BIOCHEM Flashcards

1
Q

Cells derived from common myeloid progenitor

A

macrophages, granulocytes (neut, eosin, baso, mast), erythrocytes, platelets

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2
Q

cells derived from common lymphoid progenitor

A

T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, natural killer cells

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3
Q

immediate immune response to broadly conserved molecular motifs

(cytoplasmic receptor binding viral nucleic acids) or (cell surf rectors binding LPS in gram neg bacteria)

A

Innate immune response

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4
Q

the 3 Main APC’s are

A

dendritic cells, macrophages, activated B cells

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5
Q

what performs presentation of extracellular peptide antigens to CD4+ T cells in MHC-II

A

APCs

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6
Q

what causes decreased level of CD4+ T cells, normal/slight dec of CD3+ T cells, and NORMAL CD8+ T cells?

A

MHC-II pathway defect in thymus

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7
Q

what is defected in bruton agammaglobinemia, common variable immunodeficiency, IgA deficiency?

A

B cells

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8
Q

what is defected in C1 esterase inhibitor def, C3 deficiency, terminal complement deficiency

A

Complement

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9
Q

-Ataxia telang syndrome
-Hyper-IgM syndrome
-Severe combined immunodefiency
-wiskott-aldrich syndrome

A

Mixed B cells and T cells defect

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10
Q

-Chediak-higashi syndrome
-chronic granuloma disease
-leukocyte adhesion def
-myeloperoxidase def
-severe congenital neutropenia

A

Phagocytes defect

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11
Q

-chronic mucocutaneous candida
-DiGeorge syndrome
-Hyper-IgE syndrome (job)
-IL-12 receptor def
-IPEX syndrome

A

T cells defect

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12
Q

what are MHC-restricted and must use receptors to bind peptide antigens that are presented in MHC molecules (I and II)

A

T cells

(so def in T cells- the response to peptide antigens in both MHC classes I and II will be defected)

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13
Q

CD4+ T cells bind EXTRACELLULAR PEPTIDE ANTIGENS presented by APCs in …..

A

MHC class II

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14
Q

CD8+ T cells bind CYTOPLASMIC PEPTIDE ANTIGENS presented by ALL NUCLEATED CELLS in….

A

MHC class I

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15
Q

amlyo (1,4- 1,6) transglucosidase (glycogen branching enzyme) def

A

GSD type 4, Anderson disease
*hepatosplenomegaly, hypoglycemia, esophageal varices/cirrhosis/ascites

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16
Q

amylo 1, 6 glucosidase (glycogen debrancher enzyme) def

A

GSD type 3, Cori

*hepatomegaly, failure to thrive, hypoglycemia

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17
Q

glucose 6 phosphatase def (G6P)

*inhibit conversion of lactate to pyruvate

A

GSD type 1, von gierke

*hypotonia, liver probs, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis

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18
Q

alpha 1, 4 glucosidase def

A

GSD type 2, Pompe/acid maltase def

*myopathy, hypotonia, resp distress, fail to thrive, cardiomegaly in early childhood

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19
Q

muscle phosphorylase def

A

GSD type 5, McArdle disease

*presents early adult, exercise intolerance, fatigue, cramps, poor endurance
*^^ creatine kinase, myoglobinuria, rhabdomyolysis

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20
Q

demyelination from injury to oligodendrocytes
-Lhermitte sign (electric shock down neck and arm)

A

Multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

extracellular protein aggregation
-abnormal beta amyloid protein accumulation as amyloid plaques

A

Alzheimers dz

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22
Q

intraneuronal alpha synuclein inclusion bodies

A

Parkinsons/ Lewy body dementia

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23
Q

defective CD40L
inability to class switch
NORMAL levels of B and T lymphocytes

A

Hyper-IgM syndrome

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24
Q

defect in DNA DS break repair enzymes

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia (Louis bar syndrome)
IgA deficiency

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25
defective phagosome-lysosome fusion in Neutrophils
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
26
what requires 3 OH group from the enzyme primase (DNA dep RNA polymerase)
DNA poly 3
27
the leading strand moves what direction in comparison to tuning fork
toward
28
what removes RNA primers and replaces with DNA
DNA poly 1
29
what is responsible for proofreading okazaki fragments
DNA poly 3
30
tightly coiled DNA are more or less active
less active
31
what is considered the glue of okazaki fragments
ligase
32
what does negative supercoiling
top
33
normal MCV, normal Fe 2+, normal transferrin HIGH unconjugated bilirubin HIGH lactate dehydrogenase LOW haptoglobin Reticulocytosis
Sickle Cell anemia - normocytic normochromic hemolytic anemia **pain in hands
34
LOW MCV, LOW Fe 2+, LOW ferritin, HIGH transferrin, HIGH TIBC Koilonychia, fatigue, glossitis, conjunctival pallor
Iron Deficiency Anemia- microcytic hypochromic
35
altered ability to transport bilirubin glucuronides into bile canalculi -HIGH CONJUGATED Bilirubin -HIGH COPROPHYIN 1 IN URINE -NORMAL Lactate Dehydrogenase -NORMAL LIVER -Mild recurrent jaundice, scleral icterus
ROTOR syndrome (AR)
36
altered ability to transport bilirubin glucuronides into bile canalculi -HIGH CONJUGATED Bilirubin -NORMAL COPROPHYIN 1 IN URINE -NORMAL Lactate Dehydrogenase -LIVER IS BLACK
Dubin Johnson syndrome
37
decreased gluconuryl transferase enzyme HIGH UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN
Gilbert syndrome
38
ABSENT gluconuryl transferase enzyme HIGH UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN
Crigler-Najjar
39
potential to form stag horn calculi, also called magnesium ammonium phosphate
Struvite stones (catheters)
40
target separation: RNA with formaldehyde Probe: Labeled DNA that is complimentary to mRNA of interest **How much RNA of interest is present
Northern Blot
41
target separation: genomic DNA cut with restriction enzymes Probe: Labeled DNA that targets gene of interest **to detect restriction fragments, organization of genes
Southern blot
42
target separation: Protein denatured with SDS Probe: ANTIBODY against protein of interest **How much PROTEIN of interest is present
Western blot
43
LOW MCV, HIGH Fe 2+, HIGH Ferritin, LOW transferrin microcytic hypochromic coarse basophilic granules that stain POSITIVE for iron with prussian blue stain
Sideroblastic anemia
44
Positive for DOG1 and CD117
GIST (PDGFRA, and KIT mutations) - receptor tyrosine kinase
45
APC suppressor gene mutation
Familial adenomatous polyps (FAP)
46
MLH-1 POSITIVE for Pancytokeratin
Lynch syndrome (mismatch repair)- hered non polyp colorectal cancer syndrome
47
CAG repeat
huntingtons, HTT gene on chrom 4
48
CTG repeat
Myotonic Dystrophy- DMK gene
49
GAA repeat
Friedrich's Ataxia- FXN gene
50
CGG repeat
Fragile X - FMR1 gene
51
nondisjunction during meiosis is what syndrome
Downs - triploidy chromosome 21
52
alpha galactosidase A def
Fabry (XLR)
53
B-glucocerebrosidase def
Gaucher
54
defect in Rb tumor suppressor gene Rb inhibits G1-S progression of cell cycle, so a defect in this gene will INCREASE this
Retinoblastoma, A/W osteosarcoma ("two hit"- AR) w/ both genes need to be affected for cancer to develop
55
XL recessive Type 4 collagen, at the alpha 3/4/5 subunits in the basement membranes (hereditary) renal, auditory, ocular problems (bilateral sensory hearing loss, progression of renal disease), blood in urine
Alport Syndrome
56
Type 6 collagen (classic type 1 of this dz) in skin, hair, placenta
Ehler- Danlos
57
type 4 collagen (acquired not hereditary) in basement membranes
goodpasture
58
megaloblastic macrocytic anemia hyperhsegmented neutrophils increased homocysteine levels what vitamin def
folate
59
3 D's: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia "symmetric red rash on sun exposed areas, neck necklace"
Pellagra- niacin deficiency
60
microcytic anemia, sideroblastic anemia what vit def
vitamin B6 pyridoxine
61
normocytic anemia what vit def
vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
62
what test amplifies a desired DNA fragment, diagnostic tool of Neonatal HIV and herpes encephalitis
PCR
63
assesses size, protein expression of individual cells in sample *immunodeficiencies/hematologic abnormalities (CD4+ t cell count)
flow cytometry
64
compare transcription of genes in 2 RNA samples (thousands)- cancer analysis
microarray
65
detect an antibody/antigen in a patients blood (screening)
ELISA
66
direct visualization of chromosomal abnormalities/specific gene localization (micro deletion, translocation, duplication) ex: trisomy 21
FISH
67
diagnose chromosome imbalances (trisomal, sex chromosomes)
karyotyping
68
severe decrease of B and T cells DEF OF ADENOSINE DEAMINASE
SCID
69
chromosome deletion on long arm of 22q11 DEC CD3 T cells hypocalcemia cleft lip/palate, cardiac abnormalities
DiGeorge- thymic shadow, 3/4 pharyngeal pouches defect, tetralogy of fall, no parathyroid gland
70
STAT3 mutation on chrom 17 HYPER IgE!!!!
Job syndrome (Hyper IgE) - severe eczema/recurrent infections
71
parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pheochromocytoma (adrenal gland tumor) MEN 2A what mutation
RET oncogene GOF
72
mucosal neuromas, marfanoid body habitus, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pheochromocytoma MEN 2B
RET oncogene GOF
73
**retinal hemangioblastoma **bilateral renal cell carcinomas (bilateral flank pain) **pheochromocytoma (adrenal gland tumor)
VHL : AD mutation deletion affecting chromosome 3p
74
**HIGH HEMOGLOBIN
Polycythemia Vera (JAK2 oncogene mutation GOF)
75
TSC1 mutation on chrom 9 TSC2 mutation on chrom 16
tuberous sclerosis
76
sturge weber- nonhereditary
somatic mosaicism of activating mutation in GNAQ gene
77
"constantly wringing hands together", microcephaly, lack of eye contact, inability to speak
Rett syndrome - MECP2 mutation
78
deletion of short arm on chrom 5
cri du chat (cry of the cat), laryngeal hypoplasia, low set ears, microcephaly
79
produces glucagon, absence of this leads to hypoglycemia what cell
alpha cells
80
located in fundus/body, produce pepsinogen def = impaired protein breakdown
chief cells
81
produces somatostatin: inhibits gastrin, glucagon, insulin, secretin, PPP, VIP, serotonin, GH
delta cells
82
produce gastrin in antrum, duodenum, pancreas stimulates secretion of gastric acid
G cells
83
produces intrinsic factor, important for absorption of vitamin b12 (def can cause spasticity/ lack of b12)
parietal cells
84
complex 1 inhibitor of ETC that is a pesticide (causes parkinson symptoms)
rotenone
85
complex 3 inhib that is found in fish poison, leads to resp depression, shock, pulmonary edema
Actimycin A
86
complex 4 inhibitors of ETC
cyanide, carbon monoxide
87
gait ataxia, kyphoscoliosis, hammertoes friedrichs ataxia
GAA, frataxin gene chromosome 9
88
long narrow face, prominent ears,
CGG, FMR1 gene on X chromosome
89
what accumulates in fabrys? enzyme affected: a-galactosidase
globosides
90
what accumulates in gauchers? enzyme: B- glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase)
glucocerebrosides
91
what accumulates in krabbe? enzyme: B-galactosidase (galactocerebrosidase)
galactocerbrosides
92
what accumalates in niemann pick? enzyme: spingomyelinase
sphingomyelin
93
what accumulates in tay sachs? enzyme: B-hexosaminidase A
Ganglioside GM2
94
what accumulates in metachropic leukodystrophy? enzyme: arylsulfatase A
Sulfatides
95
"severe chest pain radiation to back between shoulders, bp difference btw arms, AR murmur" *tall, thin, extremely long arms
Marfan syndrom, fibrillen 1 gene on chrom 15
96
ADPKD, a-thalassemia, and tuberous sclerosis are all affected on what chromosome
chrom 16
97
familial dysbetalipoproteinemia -elevated everything except?
HDL (normal HDL) Apo E defect
98
"super morbid obese", short, hyperphagia, begins around 2 yo deletion of paternal copy of chrom 15
prader willi
99
frequent bouts of laughter, "happy puppet syndrome", by 1 yo deletion of maternal copy of chromosome 15
angelman syndrome
100
myelin chromatin clump blebbing/fatty change ribosome detachment cellular swelling
reversible cellular injury
101
lysosomal rupture mitochromial damage nuclear condensation (pyknosis) nuclear fragmentation (karyorrhexis) nuclear dissolution (karyolysis)
irreversible cell injury
102
highest denaturing temperature base pairs (PCR) in the denaturation step (what base pairs require more heat to denature)
the one with the most G-C pairs (3 hydrogen bonds) **A-T pairs have 2 hydrogen bonds
103
hematuria, unilateral non tender abdominal mass that does not cross midline (kidney tumor)
wilms tumor deletion of WT1 gene on chromosome 11
104
medium chain acyl coa dehydrogenase deficiency -jitters, sweating before feeds (hypoglycemia) what is disease and what on urinalysis
MCAD dicarboxylic acids on urinalysis