Biology Chapter 2: Cellular Biology Flashcards

1
Q

nuclear lamina

A

dense, fibrous network of intermediate filaments and proteins lining the inner nuclear membrane, providing structural support to the nucleus and anchoring chromatin.

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2
Q

Which intermolecular process primarily drives the formation of a bilayer when phospholipids are added to water?

A

Formation of bilayer is driven by entropy. Adding phospholipids to water decreases entropy because it forces water to arrange in an ordered, unfavourable cage-like structure (called a clathrate cage). Forcing lipids into a bilayer reduces this effect, increasing entropy (favorable)

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3
Q

Cyclins

A

regulatory proteins that control the progression of the cell cycle by activating cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) at specific checkpoints

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4
Q

Difference between totipotent, pluripotent and multipotent

A

Totipotent cells can form all body and extra-embryonic tissues, pluripotent cells can form all body tissues but not extra-embryonic tissues, and multipotent cells can differentiate into a limited range of cell types within a specific lineage.

Extra-embryonic: refers to tissues that support the development of the embryo but do not become part of the body of the organism itself. These include structures like the placenta, amniotic sac, and yolk sac

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5
Q

In translation, ribosomes read mRNA in what direction? What order is the protein synthesized?

A

mRNA is read in the 5’ to 3’ direction by the ribosome. Protein synthesized in the N->C direction

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6
Q

In DNA replication, DNA polymerase reads the template strand in what direction? And what direction is the new mRNA synthesized?

A

DNA polymerase reads the template strand in the 3’ → 5’ direction.
It synthesizes the new DNA strand in the 5’ → 3’ direction.

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7
Q

Which direction does mRNA polymerase read the template strand (anti-sense strand) and which direction is the resulting mRNA produced?

A

RNA polymerase reads the template strand (antisense strand) in the 3’ → 5’ direction.
It synthesizes the mRNA strand in the 5’ → 3’ direction.

Therefore, the mRNA is identical to the coding strand (the strand that isn’t transcribed) except mRNA has U instead of T

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8
Q

What is a 5’ cap?

A

Consists of a guanine nucleotide connected to the primary mRNA transcript via an unusual 5’ to 5’ triphosphate linkage. This guanosine residue is methylated at the 7 position directly after capping

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9
Q

The start codon for translation is positioned in what site of the ribosome during initiation?

A

The P position (peptidyl position)

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10
Q

The A site of a ribosome does what?

A

Binds incoming aminoacyl-tRNA carrying the next amino acid

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11
Q

The peptide chain grows from what position on a ribosome?

A

The P (peptidyl) position

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12
Q

What is contained in a complete culture medium?

A

The complete growth medium recommended for certain cell lines requires additional components which are not present in the basal medium and serum. These supplements help sustain proliferation and maintain normal cell metabolism and can include hormones, growth factors, and signaling molecules required for normal growth.

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13
Q

Nuclear export signals

A

are short sets of 4 hydrophobic residues in a protein that target the protein for export from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pore complex using nuclear transport

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14
Q

A nuclear localization signal

A

is an amino acid sequence that tags a protein for import into the cell nucleus by nuclear transport

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15
Q

Enzyme that creates a double-stranded DNA molecule from a single-stranded RNA molecule

A

Reverse transcriptase

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16
Q

Describe how reverse transcriptase works

A

creates a double-stranded DNA molecule from a single-stranded RNA molecule.

The single stranded RNA genome is first used as a template to create a double-stranded DNA-RNA hybrid.

The RNA is then degraded and the resulting single stranded DNA is used as a template to create double-stranded DNA.

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17
Q

True or false: prokaryotes have a cell wall

A

True

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18
Q

Are bacteria prokaryotes?

A

YES

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19
Q

Prions

A

is a type of misfolded protein that can cause other normal proteins in the body to misfold as well, leading to the formation of harmful aggregates. Unlike viruses or bacteria, prions do not contain DNA or RNA—they are made entirely of protein

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20
Q

Natural cellular response to the presence of misfolded proteins

A

production of heat shock proteins, which help to properly fold the defective protein molecules.

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21
Q

True or false, bacteria lack introns

A

True. For the most part, bacteria (prokaryotes) lack introns, whereas large eukaryotic genes usually contain several introns.

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22
Q

Difference between glycoprotein and a glycolipid

A

Glycoprotein = protein that spans the full membrane and involved in cell trafficking - ie CD-4.

Glycolipids act to provide energy and also serve as markers for cellular recognition. They typically don’t span all the way through the membrane. IE Gangliosides: Found in neuronal cell membranes and involved in signal transduction.

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23
Q

Which components of cells are physically connected by a gap junction?

A

The cytoskeleton of one to the cytoskeleton of the other

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24
Q

why chemical synapses are slower than electrical synapses?

A
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25
Q

Ribosomes are made of

A

are made of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and ribosomal proteins, forming two subunits that work together to synthesize proteins.

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26
Q

Apoptosis vs Necrosis

A

Apoptosis = controlled and programmed cell death

necrosis = unplanned cell death and often causes inflammation

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27
Q

Cytochrome C

A

is a heme protein crucial for both energy production, as an electron carrier in the mitochondrial electron transport chain, and apoptosis, where its release from mitochondria triggers caspase activation and programmed cell death

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28
Q

Which of the following recombinant processes depends on the F factor plasmid?

A

Conjugation. It requires special genes for the pilus and these are usually present on a plasmid, a separate extragenomic strand of DNA not incorporated into the bacterium’s own DNA. This plasmid is referred to as the fertility or F factor.

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29
Q

Difference between prokaryote and eukaryote in protein synthesis?

A

Prokayotes = polycistronic
Eukaryotes = monocistronic

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30
Q

What cell would be the least likely to spend most of its time in G0?

A

Epithelial cells because they regenerate quickly

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31
Q

Endothelial cells vs epithelial cells

A
  • Epithelial cells typically form barriers in skin, organ linings, and glands.
  • Endothelial cells specifically line blood vessels, and in the brain, they have tight junctions that prevent harmful substances from crossing into the central nervous system.
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32
Q

HIV is an example of what kind of virus

A

Retrovirus

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33
Q

Retrovirus

A

Convert RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. It’s a type of ssRNA

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34
Q

What are viruses

A

Obligate intracellular parasitic particles, meaning they must hijack host cells to replicate

35
Q

Are viruses prokaryotes

A

No - they rely on host cells to survive and replicate

36
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

is a type of virus that infects bacteria. It hijacks bacterial cells to replicate itself, often killing the bacteria in the process. Bacteriophages are among the most abundant and diverse biological entities on Earth.

37
Q

Enveloped vs non enveloped viruses

A

Enveloped viruses have a lipid membrane (envelope) derived from the host cell’s membrane. This envelope surrounds the viral capsid (protein shell) and helps the virus infect host cells.

38
Q

What does hand washes do to the viral envelope

A

Easier to destroy – The lipid envelope is sensitive to detergents, alcohol, and soap, which disrupt the membrane and inactivate the virus.

39
Q

protein coat on virus

A

Capsid. protein coat that surrounds and protects a virus’s genetic material (DNA or RNA)

40
Q

Difference between virus and virion

A

A virus is a broad term referring to the entire entity, including its genetic material, structure, and ability to infect a host.
It exists both inside and outside a host cell.

A virion is the fully assembled virus complete with nuclear material inside a capside, extracellular form of a virus.
It is the infectious unit that exists outside the host, ready to infect new cells.

41
Q

Size of virus

A

20 - 400nm

42
Q

Order phases of bacterial growth

A

Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase

43
Q

Types of horizontal gene transfer between prokaryote cells

A

Transformation, transduction and conduction

44
Q

Frederick Griffith showed that harmless strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae exposed to virulent bacteria lysed with heat could become virulent themselves.

Which means of gene transfer did this experiment demonstrate?

A

Transformation

45
Q

Why does HIV only transmit in bodily fluids?

A

Because it’s an enveloped virus and can’t survive on it’s own outside the body

46
Q

Four types of Viral Genomes

A

ssDNA, dsDNA, ssRNA and dsRNA

47
Q

ssRNA can be split into

A

positive sense RNA and negative sense RNA

48
Q

Positive sense RNA

A

is ssRNA that can be directly translated into protein (it’s like mRNA)

49
Q

negative sense RNA

A

ssRNA complementary to mRNA

it has to be turned into mRNA by RNA replicase first before translation into protein

50
Q

Life cycle of a virus - DNA viral genome

A

1) viral DNA translocates to nucleus
2) transcribed by RNA polymerase
3) Infected cell destroyed through lysis, releasing the virions

OR
Can be incorporated into host cell DNA and replicated when the host cell divides. Can be released through extrusion

51
Q

Life Cycle of RNA viral genome

A

1) Genetic material must first be reverse-transcribed into DNA before integration (reverse transcriptase

52
Q

Bacteriophages have 2 distinct life cycles

A

Lytic and lysogenic

53
Q

Lytic cycle

A

Bacteriophage works to replicate at full speed, making use of the host cell’s machinery. Host cell fills with virions and lyses - releasing lots of virions

54
Q

Lysogenic cyle

A

Integration of viral genetic material into host genome

55
Q

Viroids

A

RNA particles that infect plants
Circular ssRNA sequences

56
Q

Prions

A

Misfolded proteins that cause other proteins to misfold

57
Q

Protozoa

A

(eukaryotes) single-celled parasites ie plasmodium (carried by mosquitos that cause malaria)

58
Q

Helminths

A

Multicellular worms

59
Q

Ectoparasites

A

multicellular parasites that live outside the host like lice and fleas

60
Q

Parasitic infection targeted by what immune response

A

eosinophils and IgE antibodies

61
Q

Examples of prokaryote gene expression

A

lac operon and trp operon

62
Q

Types of operon control

A

Positive (activator stimulates transcription)

Negative (repressor prevents transcription by binding to the operator upstream of the first coding region

63
Q

lac operon is under what kind of control?

A

Both positive and negative

64
Q

Negative control of the lac operon

A

Inducible. meaning the repressor is always present but is removed in the presence of lactose.

lac operon is for if the cell is low on glucose and needs an alternative energy source

65
Q

Positive control of the lac operon

A

When glucose is low, there is high levels of cAMP. cAMP binds to the CAP sequence, increasing transcription

66
Q

What happens when there is high glucose and lactose is present?

A

1) repressor is removed
2) gene is expressed at low levels

67
Q

What happens when there is low glucose and lactose is present?

A

1) repressor removed
2) cAMP binds to CAP

very high levels of gene expression

68
Q

What happens when there is high glucose and lactose isn’t present?

A

1) repressor is on the operator

No expression

69
Q

What happens when there is low glucose and lactose isn’t present?

A

1) repressor is on the operator
2) cAMP binds to CAP

No expression

70
Q

What kind of negative control does the trp operon use?

A

Repressible. High levels of trptophan inhibits the operon

71
Q

Promoters

A

Found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Upstream regions that initiate transcription

72
Q

Examples of promoters

A

TATA Box, CG Box, CAAT Box

73
Q

Enhancer

A

is a regulatory DNA sequence that increases transcription by binding transcription factors and looping the DNA into a hairpin-like structure, bringing the enhancer physically closer to the promoter to help recruit RNA polymerase.

only in eukaryote cells

74
Q

Silencer

A

regions of DNA to which transcription factors known as repressors bind

75
Q

miRNA and siRNA both

A

silence genes by interrupting expression between transcription and translationn

76
Q

What does it mean for a virus to have a +ssRNA genome?

A

+ssRNA can be directly translated into proteins by host ribosomes.
Examples: Poliovirus, SARS-CoV-2, Dengue virus.
Exception: Retroviruses (e.g., HIV-1) have +ssRNA but do not translate it directly; they first convert it into DNA via reverse transcriptase.

77
Q

Why can’t retroviruses (e.g., HIV-1) directly translate their +ssRNA genome?

A

Retroviruses carry +ssRNA, but they must first convert it into DNA using reverse transcriptase (RT).
The dsDNA integrates into the host genome via integrase (IN).
Only after integration does the host transcribe viral mRNA for translation.
This process makes retroviruses unique among +ssRNA viruses.

78
Q

Hallmark for retroviruses

A

they must integrate their genetic material into the host genome for replication

79
Q

Pore-forming toxins (exotoxins)

A

proteins produced by bacteria that create holes in cell membranes. These toxins are virulence factors that help bacteria evade the immune response of their hosts and promote infection

80
Q

Histone acetylation happens on what structure?

A

lysine residues of histone proteins, not directly on DNA. It’s a post-translational modification of the histone protein

81
Q

Histones have what kind of charge

A

Positively charged

82
Q

Histone acetylation makes the histone

A

Histone acetylation makes the histone less positive, and exposes more DNA for transcription

83
Q

Kinetochores

A

protein structures that attach chromosomes to spindle microtubules during cell division. They are essential for proper chromosome segregation