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Microbiology > biochemistry of the genome > Flashcards

biochemistry of the genome Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what plant did Mendel use in his experiments

A

diploid garden pea

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2
Q

why did he use the pea plant

A

it naturally self fertilizes and is highly inbred and always produce offspring that look like the parent

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3
Q

what are nucleic acids composed of

A

monomers called nucleotides that are polymerized to form large strands

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4
Q

what is the base sequence of dna responsible for

A

carrying and retaining the hereditary information in a cell

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5
Q

what are deoxyribonucleotides

A

nucleotides that compose dna

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6
Q

what are the components of a deoxyribonucleotides

A

a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose)
a phosphate group
a nitrogenous base

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7
Q

what is a nitrogenous base

A

a nitrogen containing ring structure that is responsible for complementary base pairing between nucleic acid strands

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8
Q

what nitrogen bases are purines

A

adenine and guanine

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9
Q

describe a purine

A

they have a double ring structure with a six carbon ring fused to a five carbon ring

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10
Q

what nitrogen bases are pyrimidines

A

cytosine and thymine

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11
Q

describe pyrimidines

A

they are smaller nitrogen bases that only have a six carbon ring structure

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12
Q

how do nucleoside triphosphates combines

A

by covalent bonds known as 5’-3’ phosphodiester bonds

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13
Q

what is a 5’-3’ phophodiester bond

A

linkages whereby the phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide bonds to the hydroxyl group of the 3’ carbon of the sugar of the next nucleotide

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14
Q

what does phosphodiester bonding form

A

sugar-phosphate backbone the framework of nucleic acid strand

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15
Q

what is used during the polymerization process

A

deoxynucleotide triphophates (dNTP)

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16
Q

how is a sugar phosphate backbone constructed

A

the two terminal phosphates are released from the dNTP as a pyrophosphate

the resulting strand of nucleic acid has a free phosphate group path the 5’ carbon end and a free hydroxyl group at the 3’ carbon end

the two unused phosphate groups from the nucleotide triphosphate are released as pyrophosphate during the phophoidester bond formation

the pyrophosphate is hydrolyzed releasing the energy to drive nucleotide polymerization

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17
Q

what does it mean that dna strands are antiparallel

A

the 3’ end of one strand faces the 5’ end of the other

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18
Q

what does the 3’ end have

A

a free hydroxyl group

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19
Q

what does the 5’ end have

A

a free phosphate group

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20
Q

what do complementary base pairs take place between

A

a purine and a pyrimidine

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21
Q

what are the complementary base pairs

A

adenine and thymine
cytosine and guanine

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22
Q

what stabilizes the base pairs

A

hydrogen bonds

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23
Q

how many hydrogen bonds between thymine and adenine

A

2

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24
Q

how many hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine

A

3

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25
Q

how is dna denatured

A

heat separates the two strands

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26
Q

how is single stranded dna put back together

A

by reannealing or denaturing by cooling or removing chemical denaturants allowing hydrogen bonds to reform

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27
Q

what dna is easier to denature

A

hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine

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28
Q

What is vertical gene transfer

A

the transmission of information from mother to daughter cells

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29
Q

How is RNA structure different from DNA

A

RNA is shorter and usually single stranded

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30
Q

what is RNA linked by

A

phophodiester bonds

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31
Q

what does a ribonucleotide chain consist of

A

ribose, on of the four nitrogen bases and a phosphate group

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32
Q

what is the RNA specific pyrimidine

A

uracil

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33
Q

what does uracil pair with

A

adenine instead of thymine

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34
Q

what types of RNA are involved in protein synthesis

A

mRNA
rRNA
tRNA

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35
Q

what does mRNA serve as

A

a photocopy of specific information needed at a particular point in time that serves as instructions to make a protein

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36
Q

what does mRNA do

A

carries the message from DNA, the interacts with ribosomes and other cellular machinery to direct synthesis of the protein it encodes during the process of translation

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37
Q

what is transcription

A

synthesizing of mRNA

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38
Q

what are the stable types of RNA

A

rRNA
tRNA

39
Q

where does synthesis, cutting and assembly of rRNA take place in eukaryotes

A

the nucleolus region of the nucleus

40
Q

where does synthesis, cutting and assembly of rRNA take place in prokaryotes

A

cytoplasm

41
Q

what are ribosomes composed of

A

rRNA and protein

42
Q

what percent of a ribosome is rRNA

A

60% by mass and provides the location where mRNA binds

43
Q

what does rRNA do

A

ensures proper alignment of mRNA, tRNA and robosomes

has enzymatic activity to catalyze the formation of peptide bonds between tow aligned amino acids during protein synthesis

44
Q

what is the smallest RNA and how long is it

A

tRNA 70-70 nucleotides

45
Q

what does tRNA do

A

carries the correct amino acid t the site of protein synthesis in the ribosome

46
Q

what allows for the correct amino acid to be inserted in the polypeptide chain being synthesized

A

the base pairing between rRNA and mRNA

47
Q

describe structure of mRNA

A

Short, unstable, single-stranded RNA corresponding to a gene encoded within DNA

48
Q

describe the function of mRNA

A

Serves as intermediary between DNA and protein; used by ribosome to direct synthesis of protein it encodes

49
Q

describe the function of rRNA

A

Longer, stable RNA molecules composing 60% of ribosome’s mass

50
Q

describe the function of rRNA

A

Ensures the proper alignment of mRNA, tRNA, and ribosome during protein synthesis; catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino acids

51
Q

describe the structure of tRNA

A

Short (70-90 nucleotides), stable RNA with extensive intramolecular base pairing; contains an amino acid binding site and an mRNA binding site

52
Q

describe function of tRNA

A

Carries the correct amino acid to the site of protein synthesis in the ribosome

53
Q

what does double stranded RNA indicate

A

a virus

54
Q

what is an example of a double stranded RNA

A

rotavirus

55
Q

what are genes

A

segments of DNA molecules

56
Q

what is a genotypes

A

the full collection of genes that a cell has in its genome

57
Q

what is a phenotype

A

genes being expressed at any given point in time determining a cells activities and observable characteristics

58
Q

what are constitutive genes

A

genes that are always expressed, they are necessary the basic functions of the cell

59
Q

what factors may change the phenotype of a cell

A

changes in temperature or nutrient availability

60
Q

what are chromosomes

A

discrete dna structures within cells that control cellular activity

61
Q

what does it mean for a chromosome to be diploid

A

the cell contain two copies of each chromosome

62
Q

how long is the human genome if stretched out

A

2 meters

63
Q

what is DNA supercoiling

A

the process where DNA is twisted to fit inside the cell

64
Q

what is an underwound dna

A

less than one turn of the helix per 10 base pairs

65
Q

what is overwound dna

A

more than one turn per 10 base pairs

66
Q

what does topoisomerase do

A

helps maintain the structure of supercoiled chromosomes to prevent overwinding of dna during certain process like dna replication

67
Q

what are histones

A

dna binding proteins that do dna wrapping and attachment to scaffolding proteins

68
Q

what is chromatin

A

the combination dna with attached proteins

69
Q

what. can influence the packaging of dna by histones in eukaryptes

A

the presence of methyl groups on certine cytosine nucleotides of dna

70
Q

what is epigenetics

A

a mechanism for regulating gene expression without altering the sequence of nucleotides

71
Q

what makes prokaryotes haploid

A

they contain only one copy of each gene

72
Q

what is DNA gyrase

A

a type of topoisomerase found in bacteria and some algae that helps prevent overwinding of DNA

73
Q

two examples of bacteria that can cause chromatin remodeling in host

A

h. pylori
shigella

74
Q

what is noncoding dna

A

dna that does not encode proteins or stable RNA products

75
Q

where is noncoding dna found

A

areas prior to the start of coding sequences of genes and intergenic regions (area between genes)

76
Q

what is an example of an extrachromosomal virus

A

HPV

77
Q

what are plasmids

A

small loops of dna that may contain one or few genes that are not essential for normal growth in prokaryotes

78
Q

how are plasmids exchanged between bacteria

A

horizontal gene transfer

79
Q

what are the clinical implications of plasmids

A

they encode virulence factors
make microbes resistant to certain antibiotics
used in genetic engineering and biotechnology to move genes from one cell to another

80
Q

Frederick Griffith infected mice with a combination of dead R and live S bacterial strains. What was the outcome, and why did it occur?

A

The mice will die. Transformation was not required.

81
Q

Why was the alga Acetabularia a good model organism for Joachim Hämmerling to use to identify the location of genetic material?

A

It is a large, asymmetrical, single cell easy to see with the naked eye.

82
Q

Which of the following best describes the results from Hershey and Chase’s experiment using bacterial viruses with 35S-labeled proteins or 32P-labeled DNA that are consistent with protein being the molecule responsible for hereditary?

A

After infection with the 35S-labeled viruses and centrifugation, only the pellet would be radioactive.

83
Q

Which method did Morgan and colleagues use to show that hereditary information was carried on chromosomes?

A

correlations between microscopic observations of chromosomal movement and the characteristics of offspring

84
Q

According to Beadle and Tatum’s “one gene–one enzyme” hypothesis, which of the following enzymes will eliminate the transformation of hereditary material from pathogenic bacteria to nonpathogenic bacteria?

A

deoxyribonucleases

85
Q

Which of the following is not found within DNA?

A

amino acids

86
Q

If 30% of the bases within a DNA molecule are adenine, what is the percentage of thymine?

A

30

87
Q

Which of the following statements about base pairing in DNA is incorrect?

A

Adenine binds to guanine.

88
Q

During denaturation of DNA, which of the following happens?

A

Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases break.

89
Q

Which of the following types of RNA codes for a protein?

A

mRNA

90
Q

A nucleic acid is purified from a mixture. The molecules are relatively small, contain uracil, and most are covalently bound to an amino acid. Which of the following was purified?

A

tRNA

91
Q

Which of the following types of RNA is known for its catalytic abilities?

A

rRNA

92
Q

Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and what other component?

A

Protein

93
Q

Which of the following may use RNA as its genome?

A

a virus

94
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the structure of the typical eukaryotic genome?

A

diploid

Microbiology (15 decks)

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