spontaneously
b. MRI is the preferred imaging
technique for screening IVH
c. Prophylactic administration of low- dose indomethacin reduces the incidence of severe IVH
d. It may rarely manifest at birth
b. MRI is the preferred imaging technique for screening IVH
**
The following are TRUE regarding apnea, EXCEPT:
a. Apnea is a common problem in preterm infants.
b. in term infant, apnea is always worrisome
c. Obstructive apnea is characterized by nascence of airflow but persistent chest wall motion.
d. Serious apnea is defined as cessation of breathing for long than 20 sec
e. Bradycardia follows the apnea by 1 – 2 secs in more than 95% of cases and is most often nodal.
e. Bradycardia follows the apnea by 1 – 2 secs in more than 95% of cases and is most often nodal.
Administration of arterial corticosteroids to women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation significantly reduces the following, EXCEPT:
a. Incidence and mortality of RDS
b. Postnatal growth
c. The overall neonatal mortality
d. Need for and duration of ventilatory support
e. Incidence of severe intraventricular
hemorrhage
b. Postnatal growth
The basic defect requiring treatment in RDS is:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Circulatory insufficiency
c. Hypothermia
d.Inadequate pulmonary exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide
e. Electrolyte disturbance
d.Inadequate pulmonary exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Contributary factors for the development of broncho-pulmonary dysplasia (BPD) include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Immaturity
b. Dehydration during the 1st day of life
c. Chorioamnionitis
d. Symptomatic PDA
e. Malnutrition
b. Dehydration during the 1st day of life
One of the following is FALSE in the chest radiograph of transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
a. Prominent pulmonary vascular
markings
b. Fluid in the intralobar fissures
c. Overaeration
d. Flat diaphragms
e. Diffuse reticulogranular pattern
e. Diffuse reticulogranular pattern
The following are TRUE regarding meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS), EXCEPT:
a. (MAS) develops in 5% of meconium-stained infants.
b. 30% require mechanical ventilation
c. Mortality rate is 3 – 5 %
d. Overdistention of the chest may be
prominent
e. Usually occurs in preterm or near-
term infants
e. Usually occurs in preterm or near-
term infants
The following are predisposing factors for persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn, EXCEPT:
a. Anemia
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Early-onset sepsis
d. Hypoglycemia
e. Birth asphyxia
a. Anemia
Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia can be diagnosed on prenatal Ultrasonography (between ____ weeks of gestation) in > 50% of cases. Findings on the ultrasonography may include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Chest mass
b. Mediastinal shift
c. Gastric bubble
d. Oligohydramnios
e. A liver in the thoracic cavity
d. Oligohydramnios
A poor prognostic sign of diaphragmatic hernia (CDH).
a. Grunting
b. Use of accessory muscles
c. Early respiratory distress, within 6 hours of life
d. Cyanosis
e. Scaphoid abdome
c. Early respiratory distress, within 6 hours of life
When screening for intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), the best time to perform an ultrasound is
a. First day of life
b. Second day of life
c. Third day of life
d. Fourth day of life
e. Fifth day of life
d. Fourth day of life
KC was delivered via cesarean section with good cry. Amniotic fluid is clear. Maternal history is unremarkable. 1 hour after, she was examined tachypneic with retractions but chest sounds are clear. The following are true of KC’s conditions:
a. Self-limiting
b. Due to delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid.
c. Treatment is supportive
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.
● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain
MATCHING TYPE
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE
Jaundice lasting for a few days -
A
MATCHING TYPE
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE
Onset after 1 week of life
B
MATCHING TYPE
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE
Jaundice resulting from insufficient milk intake
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
MATCHING TYPE
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE
Presence of glucuronidase in some milk
B
MATCHING TYPE
Frequent breastfeeding is needed -
A. BREASTFEEDING JAUNDICE
B. BREASTMILK JAUNDICE
A
MATCHING TYPE
Visible on the 2nd day
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
MATCHING TYPE
Direct bilirubin of < 2mg/dl
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
MATCHING TYPE
Persists beyond 10 days
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
MATCHING TYPE
Total bilirubin peaks at 12 mg/dl
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
MATCHING TYPE
Present on the 18th hour of life
A. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
C. BOTH
B. PATHOLOGIC JAUNDICE
37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.
● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain
37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.
● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain
37 – 40: Give at least 4 common manifestations of a sick neonate
.
● Abnormal movements: seizures
● Apnea, Cyanosis
● GI Disturbance: Vomiting, Diarrhea,
Abdominal distension
● Altered mental status: Lethargy,
irritability, hyperactive, failure to
feed
● Congenital anomalities
● Hypotension, Jaundice, Pain
The following are TRUE about Maternal antibody and neonatal Varicella EXCEPT
a. Transfer of maternal antibodies takes place around 1 week before delivery
b. The high risk for mild neonatal varicella occurs 2-3 days after delivery
c. If the mother has varicella infection near delivery, there is an increased chance of the neonate developing severe symptoms of chickenpox after birth
d. The newborn antibody response against Varicella occurs 2-3 days after birth
b. The high risk for mild neonatal varicella occurs 2-3 days after delivery
A 2 year old female developed low grade fever with painful ulcers in the mouth with rashes on his palms and dorsum, otherwise known as the “Hand-Foot- Mouth Disease” What is the most likely cause of the infection?
a. Enterovirus 71
b. Coxsackievirus A16
c. Herpes Simplex Type 1
d. Herpesvirus Type 6
b. Coxsackievirus A16
The following are TRUE of Chlamydia trachomatis infection/EXCEPT:
a. Co-infection with Neisseria Gonorrhea b. Culture of the eye discharge is the gold
standard diagnostic procedure
c. Patient will develop pneumonia within 1 week after birth
d. Macrolides are the drug of choice
c. Patient will develop pneumonia within 1 week after birth
This is the MOST important risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) in preterm infants:
a. Breastfeeding
b. Cesarean section delivery
c. Age of gestation and birth weight
d. Exposure to glucocorticoids in the 1st week of life
c. Age of gestation and birth weight
All the following are true, regarding pathology of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) EXCEPT
a. Prematurity is the greatest factor
b. In most cases, a pathogen is identified
c. NEC in term infants is always a “secondary” disease
d. NEC is less common in infants fed with human milk
b. In most cases, a pathogen is identified
This is an ABSOLUTE indication for surgery in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC):
a. A palpable mass
b. Abdominal wall erythema
c. Failure of medical management
d. Evidence of abdominal perforation on abdominal radiograph
d. Evidence of abdominal perforation on abdominal radiograph
The following are the common routes of transmission for neonatal sepsis EXCEPT:
a. Transplacental.
b. Transvaginal
c. Respiratory
d. Hematogenous
c. Respiratory
This is the most important feature common to both early and late onset sepsis.
a. Fever
b. Maternal risk factors
c. Gestational age
d. Localized in manifestation
c. Gestational age
Transplacental transmission of Toxoplasmosis infection is greatest during:
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. intrapartum
c. 3rd trimester