Block 3: Practice Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the frontal bone(s)?

A) malar flush

B) glabella

C) metopic suture

D) supraorbital foramen

E) roof of the orbit

A

malar flush

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2
Q

Which of the following is not correct for the cribriform plate?

A) It is part of the ethmoid bone.

B) It possesses numerous tiny foramina that transmit olfactory nerves.

C) It is located in the middle cranial fossa.

D) It lies adjacent to the crista galli.

E) It is located posterior to the frontal crest.

A

It is located in the middle cranial fossa

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a foramen or fissure in the sphenoid bone?

A) superior orbital

B) rotundum

C) ovale

D) lacerum

E) spinosum

A

lacerum

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4
Q

You examine a comatose patient in the emergency room. His wife relates that her husband was struck accidentally in his “temple” by a baseball. After an initial period of unconsciousness, he seemed to be okay but later became drowsy and comatose. You suspect that the patient is suffering from:

A) an extradural (epidural) hematoma caused by a laceration of a branch of the middle meningeal artery.

B) a subdural hematoma caused by a laceration of a branch of the middle meningeal artery.

C) an extradural (epidural) hematoma caused by a laceration of the transverse venous sinus.

D) a subdural hematoma caused by a laceration of a branch of the transverse venous sinus.

E) a subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a laceration of the internal carotid artery.

A

an extradural (epidural) hematoma caused by a laceration of a branch of the middle meningeal artery

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5
Q

Which one of the following conditions would be most consistent with the definition of a “blowout” fracture of the orbit?

A) orbital fat becoming displaced into frontal sinus

B) the inferior oblique muscle becoming displaced into the maxillary sinus

C) all of the recti muscles becoming detached from their bony attachments

D) the superior oblique muscle losing its attachment to the trochlea

E) exophthalmos

A

the inferior oblique muscle becoming displaced into the maxillary sinus

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6
Q

Upon neurological examination, you notice a slow pupillary light reflex in a patient’s right eye. Which of the following is consistent with this sign?

A) lesion of the right nasociliary nerve

B) compression of the right oculomotor nerve

C) compression of the right facial nerve
proximal to the geniculate ganglion

D) compression of the right facial nerve distal to the geniculate ganglion

E) lesion of the left long ciliary nerves

A

compression of the right oculomotor nerve

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7
Q

In complete oculomotor nerve palsy, the pupil is:

A) depressed and abducted

B) elevated and abducted

C) depressed and adducted

D) elevated and adducted

E) fixed in a neutral position

A

depressed and abducted

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8
Q

Excessive contraction of both lateral pterygoid muscles may result in:

A) fracture of the angle of the mandible.

B) fracture of the coronoid process of the mandible.

C) lateral dislocation of one mandibular condyle and medial dislocation of the other.

D) anterior dislocation of condyles of the mandible.

E) posterior dislocation of the condyles of the mandible.

A

anterior dislocation of condyles of the mandible

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9
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the muscles of mastication?

A) They are all innervated by the motor division of the trigeminal nerve.

B) The temporal, masseter, and medial pterygoid all can close the mouth.

C) Alternating contraction of the temporalis muscle can produce rotary movements.

D) Two of them attach to the lateral pterygoid plate.

E) The masseter can protrude the mandible.

A

Alternating contraction of the temporalis muscle can produce rotary movements.

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10
Q

The gag reflex can be initiated by touching the posterior aspect of the tongue. The nerve responsible for conducting the afferent part of this reflex is the:

A) lingual.

B) vagus.

C) glossopharyngeal.

D) hypoglossal.

E) pinnal accessory.

A

glossopharyngeal

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11
Q

Which of the following structures is not connected to the hyoid bone by a muscle?

A) styloid process of the temporal bone

B) mastoid process of the temporal bone

C) scapula

D) manubrium

E) body of mandible

A

mastoid process of the temporal bone

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12
Q

In a newborn infant, torticollis resulting from a tissue tumor most likely involves which of the following muscles?

A) sternocleidomastoid

B) trapezius

C) scalenus anterior

D) semispinalis cervicis

E) levator scapulae

A

sternocleidomastoid

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13
Q

Which of the following is not true of either the transverse cervical or suprascapular arteries?

A) typically arises from the thyrocervical trunk

B) typically passes anterior to scalenus anterior

C) supplies the cords of the brachial plexus

D) occasionally arises from the third part of the subclavian artery

E) provides blood to the deltoid

A

provides blood to the deltoid

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14
Q

The phrenic nerve:

A) provides the sole motor innervation to the diaphragm.

B) is derived from the brachial plexus.

C) contains sympathetic fibers derived from the inferior cervical ganglion.

D) enters the chest by passing anterior to the subclavian vein.

E) forms posterior to the anterior scalene muscle.

A

provides the sole motor innervation to the diaphragm

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15
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the infrahyoid muscles?

A) They depress the hyoid bone during swallowing and speaking.

B) One of them attaches to the scapula.

C) One of them passes posterior to the thyroid gland.

D) One of them has an attachment to the clavicle.

E) All but one are innervated by the ansa cervicalis.

A

One of them has an attachment to the clavicle

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16
Q

Which one of the following arteries is not a branch of the external carotid?

A) middle meningeal

B) occipital

C) facial

D) lingual

E) maxillary

A

middle meningeal

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17
Q

The optic chiasm:

A) is in the orbit.

B) refers to the central artery of the retina’s crossing of the subarachnoid space.

C) refers to partial splitting of the optic nerve fibers from each side to form the right
and left optic tracts.

D) refers to the missing field in visual field deficits.

E) occurs in the lateral geniculate body.

A

refers to partial splitting of the optic nerve fibers from each side to form the right
and left optic tracts.

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18
Q

Which of the following is not correct for the trochlear nerve?

A) It emerges from the posterior aspect of the brainstem.

B) Nerve injury is characterized by inability to focus on near objects.

C) Nerve injury is characterized by lack of coordination for the two eyes when looking
downwards.

D) It traverses the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus.

E) It innervates the superior oblique.

A

Nerve injury is characterized by inability to focus on near objects

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19
Q

Which of the following is not correct for the motor fibers of the trigeminal nerve?

A) They originate in the trigeminal ganglion.

B) They pass through foramen ovale.

C) They are distributed entirely with the mandibular division.

D) They innervate the muscles of mastication.

E) They innervate the tensor tympani muscle.

A

They originate in the trigeminal ganglion

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20
Q

Which of the following associations is not correct?

A) corneal reflex—tests integrity of ophthalmic nerve

B) foramen rotundum—maxillary nerve

C) pterygopalatine ganglion—maxillary nerve

D) trigeminal neuralgia—loss of cutaneous sensation in areas of face supplied by
trigeminal nerve

E) transection of mandibular nerve—deviation of mandible to lesion side

A

trigeminal neuralgia—loss of cutaneous sensation in areas of face supplied by
trigeminal nerve

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21
Q

A lesion of the facial nerve may result in all of the following except:

A) loss of taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

B) inability to open eye.

C) partial sensory denervation of the auricle.

D) increase in loudness of sound

E) loss of tear production.

A

inability to open eye

22
Q

A complete lesion of the oculomotor nerve would produce all of the following signs except:

A) ptosis.

B) absence of pupillary light reflex.

C) pupillary constriction.

D) abducted and laterally directed eyeball.

E) absence of accommodation reflex.

A

pupillary constriction

23
Q

The IXth cranial nerve provides all of the following except:

A) sensation from the tongue.

B) sensation from the pharynx.

C) most of the fibers of the greater petrosal nerve.

D) motor innervation to the stylopharyngeus.

E) autonomic innervation to the parotid gland.

A

most of the fibers of the greater petrosal nerve

24
Q

Jugular foramen syndrome could cause all of the following signs except:

A) inability to protrude the tongue.

B) dysphagia.

C) dysphonia.

D) sagging of the soft palate.

E) deviation of the uvula to the unaffected side.

A

inability to protrude the tongue

25
Q

Following an automobile accident resulting in a cranial base fracture, a patient’s tongue deviates to the right when protruded and he has moderate dysarthria. You suspect damage to the:

A) left hypoglossal nerve.

B) right hypoglossal nerve.

C) right glossopharyngeal nerve.

D) left glossopharyngeal nerve.

E) superior root of ansa cervicalis

A

right hypoglossal nerve

26
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to typical cervical vertebrae?

A) nearly horizontal articular facets

B) most mobile region of the vertebral column

C) presence of transverse foramina

D) presence of uncinate processes

E) dislocations that are always associated with spinal cord damage

A

dislocations that are always associated with spinal cord damage

27
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the thoracic part of the vertebral column?

A) includes the most frequently fractured vertebra

B) presence of costal facets

C) Most vertebrae have horizontal spinous processes.

D) articular facets that are most effective at limiting flexion

E) Inferior vertebrae have mammillary processes.

A

Most vertebrae have horizontal spinous processes

28
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the sacrum?

A) It articulates with the L5 vertebra at the lumbosacral angle.

B) It articulates with the coccyx at its apex.

C) Its sacral hiatus leads to the sacral canal.

D) Its cornua articulate with the inferior articular facets of the L5 vertebra.

E) It articulates with the ilium at the auricular surface.

A

Its cornua articulate with the inferior articular facets of the L5 vertebra

29
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to IV discs?

A) They are traversed by blood vessels that are branches of the anterior and posterior
spinal arteries.

B) They differ in thickness in different parts of the vertebral column.

C) Cervical and lumbar discs are thicker anteriorly than posteriorly.

D) The nucleus pulposus is primarily composed of water.

E) The annulus fibrosus is composed of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage.

A

They are traversed by blood vessels that are branches of the anterior and posterior
spinal arteries

30
Q

Which of the following is correct pertaining to the longitudinal ligaments of the vertebral column?

A) Both tend to limit hyperflexion.

B) Both tend to limit hyperextension.

C) The anterior limits hyperextension whereas the posterior limits hyperflexion.

D) The anterior limits hyperflexion whereas the posterior limits hyperextension.

E) Both limit lateral flexion.

A

The anterior limits hyperextension whereas the posterior limits hyperflexion.

31
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to herniation of the nucleus pulposus?

A) usually occurs posterolaterally

B) may produce lumbago

C) may produce sciatica

D) tends to occur acutely in an elderly person

E) typically occurs at or near the lumbosacral junction

A

tends to occur acutely in an elderly person

32
Q

Which one of the following associations is incorrect?

A) tectorial membrane—superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament

B) cruciate (cruciform) ligament—composed of the transverse ligament of the atlas
and the longitudinal bands

C) rupture of the transverse ligament of the atlas—atlantoaxial subluxation

D) rupture of the alar ligaments—increased range in head movements

E) fracture of the dens—anterior dislocation of C3–C5 vertebrae

A

fracture of the dens—anterior dislocation of C3–C5 vertebrae

33
Q

The denticulate ligaments:

A) anchor the dural sac to the walls of the vertebral canal.

B) anchor the spinal cord to the dural sac.

C) are composed of arachnoid mater.

D) are composed of dura mater.

E) attach to the filum terminale.

A

anchor the spinal cord to the dural sac

34
Q

The semispinalis capitis:

A) is part of the erector spinae group of muscles.

B) when acting unilaterally, rotates the head so that the face points to the ipsilateral side.

C) when acting bilaterally, flexes the neck.

D) is innervated by cervical and upper thoracic posterior rami.

E) is superficial to the splenius capitis.

A

when acting unilaterally, rotates the head so that the face points to the ipsilateral side

35
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the vertebral artery?

A) It traverses the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae.

B) If partially occluded, it can cause dizziness upon turning the head.

C) It traverses the suboccipital triangle.

D) It traverses a groove on the posterior arch of the atlas.

E) It only has branches that supply the brain.

A

If partially occluded, it can cause dizziness upon turning the head.

36
Q

A typical thoracic vertebrae includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) long spinous process

B) inferior articular processes (facets)

C) superior costal facets

D) transverse foramina

A

transverse foramina

37
Q

Support for the nucleus pulposus is provided by all of the following structures EXCEPT:

A) annulus fibrosus

B) anterior longitudinal ligament

C) ligamentum flavum

D) posterior longitudinal ligament

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

38
Q

The long and short rotators of the spine receive their motor innervation from the

A) dorsal rami

B) dorsal intervertebral nerves

C) posterior branches of lateral perforating nerves

D) ventral rami

A

ventral rami

39
Q

Olfactory fibers from the nose pass to the olfactory bulb through what structure?

A) anterior and posterior ethmoid foramen

B) cribriform plate

C) nasociliary nerve

D) sphenopalatine foramen

A

cribriform plate

40
Q

A skull fracture through the foramen ovale would most likely damage the nerve(s) that pass through it resulting in weakness to which of the following muscles?

A) Masseter

B) Zygomaticus major

C) Depressor anguli oris

D) Mentalis

A

Masseter

41
Q

Fracture of the temporal bone between the mastoid process and the styloid process would most likely injure which nerve?

A) abducens

B) facial

C) trigeminal

D) vestibulocochlear

A

facial

42
Q

A patient with a head injury complains of inability to manipulate his food in his mouth with his tongue. During examination his tongue deviates to the right while trying to protrude his tongue. You suspect an injury of:

A) left CN XII

B) right CN XII

C) left CN IX

D) right CN IX

A

right CN XII

43
Q

The posterior scalene muscle inserts on the:

A) first rib lateral to the middle scalene

B) second rib lateral to the middle scalene

C) first rib medial to the middle scalene

D) second rib medial to the middle scalene

A

second rib lateral to the middle scalene

44
Q

Paralysis of the anterior belly of the digastric muscle would result from a lesion of which of the following nerves?

A) spinal accessory

B) trigeminal

C) facial

D) glossopharyngeal

A

trigeminal

45
Q

A fracture through the optic canal would most likely damage which of the following pair of structures?

A) optic nerve and ophthalmic vein

B) ophthalmic vein and ophthalmic nerve

C) ophthalmic artery and optic nerve

D) ophthalmic nerve and optic nerve

A

ophthalmic artery and optic nerve

46
Q

Inability of the pupil to constrict in response to bright light is most likely due to an injury of which nerve?

A) optic

B) oculomotor

C) trigeminal (V1 division)

D) trochlear

A

oculomotor

47
Q

A patient complains of hoarseness and pitch changes in her voice after a recent car accident in which she hit her head on the steering wheel. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?

A) vagus

B) glossopharyngeal

C) hypoglossal

D) facial

A

vagus

48
Q

Complete severance bilaterally of which of the following nerves could result in death?

A) spinal accessory

B) phrenic

C) vestibulocochlear

D) trigeminal

A

phrenic

49
Q

Severance of the oculomotor nerve can cause which of the following conditions?

A) ptosis (drooping of the eyelid)

B) abduction of the eyeball

C) constriction of the pupil

D) impaired lacrimal secretion

A

abduction of the eyeball

50
Q

Bilateral pars interarticularis fractures results in anterior displacement of the vertebral body. What is this condition known as?

A) spondylolysis

B) spondylolythesis

C) burst fracture

D) Jefferson fracture

A

spondylolythesis

51
Q

When the middle meningeal artery is ruptured but the meninges remain intact, blood enters which space?

A) epidural space

B) subarachnoid space

C) subdural space

D) subpial space

A

epidural space