BIO CHEM FROM BOOK Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following represents the most reduced form of carbon?

R-CH3 
R-COOH 
R-CHO 
R-CH2OH 
CO2
A

R-CH3

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2
Q

The Km (Michaelis constant) of an enzyme for a substrate is defined operationally as

half the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is maximal

the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half maximal

the dissociation constant of the enzymesubstrate complex

the dissociation constant of the enzymeproduct complex

the rate constant of the reaction at saturation

A

the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half maximal

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3
Q

Dinitrophenol (DNP) uncouples mitochondrial electron transport from oxidative phosphorylation by

dissipating the proton gradient

inhibiting cytochrome oxidase

dissociating the F0 and F1 units of the
ATP synthase complex

binding irreversibly to ubiquinone

blocking the adenine nucleotide carrier
(ATP/ADP exchanger)

A

dissipating the proton gradient (B) inhibiting cytochrome oxidase

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4
Q

Most of the dry mass in the trunk of a tree was originally derived from

the soil 
light energy 
amino acids 
CO2 
glucose
A

the soil

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5
Q

Which of the following cell compartments is associated with a protein skeleton composed of lamins?

Chloroplast 
Basement membrane 
Mitochondrion 
Nucleus 
Peroxisome
A

Nucleus

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6
Q

Initiation of mitogenesis by epidermal growth factor and depolarization of the membrane of a skeletal muscle cell by acetylcholine are similar in that each

involves, as an essential early step, an ion flux across the plasma-membrane receptor of the responding cell

requires a ligand-mediated conformational change in a plasma-membrane receptor of the responding cell

requires activation of a G protein on the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membrane in the responding cell

is mediated by phosphorylation of the ligand receptor in the responding cell

completes its primary task by direct activation of specific regulatory DNA sequences in the
nucleus of the responding cell

A

is mediated by phosphorylation of the ligand receptor in the responding cell

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7
Q

The principal site of peptide neurohormone biosynthesis is the

nucleus 
rough endoplasmic reticulum 
dendrite 
postsynaptic density 
synaptic vesicle
A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

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8
Q

A previously unknown organism that lacks a nuclear membrane and mitochondria has just been discovered. Which of the following would this organism most likely possess?

Lysosomes 
Cilia 
Ribosomes 
Endoplasmic reticulum 
Chloroplasts
A

Cilia

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9
Q

Drugs that either stabilize or depolymerize microtubules can be used in cancer chemo- therapy. Which of the following is correct concerning such drugs?

They stimulate the immune system.

They prevent chromatin condensation.

They prevent movement of tumor cells into other tissues.

They interfere with mitosis.

They interfere with endocytosis.

A

They prevent movement of tumor cells into other tissues.

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10
Q

If the genetic code consisted of four bases per codon rather than three, the maximum number of unique amino acids that could be encoded would be

16 
64 
128 
256 
512
A

256

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11
Q

In humans, the Barr body is an

active X chromosome in females 
active X chromosome in males 
inactive Y chromosome in males 
inactive Y chromosome in females 
inactive X chromosome in females
A

inactive Y chromosome in females

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12
Q

Which of the following types of molecules is always found in virions?

Lipid 
Protein 
Carbohydrate 
DNA 
RNA
A

RNA

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13
Q

An RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is likely to be present in the virion of a
(A) DNA virus that multiplies in the cytoplasm
(B) DNA virus that multiplies in the nucleus
(C) minus-strand RNA virus
(D) plus-strand RNA virus
(E) transforming virus

A

DNA virus that multiplies in the nucleus

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14
Q

In E. coli, the inability of the lac repressor to bind an inducer would result in

no substantial synthesis of -galactosidase

constitutive synthesis of -galactosidase

inducible synthesis of -galactosidase

synthesis of inactive -galactosidase

synthesis of -galactosidase only in the absence of lactose

A

inducible synthesis of -galactosidase

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15
Q

If sucrose and monosodium glutamate (MSG) are added to a vinegar and oil salad dressing and shaken, the mixture will eventually separate into two phases of different density and polarity. Where will most of the sucrose and the MSG be located following phase separation?

Both will concentrate in the vinegar.

Both will concentrate in the oil.

Sucrose will concentrate in the oil and MSG will concentrate in the vinegar.

Sucrose will concentrate in the vinegar and MSG will concentrate in the oil.

A

Both will concentrate in the vinegar

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16
Q

A major advantage of monoclonal antibodies compared to polyclonal antibodies is that monoclonal antibodies

have identical binding sites that recognize a specific epitope

cross-link molecules that share antigenic sites

are more easily coupled with probes such as fluorescent dyes

have higher-affinity binding to antigens

can be produced against proteins that are immunogenic in rabbits

A

have identical binding sites that recognize a specific epitope

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17
Q

The initial product of photosynthetic CO2 fixation in C3 plants is

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate 
dihydroxyacetone phosphate 
3-phosphoglycerate 
phosphoenolpyruvate 
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
A

glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

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18
Q

In which of the following systems is the entropy the greatest?

Water vapor

Liquid water at pH 7.0, 37°C

Water with sufficient acid added to lower the pH to 2.0

Supercooled water (liquid water at a temperature less than 0°C)

Ice

A

Water with sufficient acid added to lower the pH to 2.0

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19
Q

Which enzyme is activated by phosphorylation?

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase 
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase 
Glycogen synthase 
Pyruvate kinase 
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

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20
Q

All of the following statements about monomeric G proteins are true EXCEPT:

They are regulated by GTP-GDP exchange proteins.
They are regulated by GTPase activating proteins.
They regulate enzymes that synthesize cGMP.
They regulate vesicle formation.
They regulate vesicle fusion.

A

They regulate vesicle fusion.

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21
Q

All of the following are known to be part of a signal transduction cascade EXCEPT

phosphorylation of fibronectin

dissociation of the components of a heterotrimeric G-protein

enzymatic breakdown of phosphatidyl inositol bisphosphate (PIP2)

elevation of intracellular [Ca2+]

activation of cGMP phosphodiesterase

A

enzymatic breakdown of phosphatidyl inositol bisphosphate (PIP2)

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22
Q

Which of the following will result if the level of potassium ions in a solution bathing a nerve cell is raised tenfold while the cell is at its resting state?

The decrease in the normal K+ gradient will cause partial depolarization.

The amplification of the normal K+ gradient will cause partial hyperpolarization.

The added extracellular K+ will accelerate Na+/K+ pumping and cause partial depolarization.

The added extracellular K+ will cause ligand-gated ion channels to open.

The elevated K+ will promote Ca2+ channel opening and produce partial hyperpolarization

A

The decrease in the normal K+ gradient will cause partial depolarization.

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23
Q

SNARE proteins are found in the membranes of all of the following compartments EXCEPT

Mitochondria 
Golgi complex 
Early endosome 
Endoplasmic reticulum 
Synaptic plasma membrane
A

Mitochondria

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24
Q

Treatment of root tip meristem cells with the microtubule inhibitor colchicine results in all of the following EXCEPT

induction of polyploidy 
prevention of cytokinesis 
inhibition of mitotic spindle assembly 
cessation of DNA replication 
prevention of chromosome segregation
A

induction of polyploidy

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25
Q
  1. Genes a, b, and c are widely spaced in the bacterial genome. Transducing phage from an a+ b+ c+ bacterium were used to infect a culture of a− b− c− cells, and b+ transductants were selected. Which of the following best describes the predicted genotypes of these transductants?
Mostly a− b+ c− 
Mostly a− b+ c+ 
Mostly a+ b+ c+ 
Mostly a+ b+ c− 
a+ b+ c+ and a− b+ c− in equal frequencies
A

Mostly a+ b+ c−

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26
Q

If a cell has one chromosome in excess of the normal number of chromosomes present in the nucleus, it is referred to as

aneuploid 
polyploid 
tetraploid 
haploid 
allotetraploid
A

aneuploid

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27
Q

Which of the following statements about retrotransposons is correct?

They transpose via an RNA intermediate.

They contain genes for ribosomal proteins.

They possess a gene for RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

They possess genes that encode proteins that integrate RNA into chromosomes.

They are found only in bacteria.

A

They transpose via an RNA intermediate

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28
Q

When bacteria produce mammalian proteins, cDNA is used rather than genomic DNA. Which of the following is the best explanation?

It is easier to clone cDNA than genomic DNA of comparable size.

It is easier to clone RNA than DNA.

It is not possible to clone the entire coding region of the gene.

Most eukaryotic genes have introns that cannot be removed in bacteria.

Most eukaryotic gene promoters do not function in bacteria.

A

It is easier to clone cDNA than genomic DNA of comparable size.

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29
Q

A mutation deleting an upstream activating sequence for a single gene would be expected to be

polar 
trans-dominant 
cis-dominant 
silent 
revertible
A

silent

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30
Q

The difference between the molecular weight of sucrose and that of the sum of the molecular weights of its components (glucose and fructose) is

0 
 1 
16 
18 
 180
A

16

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31
Q

Proline disrupts -helical structure in proteins because it is

an acidic amino acid 
an aromatic amino acid 
an imino acid 
a basic amino acid 
a sulfur-containing amino acid
A

an imino acid

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32
Q

Glycogen phosphorylase exists in two forms in skeletal muscle. The active form, phosphorylase a, is generated from phosphorylase b by

reversible dimerization of phosphorylase b, triggered by calcium ion

proteolytic cleavage of a decapeptide from the N-terminus of phosphorylase b

protonation of the active-site histidine residue by a decrease in intracellular pH

ATP-dependent phosphorylation of a specific serine residue on each subunit

noncovalent binding of ATP to allosteric sites on phosphorylase b

A

protonation of the active-site histidine residue by a decrease in intracellular pH

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33
Q

An alpha-helical conformation of a globular protein in solution is best determined by which of the following?

Ultraviolet-visible absorbance spectroscopy 
Fluorescence spectroscopy 
Electron microscopy 
Analytical ultracentrifugation 
Circular dichroism
A

Analytical ultracentrifugation

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34
Q

The nucleoside adenosine exists in a protonated form with a pKa of 3.8. The percentage of the protonated form at pH 4.8 is closest to

1 
9 
50 
91 
99
A

99

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35
Q

Membrane carrier proteins differ from membrane channel proteins by which of the following characteristics?

Carrier proteins are glycoproteins, while channel proteins are lipoproteins.

Carrier proteins transport molecules down their electrochemical gradient, while channel proteins transport molecules against their electrochemical gradient.

Carrier proteins can mediate active transport, while channel proteins cannot.

Carrier proteins do not bind to the material transported, while channel proteins do.

Carrier proteins are synthesized on free cytoplasmic ribosomes, while channel proteins are synthesized on ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

Carrier proteins transport molecules down their electrochemical gradient, while channel proteins transport molecules against their electrochemical gradient

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36
Q

Particular RNAs that are important for development are located in distinct regions of the Drosophila embryo. This is most directly demonstrated by using

western blotting 
northern blotting 
in situ hybridization 
in vitro translation 
electroporation
A

in situ hybridization

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37
Q

Which of the following events can induce a transient arrest in the translation of a secretory protein?

Binding of a polysome to an ER receptor

Binding of SRP to an N-terminal signal sequence

Binding of snRNPs to the large ribosomal subunit

Presence of a stop-transfer sequence in the polypeptide

Cleavage of the signal sequence by signal peptidase

A

Binding of snRNPs to the large ribosomal subunit

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38
Q

The common pathway of entry into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of secretory, lysosomal, and plasma membrane proteins is best explained by which of the following?

Binding of their mRNAs to a special class of ribosomes attached to the ER

Addition of a common sorting signal to each type of protein after completion of synthesis

Addition of oligosaccharides to all three types of proteins

Presence of a signal sequence that targets each type of protein to the ER during synthesis

Presence of a zinc finger-binding domain in these three types of proteins

A

Addition of a common sorting signal to each type of protein after completion of synthesis

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39
Q

Eukaryotic cells with DNA damage often cease progression through the cell cycle until the damage is repaired. This type of control over the cell cycle is referred to as

proteosome control 
damage control 
checkpoint control 
anticyclin control 
transcriptional control
A

anticyclin control

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40
Q

A microarray is a large collection of specific DNA oligonucleotides spotted in a defined pattern on a microscope slide. What is the most useful experiment that can be done with such a tool?

Predicting the presence of specific metabolites in a cell

Comparing newly synthesized nuclear RNA with cytoplasmic RNA to locate introns

Comparing RNA produced under two different physiological conditions to understand patterns of gene expression

Comparing proteins produced under two different physiological conditions to understand their function

Evaluating the linkage relationships of genes

A

Comparing RNA produced under two different physiological conditions to understand patterns of gene expression

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41
Q

In vertebrate genes, transcription regulatory regions that contain CpG islands are inactivated by which CpG modification?

Methylation 
Myristylation 
Phosphorylation 
Acetylation 
Ubiquitination
A

Phosphorylation

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42
Q

All of the following are proteins within the core nucleosome particle EXCEPT

H1 
H2A 
H2B 
H3 
H4
A

H1

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43
Q

In a study of arginine biosynthesis in yeast, four mutant haploids requiring arginine (Arg−) were isolated. The Arg− haploids were fused in pairwise combinations to form diploids, whose requirement for arginine was tested. The results of the tests were that all diploid combinations yielded arginine prototrophs. How many different Arg genes are represented among the four mutants?

One 
Two 
Three 
Four 
Five
A

One

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44
Q

A set of genes from Bacillus subtilis that encode the proteins required for sporulation have conserved DNA sequences −35 and −10 nucleotides before the site of transcript initiation, although the sequence at −35 is different from that seen in most other genes from that species. Which of the following best explains this difference?

A novel sigma factor is required for transcription initiation at these genes.

The −35 sequence is the binding site for a repressor of transcription.

The replication of these genes requires a specifically modified DNA polymerase.

Translation of the mRNAs transcribed from these genes requires specific ribosomes that recognize a modified Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

Transcription of these genes is induced by cAMP.

A

Translation of the mRNAs transcribed from these genes requires specific ribosomes that recognize a modified Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

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45
Q

Acetyl CoA, the cytoplasmic substrate for fatty acid synthesis, is formed in mitochondria. The inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to acetyl CoA. Which of the following compounds is the form in which the carbon of acetyl CoA is transported to the cytoplasm?

Malate 
Acetate 
Citrate 
Pyruvate 
Glucose 

T(°C) pKw

0 14.94 25 14.00
50 13.28
75 12.71

A

Malate

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46
Q

The ion product for liquid water, Kw, varies with temperature (T), as indicated by the change in pKw shown in the table above. The definition of neutrality is [H+] = [OH−]. Which of the following is the pH of water at neutrality at 50°C ?

  1. 35 (B) 6.64
  2. 00
  3. 40
  4. 28
A

7.00

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47
Q

Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle?

Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and sedoheptulose
1,7-bisphosphatase

Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase

Phosphoglycolate phosphatase, glycerol kinase, and serine synthetase

Sucrose synthase, hexokinase, and glucose
6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase, epimerase, and aldolase

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48
Q

Which of the following best describes the hyperchromicity of DNA?

The shift in UV absorbance to longer wavelengths upon denaturation

The shift in UV absorbance to shorter wavelengths upon hydrolysis

The shift in UV absorbance to longer wavelengths upon annealing (forming double strands)

The increase in absorbance at 260 nm upon annealing

The increase in absorbance at 260 nm upon denaturation

A

The shift in UV absorbance to longer wavelengths upon denaturation

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49
Q

Isopentenyl pyrophosphate is a precursor of which of the following?

I. Cholesterol
II. Farnesyl groups on proteins
III. Steroid hormones

I, II, and III

A

I, II, and III

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50
Q

Cytokinesis in animal cells is caused by

the sliding movements of a band of microtubules around the circumference of the cell

the contraction of a band of actin filaments around the circumference of the cell

the movement of the mitotic spindle fibers

endocytosis of the plasma membrane around the equator of the cell

fusion of cytoplasmic membrane vesicles at the equator of the cell

A

fusion of cytoplasmic membrane vesicles at the equator of the cell

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51
Q

The synthesis of mRNA’s that encode the proteins of eukaryotic ribosomes occurs in the

cytoplasm 
nuclear envelope 
nucleolus 
euchromatin 
heterochromatin
A

nuclear envelope

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52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of increased cellular levels of cAMP?

Activation of a kinase cascade

Activation of the transducin G-protein

Increased phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase

Inhibition of glycogen synthesis

Dissociation of the cAMP-dependent protein kinase tetramer

A

Inhibition of glycogen synthesis

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53
Q

The KDEL sequence, found on luminal proteins of the ER, is responsible for

translocation of proteins into the ER lumen

insertion of proteins into the membrane of the ER

quality control in the ER

recognition by signal peptidase of the signal sequence

retrieval of ER luminal proteins from the Golgi

A

insertion of proteins into the membrane of the ER

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54
Q

Cyclins are proteins involved in regulation of

cell-cycle protein kinases
circadian rhythms
synthesis of cAMP
membrane circulation via exocytosis and endocytosis
the cycling of tubulin subunits through microtubules

A

the cycling of tubulin subunits through microtubules

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55
Q

The uppermost figure above shows the locations of four genes on the genetic map of an organism; the lower figure shows the locations of the same four genes on a physical map derived from the nucleotide sequence of the DNA of that organism. The maps are not identical because

there is no relationship between the position of genes in a genetic map and their positions on the DNA

recombination frequencies per kb of DNA are not uniform throughout a chromosome

the farther apart two genes are, the more likely they are to recombine

the closer two genes are, the more likely they are to recombine

some genes contain introns

A

recombination frequencies per kb of DNA are not uniform throughout a chromosome

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56
Q

The karyotype of a triploid plant contains 72 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would the karyotype of a diploid plant of the same species contain?

24 
48 
49 
71 
96
A

48

57
Q

The DNA from the bacteriophage X174 has a base composition of 25% A, 33% T, 24% G, and 18% C. Which of the following best explains this observation?

In viral genomes, the base pairing does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows G-A and C-T base pairs.

In viral genomes, the base pairing does not follow the standard Watson-Crick rules, and allows G-T and C-A base pairs.

Viral genomes are linear and tolerate basepair mismatches.

Nucleic acids from viruses are tightly complexed with nucleic acid-binding proteins and so cannot base-pair with one another.

The genome of bacteriophage X174 is single-stranded

A

The genome of bacteriophage X174 is single-stranded

58
Q

The GAL4 protein activates transcription from the GAL1 promoter in yeast. To bind to DNA, the protein utilizes a

heme group 
transcriptional-activating domain 
zinc-finger domain 
transmembrane segment 
signal peptide
A

zinc-finger domain

59
Q

Active transposable elements have which of the following features?

I. Repeated sequences at the ends of the transposable element
II. Different numbers and chromosomal posi-tions in different species of a single genus
III. The ability to alter the phenotype of an
organism

I only 
II only 
I and II only 
I and III only 
I, II, and III
A

I, II, and III

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT an anabolic product of nitrogen assimilation?

Glutamate 
Glutamine 
Asparagine 
Aspartate 
Urea
A

Urea

61
Q

Consider the average in vivo turnover rates for proteins, DNA, and mRNA. Which of the following orders best describes the turnover rate from fastest (shortest average lifetime) to slowest (longest average lifetime)?

mRNA  >  DNA  >  proteins 
mRNA  >  proteins  >  DNA 
Proteins  >  mRNA  >  DNA 
Proteins  >  DNA  >  mRNA 
DNA  >  mRNA  >  proteins
A

mRNA > proteins > DNA

62
Q

In glycolysis, the hydrolysis of phosphoenol pyruvate is thermodynamically driven by the highly exergonic enol-to-keto conversion of pyruvate. From the two half reactions shown below, what is the Go of the complete reaction?

61.9 kJ  mol−1 
  	29.9 kJ  mol−1 
−29.9 kJ  mol−1 
−61.9 kJ  mol−1 
−123.8 kJ  mol−1
A

−61.9 kJ mol−1

63
Q

Rhodopsin, -adrenergic receptors, and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors share which of the following features?

Each causes an inhibitory intracellular response.

Each activates a tyrosine kinase cascade.

Each is composed of an dimer.

Each functions through a heterotrimeric G-protein.

Each gates a cation channel.

A

Each functions through a heterotrimeric G-protein.

64
Q

Retroviral oncogenes are probably aberrant forms of normal cellular genes that regulate cell proliferation. Which of the following gene products are LEAST likely to be encoded by an oncogene?

GTP-binding proteins 
DNA-binding proteins 
Transmembrane proteins 
Capsid proteins 
Tyrosine kinases
A

Capsid proteins

65
Q

Which of the following best supports the endosymbiotic theory of the evolutionary origin of mitochondria?

Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes contain electron carriers.

Genes for mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits are found in the nuclear DNA.

Mitochondrial and bacterial ribosomal functions are inhibited by the same antibiotics.

The outer mitochondrial membrane contains the protein porin.

Many mitochondrial proteins are imported across both inner and outer membranes after translation on cytoplasmic ribosomes is completed.

A

Mitochondrial and bacterial ribosomal functions are inhibited by the same antibiotics

66
Q

When the nucleus of a frog red blood cell, which does not replicate DNA, is transplanted into an enucleated frog egg, the egg goes through several cell divisions. Which of the following is the best interpretation for this phenomenon?

Isolated red-blood-cell nuclei synthesize DNA.
The nucleus plays no role in cell division.
An enucleated frog egg can divide.
Genes do not function during early cleavage.
The cytoplasm controls nuclear DNA synthesis.

A

The cytoplasm controls nuclear DNA synthesis.

67
Q

The nuclear-synthesized poly-A sequence at the 3′ end of eukaryotic messenger RNA is

attached at random sequences within the 3′ non-translated region of a pre-mRNA

found also as a common feature in rRNA and tRNA

ranscribed from poly-T sequences in template
DNA

transcribed by RNA polymerase II

added after 3′ end cleavage of the pre-mRNA transcript

A

added after 3′ end cleavage of the pre-mRNA transcript

68
Q

A silent mutation in a gene results in

no change in the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA encoded by the gene

no change in the amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by the gene

no expression of the protein encoded by the gene

an amino acid substitution that has a significant effect on the functional activity of the protein encoded by the gene

a shift of the translational reading frame

A

no change in the amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by the gene

69
Q

Which of the following most accurately explains the cause for the abnormal numbers of chromosomes during human reproduction that can result in Down syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, or Klinefelter’s syndrome?

The occurrence of nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during meiosis

The duplicative production of extra chromosomes during DNA replication

The abnormal pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes during prophase of meiosis I

The selective loss of particular chromosomes from the sex cells after formation of the mature gamete

The fusion of two sperm with one egg to provide an extra set of paternal chromosomes

The occurrence of nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during meiosis

A

The occurrence of nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes during meiosis

70
Q

The enzyme reverse transcriptase is useful in the generation of cDNA libraries for which of the following reasons?

It is sensitive to high temperatures and so can be readily “killed” by heat treatment when the reaction is completed.

It does not require a primer to initiate polymerization as do most DNA polymerases.

It is insensitive to high temperatures and so can survive the many cycles of heating required to perform the polymerase chain reaction.

It is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

It lacks the proofreading function of most DNA polymerases and so is able to utilize mRNA from mutated genes as a template

A

It is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

71
Q

Gene rearrangements play a role in which of the following processes?

Adaptation to carbon source by bacteria
Surface antigen changes in trypanosomes
Sex determination in nematodes
Host range modification in bacteriophage T4
Segmentation during arthropod development

A

Surface antigen changes in trypanosomes

72
Q

A mutant of E. coli with a heat-sensitive DNA ligase (25°C permissive, 37°C nonpermissive) has been used to show that DNA synthesis is discontinuous. Examination of DNA replication in the presence of [3H]-thymidine in the mutant would demonstrate which of following?

The accumulation of short segments of unlabeled DNA at 25°C and at 37°C

The accumulation of short segments of unlabeled DNA at 25°C but not at 37°C

The accumulation of short segments of radioactive DNA at 37°C but not at 25°C

The accumulation of short segments of radioactive DNA at 25°C but not at 37°C

The incorporation of short fragments of radioactive DNA into longer ones at 25°C and at 37°C

A

The accumulation of short segments of radioactive DNA at 37°C but not at 25°C

73
Q

All of the following statements are true about damage by ultraviolet light to DNA in living cells EXCEPT:

The damage blocks normal DNA replication.

The most damaging wavelength is about 260 nm.

Covalent bonds are formed that join neighboring pyrimidines.

Neighboring phosphodiester bonds are cleaved.

Most cells can synthesize proteins capable of repairing UV damage.

A

Neighboring phosphodiester bonds are cleaved.

74
Q

Which of the following best predicts the direction of a chemical reaction?

S (entropy change) 
H (enthalpy change) 
E (internal energy change) 
G (Gibbs free energy change) 
Eact (energy of activation)
A

G (Gibbs free energy change)

75
Q

Thyroxine labeled with 131I is administered to a patient for the purpose of imaging the thyroid gland. The radioactive half-life of the isotope is 8 days. The biological half-life (the time re- quired for half of the compound to be eliminated from the body) is 2 days. The time at which 3/4 of the original radioactivity will no longer be detectable in the body is closest to

  1. 0 days
  2. 2 days
  3. 0 days
  4. 8 days
  5. 0 days
A

3.2 days

76
Q

The pH dependencies of Vmax and Km for an enzyme are shown above. These data are most consistent with the requirement for

a general base in catalysis 
a general acid in catalysis 
a dissociable cofactor in catalysis 
a basic residue in substrate binding 
an acidic residue in substrate binding
A

a general base in catalysis

77
Q

A coenzyme required by some enzymes that transfer one-carbon groups is

pyridoxal phosphate 
tetrahydrofolate 
thiamine pyrophosphate 
flavin adenine dinucleotide 
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
A

tetrahydrofolate

78
Q

Which of the following represents the sequence of electron flow in the light reactions of photosynthesis in higher plants?

H2O → photosystem I → photosystem II → NADP

H2O → photosystem II → photosystem I → NADP

H2O → photosystem II → photosystem I → ATP

NADPH → photosystem I → photosystem II → O2

Photosystem I → photosystem II → NADPH → O2

A

H2O → photosystem II → photosystem I → NADP

79
Q

llosteric inhibition of an enzyme involves which of the following?

Binding of an inhibitor to a site other than the substrate binding site

Binding of an inhibitor competitively to the substrate binding site

Binding of an inhibitor noncompetitively to the substrate binding site

Cooperative binding of substrate to an enzyme with four or more subunits

Cooperative binding of substrate to an enzyme that does not deviate from normal MichaelisMenten kinetics

Binding of an inhibitor to a site other than the substrate binding site

A

Binding of an inhibitor to a site other than the substrate binding site

80
Q

The ability of a cell to migrate on a substrate involves all of the following EXCEPT

formation and breakage of focal adhesions

assembly of an actin meshwork at the leading edge

WASp proteins

Arp2/3 complex proteins

connexin proteins

connexin proteins

A

connexin proteins

81
Q

Correct statements concerning different members of the myosin family include which of the following?

I. Some are actin plus (barbed)-end motors
II. Some are actin minus (pointed)-end motors
III. Some are actin-depolymerizing proteins

A

I and II only

82
Q

Which of the following cell junctions is responsible for metabolic coupling?

Tight junction 
Gap junction 
Adherens junction 
Desmosome 
Hemidesmosome
A

Gap junction

83
Q

A dicentric chromosome is unstable because

it cannot resynthesize its telomeres during replication

it pairs with nonhomologous chromosomes in meiosis

it pairs with nonhomologous chromosomes in mitosis

it is often simultaneously drawn to opposing spindle
poles in mitosis

many of its genes are silenced

A

it is often simultaneously drawn to opposing spindle poles in mitosis

84
Q

Which of the following statements about repetitive DNA is NOT true?

Repetitive DNA is associated with the centromeres and telomeres in higher eukaryotes.

Repetitive DNA is restricted to nontranscribed regions of the genome.

Repetitive DNA sequences are often found in tandem clusters throughout the genome.

Repetitive DNA was first detected because of its rapid reassociation kinetics.

Transposable elements can contribute to the repetitive DNA fraction.

A

Repetitive DNA is restricted to nontranscribed regions of the genome

85
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a eukaryotic enhancer element?

Its activity is independent of its orientation (i.e., the sequence can be inverted without effect).

Its activity is dependent on its distance from the start site of transcription.

It may be found as far as 1 to 2 kilobases from the promoter.

It may be positioned at the 5′ end or the 3′ end of the gene.

It increases the level of transcription of genes under its control.

A

Its activity is dependent on its distance from the start site of transcription.

86
Q

The glyoxylate cycle is found in plants and bacteria but not in animals. The lack of this cycle in animals results in the inability to

synthesize oxaloacetate from isocitrate
synthesize glutamate from malate
perform gluconeogenesis from amino acids
perform gluconeogenesis from fatty acids
perform CO2 fixation via the reverse citric acid cycle

A

perform gluconeogenesis from fatty acids

87
Q

The urea cycle occurs in the

mitochondrion and cytoplasm 
mitochondrion and lysosome 
endoplasmic reticulum 
Golgi complex 
peroxisome
A

mitochondrion and cytoplasm

88
Q

The units of the molar extinction coefficient are

L mole−1 cm−1

L mole cm−1

mole−1 cm−1

cm L−1 cm−1

mL mg−1 cm−1

A

L mole−1 cm−1

89
Q

The Pasteur effect, a decrease in the rate of glucose consumption when anaerobically grown yeast cells are exposed to O2, can be attributed to

uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation from electron transport

an increase in ADP and AMP concentrations due to ATP hydrolysis

a decreased ATP yield per glucose molecule

an inhibition of phosphofructokinase by ATP and citrate

A

an inhibition of phosphofructokinase by ATP and citrate

90
Q

The equilibrium constant for the reaction catalyzed by malate dehydrogenase (malate to oxaloacetate) is
about 5.9 × 10−6. Which of the following best describes the situation in which malate is converted to
oxaloacetate during the citric acid (Krebs) cycle?

The reaction is exergonic under standard conditions in the direction of the citric acid cycle and this drives the reaction.

The next reaction of the cycle, citrate synthase, is highly exergonic and it pulls the malate dehydrogenase reaction forward by removing oxaloacetate.

Malate dehydrogenase catalyzes an irreversible reaction in the citric acid cycle.

Malate dehydrogenase changes the equilibrium constant for the reaction, allowing it to proceed rapidly.

Malate accumulates in the cell to such a high concentration that it pushes the reaction forward.

A

The next reaction of the cycle, citrate synthase, is highly exergonic and it pulls the malate dehydrogenase reaction forward by removing oxaloacetate.
es the reaction forward.

91
Q

Which of the following reactions is anaplerotic (replenishes intermediate pools) for the citric acid cycle?

Oxaloacetate + GTP → phosphoenolpyruvate + CO2 + GDP

Malate + NAD+ → oxaloacetate + NADH + H+

Citrate + ATP + CoA → oxaloacetate + ADP + acetyl-CoA + Pi

Oxaloacetate + acetyl-CoA → citrate + CoA

Pyruvate + HCO3− + ATP → oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi + H+

A

Pyruvate + HCO3− + ATP → oxaloacetate + ADP + Pi + H+

92
Q

Propagation of a regenerative action potential along an axon can be accelerated by which of the following?

A decrease in the transmembrane resistance 
A decrease in the axoplasmic resistance 
Reduced myelin wrapping 
Shortened internodal lengths 
Narrowing of the axon diameter
A

A decrease in the axoplasmic resistance

93
Q

All of the following processes occur in the pathway leading to regulated protein secretion in animal cells EXCEPT

formation of transport vesicles from the rough endoplasmic reticulum

an increase in the concentration of cytosolic calcium ions prior to secretion

synthesis of an amino-terminal signal sequence

phosphorylation of a mannose residue in a glycoprotein

trimming of N-linked oligosaccharides

A

phosphorylation of a mannose residue in a glycoprotein

94
Q

Which of the following events occurs first as a result of EGF binding to its receptor?

Activation of a serine/threonine kinase 
Activation of a tyrosine phosphatase 
Activation of a tyrosine kinase 
Activation of a phospholipase 
Activation of a GTPase
A

Activation of a tyrosine kinase

95
Q

Mitosis and meiosis accomplish segregation of the replicated DNA to two or more daughter cells. Which of the following is characteristic of both mitosis and meiosis?

Chromosomes attach to spindle fibers composed of actin.

The resulting cells are diploid (2n).

The resulting cells are haploid (1n).

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes at their kinetochores.

Chiasmata form between chromosome arms.

A

Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes at their kinetochores.

96
Q

The increase in the number of nucleoli during oocyte development in the frog Xenopus laevis is the result of

accelerated cell division 
rapid chromosome replication 
rapid synthesis of transfer RNA 
amplification of the ribosomal RNA  genes 
accumulation of yolk protein
A

amplification of the ribosomal RNA genes

97
Q

In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes will most likely lead to which of the following?

Nondisjunction of the affected chromosome

Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies

Increased recombination frequency in the inverted region

Mispairing of the affected chromosome with a nonhomologous chromosome

Cellular arrest in meiotic prophase

A

Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies

98
Q

One important mechanism for maintaining sequence identity among the many copies of a gene within a tandem array is

unequal crossing-over 
gene conversion 
retrotransposition 
deletion 
inversion
A

gene conversion

99
Q

Which of the following conditions is likely to interfere with the transfer of genetic material by conjugation in bacteria?

Pretreatment of the recipient cells with DNase

Pretreatment of the recipient cells by application of strong shearing forces

Treatment of the recipient cells with cycloheximide

Treatment of the mating cell pairs by application of strong shearing forces

Treatment of the mating cell pairs with RNase

A

Treatment of the mating cell pairs by application of strong shearing forces

100
Q

The zymogen chymotrypsinogen is converted to active chymotrypsin by

binding of a necessary metal ion 
reduction of a disulfide bond 
proteolytic cleavage 
phosphorylation of an amino acid side  chain 
the action of a signal peptide peptidase
A

proteolytic cleavage

101
Q

How many grams of MgCl2 are required to prepare one liter of a 10-millimolar MgCl2 solution? (Atomic weight of Mg = 24.3 g; atomic weight of Cl = 35.5 g.)

0.59 g
0.95 g
59 g
95 g
950 g

A

0.95 g

102
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the polysaccharides starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin?

All have 1→4 linkages.

Starch is built from a different monomer than are the others.

Each is built from a single type of monomer.

Only chitin has a core protein.

Chitin and cellulose differ from each other only in the extent of their branching.

A

Each is built from a single type of monomer.

103
Q

All of the following statements about the fluid mosaic model of biological membranes are true EXCEPT:

Lipid molecules in the membrane readily undergo lateral diffusion.

Lipid molecules in the membrane readily undergo transverse (flip-flop) diffusion.

Integral membrane proteins can undergo lateral diffusion.

The saturated hydrocarbon chains of lipid molecules in the membrane undergo carbon-carbon bond rotation.

The transition temperature of a membrane is sensitive to the composition of the lipid molecules in the membrane.

A

Lipid molecules in the membrane readily undergo transverse (flip-flop) diffusion.

104
Q

The primary action of steroid hormones is at the level of

RNA export from the nucleus 
transcription 
pre-mRNA splicing 
mRNA degradation 
gene rearrangement
A

transcription

105
Q

The first metabolic intermediate that is common to the aerobic metabolism of glucose and fatty acids is

acetyl CoA 
beta-hydroxybutyrate 
pyruvate 
citrate 
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
A

acetyl CoA

106
Q

In an operon regulated only by attenuation, a mutation causing oversynthesis of the gene products is most likely to be in the part of the DNA corresponding to the

operator 
3′ terminal sequence of the RNA 
5′ terminal sequence of the RNA 
introns of the RNA 
coding sequence for the trans activator
A

5′ terminal sequence of the RNA

107
Q

Two protein sequences are compared by BLAST and produce an e value of e−100. This e value most likely signifies which of the following about the genes encoding these two proteins?

They function in the same tissue.
They have unrelated functions.
They are descended from a common ancestor.
They are derived from related species.
They encode proteins that form a dimeric complex.

A

They are descended from a common ancestor. (D) They are derived from related species.

108
Q

The processes that lead to the synthesis of the functional light chain of an antibody molecule include

DNA rearrangement but no RNA splicing
DNA rearrangement but no gene duplication
DNA rearrangement but no protein processing
RNA splicing but no DNA rearrangement
gene duplication but no protein processing

A

DNA rearrangement but no gene duplication

109
Q

A second mutation in the same gene restores the wild-type phenotype. This phenomenon is referred to as

intergenic complementation 
gene conversion 
synthetic enhancement 
intragenic suppression 
epistasis
A

intragenic suppression

110
Q

During the gluconeogenic conversion of pyruvate into glucose in the liver, all of the following are involved EXCEPT

pyruvate carboxylase 
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase 
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase 
glucose 6-phosphatase 
fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
A

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase

111
Q

Water is generally a good solvent for polar molecules and a poor solvent for nonpolar molecules. These solvent properties are best explained by

the high density of liquid water relative to polar solvents

the ability to form intermolecular hydrogen bonds

the density of solid water being less than the density of liquid water

high surface tension

high heat of vaporization

A

the ability to form intermolecular hydrogen bonds

112
Q

Movement of plasma membrane receptors from the basolateral surface to the apical surface of polarized epithelial cells

Phagocytosis 
Exocytosis 
Endocytosis 
Transcytosis 
Apoptosis
A

Transcytosis

113
Q

Up-regulation of glucose transporters at the plasma membrane

Phagocytosis 
Exocytosis 
Endocytosis 
Transcytosis 
Apoptosis
A

Exocytosis

114
Q

Selective retrieval of cell-surface proteins for recycling or degradation

Phagocytosis 
Exocytosis 
Endocytosis 
Transcytosis 
Apoptosis
A

Endocytosis

115
Q

Neurotransmitter release

Phagocytosis 
Exocytosis 
Endocytosis 
Transcytosis 
Apoptosis
A

Exocytos

116
Q

The exchange of material between nonhomologous chromosomes

Transition 
Transversion 
Translocation 
Tautomerization 
Reversion
A

Translocation

117
Q

The change from a mutant allele to a wild-type
allele

Transition 
Transversion 
Translocation 
Tautomerization 
Reversion
A

Reversion

118
Q

Forms a Schiff-base linkage with the -amino group of lysine residues

Chymotrypsin 
Cyanogen bromide 
Iodoacetamide 
Phenylglyoxal 
Pyridoxal 5′-phosphate
A

Pyridoxal 5′-phosphate

119
Q

Specifically cleaves polypeptides on the carboxyl side of methionine residues

Chymotrypsin 
Cyanogen bromide 
Iodoacetamide 
Phenylglyoxal 
Pyridoxal 5′-phosphate
A

Cyanogen bromide

120
Q

Generally used as a sulfhydryl-modifying reagent

Chymotrypsin 
Cyanogen bromide 
Iodoacetamide 
Phenylglyoxal 
Pyridoxal 5′-phosphate
A

Iodoacetamide

121
Q

Its assembly is inhibited by penicillin.

Thylakoid membrane 
Nuclear lamina 
Eubacterial cell wall 
Plant cell wall 
Endoplasmic reticulum
A

Eubacterial cell wall

122
Q

It is formed from polymeric fibrils composed of cellulose cross-linked by pectin and hemicellulose.

Thylakoid membrane 
Nuclear lamina 
Eubacterial cell wall 
Plant cell wall 
Endoplasmic reticulum
A

Plant cell wall

123
Q

It is the site of dolichol phosphate function.

Thylakoid membrane 
Nuclear lamina 
Eubacterial cell wall 
Plant cell wall 
Endoplasmic reticulum
A

Endoplasmic reticulum

124
Q

Produces oligonucleotides that contain damaged bases

Photoreactivation 
Excision repair 
Recombination repair 
SOS repair 
Mismatch repair 

Excision repair

A

Excision repair

125
Q

Acts only on pyrimidine dimers

Photoreactivation 
Excision repair 
Recombination repair 
SOS repair 
Mismatch repair
A

Photoreactivation

126
Q

Uses methyl groups to distinguish parental and daughter strands

Photoreactivation 
Excision repair 
Recombination repair 
SOS repair 
Mismatch repair
A

Mismatch repair

127
Q

Is often mutagenic

Photoreactivation 
Excision repair 
Recombination repair 
SOS repair 
Mismatch repair
A

SOS repair

128
Q

129
Involves exchange of sister strands

Photoreactivation 
Excision repair 
Recombination repair 
SOS repair 
Mismatch repair
A

Recombination repair

129
Q

Donates electrons to mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase

Cytochrome c 
Cytochrome b 
Plastocyanin 
Ubiquinone 
Plastoquinone
A

Cytochrome c

130
Q

Donates electrons to P700 of Photosystem I

Cytochrome c 
Cytochrome b 
Plastocyanin 
Ubiquinone 
Plastoquinone
A

Plastocyanin

131
Q

Accepts electrons from mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase

Cytochrome c 
Cytochrome b 
Plastocyanin 
Ubiquinone 
Plastoquinone
A

Ubiquinone

132
Q

Catalyzes the hydrolytic removal of one phosphate group from a monosaccharide bisphosphate

Isomerase 
Kinase 
Ligase 
Phosphatase 
Oxidoreductase
A

Phosphatase

133
Q

Catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group to a nucleoside diphosphate

Isomerase 
Kinase 
Ligase 
Phosphatase 
Oxidoreductase
A

Kinase

134
Q

Catalyzes the conversion of a ketosugar phosphate to the corresponding aldosugar phosphate

Isomerase 
Kinase 
Ligase 
Phosphatase 
Oxidoreductase
A

Isomerase

135
Q

Possesses genes that may be integrated into the genome of an infected eukaryotic cell

E. coli 
Yeast 
Bacteriophage T4 
Bacteriophage lambda 
Adenovirus
A

Adenovirus

136
Q

Can lysogenize bacteria

E. coli 
Yeast 
Bacteriophage T4 
Bacteriophage lambda 
Adenovirus
A

Bacteriophage lambda

137
Q

In Drosophila melanogaster, cinnabar eye (cn) and vestigial wing (vg) are simple recessive traits. A female, heterozygous for both genes, was crossed with a male with cinnabar eyes and vestigial wings. The offspring resulting from this cross are listed in the table below.

Class 	Phenotype 
I	Wild type 
II	Cinnabar eye, wild-type wing 
III	Wild-type eye, vestigial wing 
IV	Cinnabar eye, vestigial wing 	Number

445 51
49 455

Recombinant phenotypes include which of the following classes?

IV only 
I and IV only 
II and III only 
I, II, and III only 
II, III, and IV only 

From the data shown, the distance between the cn and vg genes is approximately

500 map units 
100 map units 
50 map units 
10 map units 
5 map units 

If crossing-over were to occur in the male parent, the anticipated effect on phenotypic numbers would be

a decrease in class I 
a decrease in class II 
a decrease in class III 
a decrease in class IV 
no significant difference 

If cn and vg were unlinked, what percent of the offspring would be expected to have either cinnabar eyes or vestigial wings or both?

100% 
75% 
50%
25% 
6%
A

II and III only

10 map units

no significant difference

75%

138
Q

END

A

END