biochem diseases Flashcards

1
Q

what happens when there is a loss of one alpha-globin chain?

A

results in silent carrier

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2
Q

what happens when there is a loss of 2 alpha-globin chains?

A

results in thalassemia trait (mild symptoms)

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3
Q

what happens when there is a loss of 3 alpha-globin chains?

A

results in HbH disease (clinically severe)

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4
Q

what happens when there is a loss of all alpha-globin chains?

A

fetal gamma tetramers will form resulting in Hb Bart disease (fatal in utero because fetal gamma chains have high affinity for O2)

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5
Q

what causes methemoglobinemia?

A

deficiency in cytochrome B5 reductase
can’t convert Fe3+ to Fe2+

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6
Q

what does no or few beta chains cause?

A

beta-thalassemia major (Cooley anemia)
requires medication intervention to survive childhood

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7
Q

what does varying beta chain deficits relative to alpha chain cause?

A

beta-thalassemia intermedia

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8
Q

what does slight deficit in beta chain deficits relative to alpha chain cause?

A

beta-thalassemia minor
little to no symptoms, low MCV, low beta-globin content

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9
Q

where is EPO produced?

A

in the KIDNEY in response to low O2 levels

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10
Q

where do reticulocytes mature?

A

in the spleen where they lose ribosomes and mRNA

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11
Q

what causes inadequate HbB chains?

A

gene deletion, promoter mutation, and splice-junction mutation

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12
Q

how do protons stabilize the T state of Hb?

A

protonating HISTIDINE residues in the core of Hb
SHORT TERM regulation of Hb-O2 binding affinity

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13
Q

what is the long term regulator of Hb O2-binding affinity

A

2,3 BPG which binds to the core of T-state Hb

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14
Q

why are infants more prone to methemoglobinemia?

A

because they drink well water containing nitrate that can be converted to nitrite in their digestive tract
nitrite can oxidize Hb to metHb
because infants do NOT express enough cytochrome b5 reductase, they cannot reduce metHb to Fe2+

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14
Q

what is the function of haptoglobin?

A

it binds to Hb that leaks from RBC in circulation

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15
Q

what does a low haptoglobin serum indicate?

A

intravascular hemolysis
this means that more Hb is leaking from RBC and binding to haptoglobin

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16
Q

what is significant about ALA?

A

it is a neurotoxin that likely contributes to the symptoms of lead poisoning, both acute and chronic

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17
Q

what happens in ppl with AIP?

A

they will accumulate porphobilinogen and ALA due to deficiency in porphobilinogen deaminase

upon air oxidation in natural lighting will be red/brown and under fluorescent light will be red/pink

symptoms include ab pain and neuropsychiatric disturbances ranging from anxiety to delirium

treatment = use heme analog, hematin to inhibit ALA synthase because ALA 1 is inhibited by heme

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18
Q

why is B12 important in CN?

A

hydroxycobalamin binds to CN- and becomes cyanocobalamin to transport it to the kidney or rhodanese
becomes nontoxic form that can be excreted

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18
Q

why is bilirubin and biliverdin important?

A

they are potent free radical scavengers that protect against ox damage

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19
Q

what enzymes are sensitive to inhibition by lead? what is the result?

A

ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase are sensitive to inhibition by lead
inhibition of these enzymes lead to low heme levels which produce microcytic, hypochromic anema

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20
Q

what is sideroblastic anemia?

A

decreased in vitamin B6 –> decreased heme synthesis because can’t stimulate ALA synthase

results in microcytic, hypochromic anemia with high iron stores

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21
Q

what promotes inhibitors of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase?

A

hepatitis and hemochromatosis

22
Q

what is the importance of vitamin C in iron?

A

vitamin C is needed to reduce Fe3+ to Fe2+ so that iron can be absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells

REDUCING AGENT

23
what is stained with Prussian blue?
hemosiderin
23
what anemia results from chronic inflammation?
microcytic, hypochromic anemia with normal or elevated ferritin levels sideroblastic anemia
24
what does duodenal cytochrome B require for iron absorption?
vitamin C
25
how is non-heme absorbed?
has to be converted to Fe2+ using duodenal cytochrome B which uses vitamin C as reducing agent Fe2+ will be transported by DMT-1 (proton symport, works better at lower pH)
26
what is the INSOLUBLE degradation product of ferritin?
hemosiderin
27
what is vWF required for?
stabilization of FVIII and for primary plug formation
28
what is urokinase synthesized by?
most tissues
28
what is tPA synthesized by?
vascular endothelial cells
29
what does high or low INR indicate?
high INR means it takes too long to clot (increase bleeding) low INR means it is clotting too quickly (likely to form blood clots)
29
why can serum fibrinogen be important?
these tests are ordered as follow-up to PT/INR and aPTT to determine exact deficiency/excess that is causing clotting problem
30
what is the importance of D-Dimers?
they are products of fibrinolysis that can tell you exactly where a clot is
31
what are the vitamin K antagonists? what are their functions?
warfarin and dicoumarol prevent carboxylation of Gla proteins they are ANTICOAGULANTS warfarin is analog of vitamin K (inhibit vitamin K carboxylase, epoxide reductase, and reductase)
32
what is another importance of thrombin?
it cleaves FV to become a strong accelerator of FXa activity
33
what are the two ways in which thrombin is removed from plasma?
it is either bound to fibrin or thrombomodulin
34
what are the Gla proteins/factors?
10, 9, 7, 2 if there is a vitamin K deficiency it would affect these factors because Gla can undergo vitamin K carboxylase
35
what does platelet deficiency cause?
thrombocytopenia
36
what is the function of heparin?
it is an anticoagulant
37
how is antithrombin III activity enhanced?
in the presence of heparin
38
what is the function of XIII?
responsible for covalent cross-linking of fibrin
39
what enzymes are involved in proteolysis of plasminogen?
tPA and urokinase
40
what are the common clinical features of elliptocytosis and spherocytosis?
anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly
41
what are the 2 conditions that can lead to thick and viscous blood?
polycythemia and metHb
42
what is the function of albumin?
maintaining oncotic pressure by keeping fluid from leaking out into tissues also transporting small molecules (INSOLUBLE METABOLITES) in blood
43
what is the function of Sox-18 and Prox-1?
lymphatic vessels form and branch off of veins Prox-1 is master regulator of venous id
44
what is the function of angiopoietin-1 and Tie-2?
helps with angiogenesis, also sprouting factor
45
what is myocardin?
master regulator of smooth muscle formation
46
describe the significance of the trials
APPROVe and ASCEND were both significant in MI APPROVe --> vioxx increased risk of heart attack ASCEND --> significant decrease in CVD, significant increase in GI bleeds (people with diabetes and no prior CVD) ARRIVE --> no significant decrease in CVD, significant increase in GI bleeds (no diabetes, moderate CVD risk) ASPREE --> no significant decrease in CVD, significant increase in GI bleeds (ppl 70 y/o with no diabetes or CVD)
47
what happens when monocytes enter CT?
they become macrophages and live for several months
48
what cells have a cartwheel nucleus?
plasma cells
49
mast cells contain granules rich in...
histamine and heparin
50
why is tunica media so important?
it is reponsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation
51
what is the function of endothelin 1?
potent vasoconstrictor peptide