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DAT Prep > Biology 2 > Flashcards

Biology 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Where does the lymphatic system join the circulatory system?

A

The thoracic duct

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1
Q

What are lacteals?

A

Lymph capillaries that collect fats from the small intestine and transport them back to the circulatory system. Triglycerides pass through the lymphatic system before they enter the circulatory system

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2
Q

How does panting work?

A

Increased respiration causes cooling of the blood through water evaporation from mucosal surfaces of the respiratory tract and saliva in the mouth

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3
Q

True/False: The cilia in the respiratory tract beat continuously?

A

TRUE

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4
Q

What is the parietal pleura?

A

The outer membrane of the lungs

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5
Q

What is the visceral pleura?

A

The inner membrane of the lung

A thin layer of fluid (interpleural space) lies Between the parietal and visceral pleura

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6
Q

What type of respiration is natural inhalation (as opposed to mechanical)?

A

Negative-pressure breathing because air enters due to the vacuum that is created

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7
Q

Under strenuous exercise and/or by input from the brain, can exhalation ever be an ACTIVE process?

A

Yes, normally exhalation is a passive process, but if the INTERNAL INTERCOSTAL muscles and abdominal muscles contract, the rib cage will grow closer together and force air out

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8
Q

What does an increase in pCO2 do to the pH of the blood?

A

It decreases becoming more acidic (CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid). When this is detected the rate and depth of ventilation are increased

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9
Q

What is the total lung capacity?

A

Equal to the vital capacity plus residual lung volume/capacity

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10
Q

What is residual lung volume/capacity?

A

The volume of air left in the lungs after exhalation. This air helps prevent alveolar collapse

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11
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled and inhaled with each breath

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12
Q

What is Tidal Volume?

A

The amount of air normally exhaled and inhaled with each breath

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13
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled following normal exhalation

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14
Q

Which cells remain dormant in the lymph nodes until they are activated by specific antigens (antibody mediated cells)?

A

B cells

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15
Q

What are the two main types of bone, and what are their functions?

A
  • -Compact bone: forms the exterior of most bones, is hard and dense
  • -Spongy (trabecular) bone: less dense than compact bone, consists of interconnecting lattice of bony spicules, and is located within the long bone
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16
Q

What is cartilage?

A

A type of connective tissue that is more flexible than bone, it is composed of chondrin (secreted by chondrocytes)

The embryonic skeleton is composed mainly of cartilage

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17
Q

What is endochondral ossification, and where does it occur?

A

It is the growth process of long bones (arms and legs), in which a cartilage template grows and is replaced by bone

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18
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

The process by which the skull forms. Bone is formed directly from undifferentiated cells WITHOUT a pre-existing cartilage template

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19
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

Skull
Vertebral column (backbone)
Rib cage

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20
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

Arm and leg bones

Pectoral and pelvic girdles

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21
Q

How are the sections of a bone differentiated?

A

The diaphysis and the epiphyses

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22
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

The long cylindrical portion of the bone

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23
Q

What is the epiphyses?

A

The rounded ends of a bone

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24
Q

What is the epiphyses plate?

A

The site of longitudinal growth (by endochondral ossification). It is the plate that separates the diaphysis from the epiphyses

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25
Q

What is the outer, tough sheath covering of bones called?

A

Periosteum

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26
Q

What are the Haversian canals?

A

Passageways that run through the compact bone, which contain blood and lymph vessels, nerves, and connective tissue

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27
Q

What are lamellae?

A

The concentric layers of bony matrix which surround the Haversian canals

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28
Q

What is an osteon?

A

The Haversian canal and it’s surrounding lamellae

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29
Q

Where are osteocytes contained within the bone?

A

In the LACUNAE

Lacunae are linked to the Haversian canal via the canaliculi

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30
Q

What links the lacunae to the Haversian canal?

A

canaliculi

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31
Q

What is the function of red marrow in the bone?

A

It contains stem cells, which form blood and immune cells

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32
Q

What is the function of yellow marrow?

A

It is used to store fat

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33
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A
  • -Immovable (found between bones in the skull)
  • -Partly moveable: allow limited flexibility and usually have cartilage between the bones (joints between vertebrae of the spinal column)
  • -Synovial: allow a wide range of movement and are lubricated by synovial fluid (hip joint)
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34
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

Stores blood, and also filters blood and lymph

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35
Q

What are lymphokines, and what secretes them?

A

Signaling molecules released by helper T cells to coordinate immune response

Interleukins are an example of one of these signaling molecules

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36
Q

Where do T cells and B cells mature?

A

T cells in the Thymus

B cells in the Bone marrow

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37
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The specific part of the antigen that is recognized by the immune system (like a bacterial cell wall protein, or a viral coat protein)

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38
Q

What do the MHC class II molecules do?

A

These are special markers located on the outside of macrophages that will display the antigens of whatever pathogen it ingested

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39
Q

What is a polysome (or polyribosome)?

A

A cluster of ribosomes, where each ribosome is translating the same strand of mRNA (found in eukaryotes and prokaryotes)

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40
Q

What are the primary producers and primary consumers in an ecosystem?

A

The primary producers are plant life. The primary consumers are those that eat the primary producers

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41
Q

What develops into the umbilical chord in humans?

A

Allantois

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42
Q

Where does placenta formation in humans begin?

A

The Chorion

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43
Q

What is the amnion?

A

A thin, tough membrane, which contains Amnionic fluid

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45
Q

What is the function of the yolk sac in humans?

A

This is the site of early blood vessel development. These vessels become associated with the umbilical vessels created from the allantois

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46
Q

What can the DNA of temperate bacteriophage do?

A
  • -Exist in a lysogenic (vegitative) state
  • -Confer immunity from further infection of the bacteria by the same type of virus
  • -Exist in an integrated state as a prophage
  • -Produce phenotypic effects in the host bacteria
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47
Q

What is a prophage?

A

This is a latent form of a phage, in which the viral genes are present in the bacterium without causing disruption of the bacterial cell

48
Q

Where is salt reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

The proximal tubule, the ASCENDING Loop of Henle, distal tubules, and the collecting ducts

49
Q

How much of the parent strand of DNA is left after each successive generation?

A

For each time the parent strand is replicated reduce the amount in the following generation by 50% (i.e. for three generations, there will be 12.5% left)

50
Q

What is incomplete dominance (partial dominance)?

A

A genetic effect in which the phenotype of a heterozygote is a reflection of both alleles at a particular locus

51
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis, causing the resulting zygote to have either three copies of the affected chromosome, or just one

52
Q

What is codominance?

A

When multiple alleles exist for a given gene and more than one of them is dominant. Both dominant alleles are expressed simultaneously. For example, if white and red were both dominant alleles in flowers, then you would obtain white flowers with red spots or vise versa in codominance (pink flowers in incomplete dominance, with one dominant and one “sort-of” recessive). Also, AB blood is an example of co-dominance

53
Q

To get from a coniferous forest to a tundra one must travel where?

A

Upward in altitude AND northward in direction

54
Q

What is a testcross?

A

A genotype diagnostic tool using a homozygous recessive known organism to cross with the unknown organism

55
Q

TRUE/FALSE: A capillary has a higher osmotic pressure in its blood plasma than the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid bathing the tissues

A

TRUE

This is due to the higher amount of dissolved solutes in the blood plasma of the capillaries

56
Q

Do fungi have chlorophyll?

A

NO, but they are eukaryotic organisms

57
Q

What are the two groups that bacteria are divided into, and what does each classification mean?

A

Gram-positive: possess a THICK cell wall composed of peptidoglycan

Gram-negative: possess a THIN cell wall of peptidoglycan sandwiched between layers of periplasm and coated with lipopolysaccharide and protein

58
Q

What are cocci?

A

A classification of bacteria designating them as round or spherical

59
Q

What are bacilli?

A

Rod-shaped bacteria

60
Q

What are spirilla?

A

Spiral-shaped bacteria

61
Q

What are facultative aerobes?

A

A type of bacteria that can survive with or without oxygen

62
Q

Where is the site of photosynthesis for photoautotrophs?

A

Plasma membrane

63
Q

What are photoheterotrophs?

A

Can use light to generate energy but must obtain their carbon in organic form (i.e. glucose)

64
Q

What does polycistronic mean?

A

When a single mRNA contains more than one coding region

65
Q

Where does splicing post transcriptional modification (introns spliced out, 3’ poly-A tail, 5’ cap, etc) take place in eukaryotes?

A

In the nucleus

66
Q

What is transduction?

A

When genetic material is passed from one bacterial cell to another via a VIRUS

67
Q

What must a bacteria possess in order to reproduce via conjugation?

A

Plasmids, specifically the F plasmid (F+ has it, and F- does not)

68
Q

How large are viruses?

A

20-300 nanometers

Just remember that they are roughly a thousand times smaller than most bacteria

69
Q

What does RNA replicase do?

A

Makes copies of RNA from an RNA template

70
Q

What is an example of a retrovirus?

A

HIV

71
Q

Describe the lytic cycle?

A

The bacteriophage takes control of the host cell’s genetic machinery. Viral DNA is translated and transcribed, an enzyme that digests bacterial cell walls is translated, new phages are assembled, and the bacterial cell bursts

72
Q

Describe the lysogenic cycle?

A

Viral DNA becomes integrated into the bacterial genome in prophage form and remains dormant for one or many generations. Either spontaneously or due to environmental factors (radiation, UV light, chemicals), the prophage separates from the host genome and enters the lytic cycle

73
Q

Why are fungi important to having a stable ecological environment?

A

They decompose wood and other dead plant matter

74
Q

What is the edible part of a mushroom (a type of fungi) called?

A

The fruiting body

75
Q

What type of fungi are yeasts?

A

unicellular, and they reproduce via budding

76
Q

What are lichens?

A

A symbiotic joining of fungi and algae. The photosynthetic algae provide the food, while the fungi provide an ideal growth environment for the growth of the algae

77
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually?

A

TRUE

Early reproduction is usually asexual, while later reproduction is sexual

78
Q

What does peptidyl transferase do?

A

Forges a peptide bond between adjacent amino acids

79
Q

What are some examples of post-translational modification?

A

3-D folding
Adding a carbohydrate, lipid, or phosphate group
Cleavage of signal sequence

80
Q

What type of mutation is a transition?

A

When one purine is switched for another, or when one pyrimidine is switched for another

81
Q

What type of mutation is a transversion?

A

When a pyrimidine is switched for a purine or vise versa

82
Q

What happens during alkylation of a base?

A

A methyl group is added to a base

83
Q

What does ionizing radiation do to the DNA?

A

Causes the double strand to break

84
Q

What is direct repair?

A

Reverses DNA damage without cutting the sugar-phosphate backbone

85
Q

What is base excision repair (BER)?

A

The backbone is cut and the incorrect base is removed. The correct base is added, and the backbone is sealed up by DNA LIGASE
–Similar to mismatch repair

86
Q

What is nucleotide excision repair (NER)?

A

The breaking of thymine dimers and bulky adducts. The backbone containing the affected site is cut at both the 5’ and 3’ ends by endonuclease. Exonuclease removes the bases and the correct bases are added using the sister template. DNA ligase seals the backbone

87
Q

What are the three levels of chromosomal folding?

A

Nucleosome–consists of 8 histone proteins

30nm chromatin fiber–nucleosomes are joined by linker DNA

Loop-scaffold complex–The final coiled complex seen during metaphase

88
Q

What is a constitutional abnormality?

A

When the abnormality is found in all cells of the body

89
Q

What is a somatic (acquired) abnormality?

A

An abnormality found only in certain cells or tissues

90
Q

What is Euploidy?

A

An extra, COMPLETE, set of chromosomes is present or missing

–Example: monoploidy–a complete chromosome set is missing (this is lethal)

91
Q

What is mixoploidy?

A

When two or more genetically different cell lines within a single individual are derived from a single zygote, or from different zygotes

92
Q

Where are operons found? What are the three parts of an operon,

A

In prokaryotes
Promoter
Operator (where a repressor protein can bind)
Gene cluster (remember, prokaryotes have polycistronic RNA)

93
Q

How many genes are estimated to be in humans?

A

30,000 to 40,000

94
Q

How much of the human genome actually codes for anything?

A

3%

95
Q

What kind of DNA does mitochondria have, and where are they inherited from?

A

Double-stranded and triple-stranded, circular DNA.

They are maternally inherited

96
Q

What are epigenic modification?

A

Modifications that result in loss of proper gene function without altering the DNA sequence (DNA methylation, translocation)

97
Q

What is Cystic Fibrosis?

A

A disease resulting from a mutation in the CFTR gene. The chloride ion channels do not function properly, and water does not flow out of the cell into the mucus lining (like in lungs), resulting in airway secretion buildup

98
Q

What is Huntington’s Disease?

A

An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by neurodegeneration (uncontrolled movements, personality alterations, and memory loss). Typical onset is between ages 35-40.

99
Q

What are proto-oncogenes?

A

Non-mutant versions of genes that control cell proliferation

100
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

An excessively active gene causing cellular hyperproliferation–the basis of cancer

101
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The further apart genes are on a chromosome, the better chance they have of crossing-over?

A

TRUE

102
Q

What three types of groups do bacteria live in?

A

Duplexes–dipolococci
Clusters–staphylococci
Chains–streptococci

103
Q

What do the flagella of protists consist of?

A

A 9+2 pattern of microtubules

104
Q

What are gymnosperms?

A

A plant that has seeds unprotected by an ovary or fruit. Includes the conifers, cycads, and ginkgo.

105
Q

What is the name for the non-vascular plants?

A

Bryophytes

106
Q

What is the name for the vascular plants?

A

Tracheophytes

107
Q

What are angiosperms?

A

A plant that has flowers and produces seeds enclosed within a carpel. The angiosperms are a large group and include herbaceous plants, shrubs, grasses, and most trees.

108
Q

What is a cotyledon?

A

Seed leaf

monocots have one, dicots have two

109
Q

What are pseudocoelomates (nematodes)?

A

These are roundworms (as opposed to platyhelminthes, which are flatworms). They have long digestive tubes and an anus

110
Q

What are the protostomes?

A

An animal class including the annelids and molluscs

111
Q

What are deuterostomes?

A

Spiny, radial animals like stars and sea urchins

112
Q

What is the archenteron, and in which stage does it first appear?

A

The early alimentary canal developing at the gastrula stage

113
Q

What is the notochord, and in which stage does it first develop?

A

A rod-like center axis support structure of embryos, which forms during the neurula stage

114
Q

What is the trophoblast, and in which stage does it first appear?

A

The outer layer of the blastocyst, which develops into the placenta. It appears in the blastula stage

115
Q

What is the blastopore, and in which stage does it first appear?

A

The opening of the archenteron (develops into the mouth or anus depending on the organism)
First appears in the gastrula stage

DAT Prep (14 decks)

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