biochem random Flashcards

1
Q

is heterochromatin or euchromatin transcriptionally active?

A

euchromatin

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2
Q

histone acetylation does what to DNA? active or inactive?

A

makes it ACTIVE by relaxing DNA coiling

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3
Q

AA required for purine synthesis

A

Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

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4
Q

rate limiting enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis

A

carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

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5
Q

what is a prodrug of 6MP used to inhibit de novo purine syntesis

A

azathioprine

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6
Q

what drug inhibits ribonucleotide reductase?

A

hydroxyurea

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7
Q

what drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?

A

5-FU

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8
Q

primase makes a _____primer on which DNA polymerase____ can initiate replication

A

RNA primer; DNA polymerase III

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9
Q

which DNA polymerase has 5-3’ exonuclease?

A

DNA polymerase I

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10
Q

telomerase is a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to which end of chromosome? why?

A

3’ end; to prevent loss of genetic material

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11
Q

sickle cell results from what type of DNA mutation?

A

missense mutation

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12
Q

what type of DNA repair results in double stranded breaks?

A

nonhomologous end joining

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13
Q

what dz is d/t defective nonhomologous end joining

A

ataxia telangiectasia

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14
Q

mutation of helicase, defective DNA replication and repair, presents w/ immunodeficiency, incr sensitivity to UV light, incr susceptibility to cancer, infertiility

A

Bloom syndrome

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15
Q

which RNA polymerase makes each of the following?
rRNA
mRNA
tRNA

A

rRNA - poly 1
mRNA - poly2
tRNA - poly3

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16
Q

what are the 3 stop codons?

A

UGA, UAA, UAG

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17
Q

what must happen to RNA before it is transported out of the nucleus (3 things)

A
  1. 5’cap
  2. polyadenylation of 3’ end
  3. splicing out of introns
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18
Q

where does mRNA quality control occur?

A

cytoplasmic P bodies

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19
Q

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase works at what end?

A

3’ end

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20
Q

one gene contributes to multiple phenotypic efffects

A

pleiotropy

ie. PKU

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21
Q

mutations at different loci can produce a similar phenotype

A

locus heterogeneity

ie. albinism

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22
Q

prader willi and angelman syndromes are d/t deletion of genes on what chromosome

A

chromosome 15

23
Q

what normally inhibits G1 ro S phase progression

A

p53

hypophosphorylated Rb

24
Q

RER in neurons is called what?

A

nissl bodies

25
what types of cells are rich in smooth ER?
liver hepatocytes, adrenal cortex, gonads
26
coarse facial features, clouded cornea, restricted joint movement, high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes
I cell disease | deficiency mannose 6P on GP
27
accumulation of very long chain FA in tissue; inability to form myelin
zellweger syndrome, d/t defect in peroxisomes
28
vimentin is a structural component of______
connective tissue
29
nuclear lamins are a structural component of______
nuclear envelope and DNA within
30
defect in procollagen peptidase
ehlers danlos (issue with croslinking to make collagen fibrils)
31
defect in glycosylation of collagen, not enough collagen type 1
osteogenesis imperfecta
32
CT dz caused by impaired Cu absorption and transport, decr activity of lysyl oxidase; presents with brittle, kinky hair, hypotonia
Menkes disease
33
defect in fibrillin
Marfan
34
sites of gluconeogenesis
liver kidney intestinal epithelium
35
what is released to signal need to break down glycogen?
1. glucagon | 2. epinephrine
36
cardiomyopathy, hyporeflexia, progressive muscle weakness, defect in lysosomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase
Pompe disease
37
defective debranching enzyme (alpha 1,6 glucosidase)
Cori disease (more mild form of Von Gierke dz)
38
which dz can be supplemented with high intake of ketogenic nutrients (lysine and leucine)
PDH complex deficiency
39
neuro defects, lactic acidosis, incr serum alanine starting in infancy
PDH complex deficiency
40
which B vitamins are req'd to make PDH complex or alpha KGDH complex?
B1, B2, B3, B5
41
what are the 2 main nitrogen transporters in teh blood
1. alanine | 2. glutamine
42
what are 3 ETC uncoupling agents
1. ASA 2. 2,4 DNP 3. thermogenin
43
skin lesions, edema, fatty liver, anemia, depigmented skin and hair
kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)
44
primary nrg source of a person who has not eaten in 2 days
FA
45
x linked recessive, incr orotic acid in blood/urine, hyperammonia, decr BUN - defect in?
ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
46
intellectual disability, osteoporosis, tall stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation, thrombosis, atherosclerosis, marfanoid habitus
homocystinuria
47
hereditary defect of renal PCT and aa transporter for COLA (cysteine, ornithine, lysine, arginine)
cystinuria | tx: urinary alkanization
48
MSUD is d/t deficiency in what?
branched chain alpha KGD complex
49
which vitamin excess can lead to incr ICP?
vitamin A
50
dehydrogenase rxns require what vitamin? component of FAD and FMN also
vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
51
which vitamin is a constituent of NAD and NADP
vitamin B3 (niacin)
52
a patient presents with convulsions and irritabiltiy - what vitamin deficiency is indicated?
vitamin B6
53
used by pyr dehydrogenase and alpha KG dehydrogenase
vitamin B1
54
deficiency that can be cause by isonizid use
B6 (pyridoxine) | B3 (niacin)