BIO CHEM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The allosteric inhibitor of an enzymE

Causes the enzyme to work faster
Binds to the active site
Participates in feedback regulation
Denatures the enzyme

A

Participates in feedback regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is false about allosteric feedback inhibition?

Bacterial enzyme system is the first known example

Conversion of L-leucine to L-isoleucine

Threonine dehydratase is inhibited by isoleucine

If the isoleucine concentration decreases, the rate of threonine dehydration increases

A

Conversion of L-leucine to L-isoleucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is false?

Methyl, phosphoryl, adenyl, uridylyl and adenosine diphosphate ribosyl groups are the modifying groups

An example of an enzyme regulated by methylation is the methyl-donating chemo taxis protein of bacteria

The protein is a part of the system that permits a bacterium to swim towards attractant

The methylating agent is S- adenosylmethionine

A

An example of an enzyme regulated by methylation is the methyl-donating chemo taxis protein of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the regulation of biological nitrogen fixation?

Dinitrogenase reductase
Dinitrogenase oxidase
Phosphatase
Kinase

A

Dinitrogenase reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the ADP-ribosylation of key cellular enzymes or proteins?

Diphteria toxin and cholera toxin
Dinitrogenase reductase
Protein phosphatases
Kinase

A

Diphteria toxin and cholera toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Removal of phosphoryl groups is catalyzed by

Diphteria toxin and cholera toxin
Dinitrogenase reductase
Protein phosphatases
Protein kinases

A

Protein phosphatases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The attachment of phosphoryl groups to specific amino acid residues is catalyzed by

Diphteria toxin and cholera toxin
Dinitrogenase reductase
Protein phosphatases
Protein kinases

A

Protein kinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phosphorylase a +2H2O → phosphorylase b + 2Pi
Which of the following is false about this reaction?

Phosphorylase a is less active and phosphorylase b is more active

Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes this reaction

Phosphorylase b can be transformed back into phosphorylase a by phosphorylase kinase

Phosphorylase kinase catalyzes the transfer of phosphoryl groups from ATP to Phosphorylase b

A

Phosphorylase a is less active and phosphorylase b is more active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following takes place due to phosphorylation of isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Inhibits the binding of citrate at active site
Degrades the enzyme
Enhances the substrate-binding affinity
No reaction

A

Inhibits the binding of citrate at active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following enzyme catalyzes a reaction that introduces reduced nitrogen ito cellular metabolism?

Bacterial glutamine synthase
Bacterial dinitrogenase reductase
Bacterial dinitrogenase oxidase
Phosphatase

A

Bacterial glutamine synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following is false about feedback regulation?

It is a type of enzymatic activity regulation

The synthesis of concerned enzyme is inhibited by interfering with the gene of that enzyme

Concentration of enzyme is reduced by the end product

The best example is the biosynthesis of L-isoleucine from L-threonine in bacteria

A

NO ANSWER, PLEASE CHECK OTHER REFERENCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is false?

Allosteric modulators may be inhibitory or stimulatory

Based on the nature of modulator, allosteric enzymes are of two types

Homotropic allosteric enzymes have the substrate and modulator same

Heterotropic allosteric enzymes have the substrate and modulator same

A

Heterotropic allosteric enzymes have the substrate and modulator same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the case of allosteric enzymes what is the graphical representation when initial velocity is plotted against substrate concentration?

Straight line with negative slope
Hyperbola
Sigmoid curve
Parabola

A

Sigmoid curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many types of enzymatic regulation mechanism occurs in the cells?

2
3
4
5

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is the enzyme that acts as a regulatory enzyme in a four-step metabolic pathway?

First enzyme
Fourth enzyme
Second enzyme
Third enzyme

A

First enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anthrone method is preferred in the determination of

Carbohydrates
Proteins
Vitamins
Fats

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following are an example of epimers?

Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
a & c

A

Glucose & Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

One of the following has reducing properties

Glucuronic acid
Gluconic acid
Glucaric acid
Mucic acid

A

Glucuronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The red precipitate formed when glucose is heated with “Benedict’s reagent” is

Cupric hydroxide
Cuprous hydroxide
Cupric oxide
Cuprous oxide

A

Cuprous oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by

Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent

A

Selwinoff’s reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?

Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

A

Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose

A

Maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?

C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4

A

C1, C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?

Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde

A

Glyceraldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units? Glucose and fructose Glucose and galactose Glucose and sucrose Glucose and ribose
Glucose and galactose
26
Which of the following is an example of bacterial and yeast polysaccharide? Starch Glycogen Cellulose Dextrans
Dextrans
27
In which of the following, glucose residues are linked by β1 - 4 glycosidic bonds? Amylose Starch Cellulose Glycogen
Cellulose
28
What is the chemical difference between cellulose and chitin? Replacement of the hydroxyl group at C2 with an acetylated amino group Replacement of the hydroxyl group at C3 with an acetylated amino group Replacement of the hydroxyl group at C4 with an acetylated amino group Replacement of the hydroxyl group at C5 with an acetylated amino group
Replacement of the hydroxyl group at C2 with an acetylated amino group
29
When all the monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are same type, such type of a polysaccharide is called a Glycogen Homoglycan Heteroglycan Oligosaccharide
Homoglycan
30
In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants? Glycogen Starch Dextrin Cellulose
Starch
31
In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver? Glycogen Starch Dextrin Cellulose
Glycogen
32
Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides? Glycogen Cellulose Chitin Glucose
Glycogen
33
Which of the following are the structural polysaccharides? Glycogen Starch Chitin Glucose
Chitin
34
Which of the following is an analogous to starch? Cellulose Glycogen Sucrose Chitin
Glycogen
35
Which of the following is not a monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms? Arabinose Xylulose Trehalose Ribulose
Trehalose
36
Which of the following are found in connective tissues? Glycosamineglycans Proteoglycans Gycoproteins Glycolipids
Proteoglycans
37
Which of the following statements is false about proteoglacans? They hold less amount of water Chondroitin sulfate is a proteoglycan They possess charge They are made of amino acids and sugars
They hold less amount of water
38
In cell membrane, carbohydrates in glycoproteins or glycolipids are oriented? Towards outside Towards inside Towards outside and inside Randomly distributed
Towards outside
39
Which of the following is an oligosaccharide linked to protein? Glycolipid Glycoprotein Ganglioside Galactoside
Glycolipid
40
The protein core of proteoglycan is rich in Serine and threonine Serine and methionine Threonine and methionine Alanine and serine
Serine and threonine
41
Which of the following are included in the types of glycolipids? N-acetylgalactosamine N-acetylglucosamine Xylose Cerebrosides
Cerebrosides
42
Which of the following blood group individuals have N-acetylgalactosamine sugar attachment? A B AB O
A
43
Which of the following blood group individuals have galactose ? A B AB O
B
44
Which of the following glycoprotein functions as a lubricant and protective agent? Collagens Mucins Transferrins Immunoglobulins
Mucins
45
Which of the following are important for white blood cell recognition? Glycosamineglycans Proteoglycans Gycoproteins Glycolipids
Gycoproteins
46
Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following Cytosine Thymine Uracil Adenine
Adenine
47
Which of the following are not the components of RNA? Thymine Adenine Guanine Cytosine
Thymine
48
Which of the following statements is true? Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
49
What is the composition of nucleoside? a sugar + a phosphate a base + a sugar a base + a phosphate a base + a sugar + phosphate
a base + a sugar
50
What is the composition of nucleotide? a sugar + a phosphate a base + a sugar a base + a phosphate a base + a sugar + phosphate
a base + a sugar + phosphate
51
Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by Phosphodiester bond Peptide bond Ionic bond Covalent bond
Phosphodiester bond
52
The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is Pentose Hexose Tetrose Triose
Pentose
53
Which of the following is true about phosphodiester linkage? 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
54
Which of the following is false about purine and pyrimidine bases? They are hydrophobic and relatively insoluble in water at the near-neutral pH of the cell At acidic or alkaline pH the bases become charged and their solubility in water increases Purines have two rings in their structure, but pyrimidine bases have only one ring At acidic or alkaline pH the bases become charged and their solubility in water decreases
At acidic or alkaline pH the bases become charged and their solubility in water decreases
55
Building blocks of nucleic acids are Nucleotides Nucleosides Amino acids Histones
Nucleotides
56
Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine? 1 2 3 4
2
57
Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine? 1 2 3 4
3
58
Which ratio is constant for DNA? A + G / T + C A + T / G + C A + C / U + G A + U / G + C
A + G / T + C
59
According to Chargaff’s rule, in a DNA molecule The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of thymine and cytosine The amount of adenine and uracil is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine The amount of adenine and guanine is equal to the amount of uracil and cytosine
The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to the amount of guanine and cytosine
60
Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen by Ultracentrifuge X-Ray crystallography Light microscope Electron microscope
X-Ray crystallography
61
Which of the following leads to disruption of nucleosomal structure? Acetylation Carboxylation Phosphorylation Methylation
Methylation
62
One of the following nucleic acids has a left handed helix M-RNA T-RNA A-DNA Z-DNA
Z-DNA
63
Which of the following statements is not true about RNA? Does not have a double stranded structure Thymine is present Does not obey Chargaff’s rule The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose
Thymine is present
64
Which of the following is true about Z-DNA helix? It has alternating GC sequences It is a permanent conformation of DNA It tends to be found at the 3’ end of the genes It has fewer base pairs per turn than B-DNA
It has alternating GC sequences
65
Which of the following statements is true? The template strand matches the sequence of the RNA transcript The two strands of DNA run parallel to each other G-C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A-T rich regions The common form of DNA is left handed
G-C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A-T rich regions
66
What happens in hypochromicity? When DNA is in bound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV light When DNA is in bound form, there is increase in absorption of UV light When DNA is in unbound form, it is more stable When DNA is in unbound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV light
When DNA is in bound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV light
67
What happens in hyperchromicity? When DNA is in bound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV light When DNA is in bound form, there is increase in absorption of UV light When DNA is in unbound form, it is more stable When DNA is in unbound form, there is increase in absorption of UV light
When DNA is in unbound form, there is increase in absorption of UV light
68
Which of the following is true about tm? It can be termed as renaturation temperature The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the higher the tm The higher the content of A = T base pairs, the higher the tm The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the lower the tm
The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the higher the tm
69
Which of the following is false? The stability of an RNA-DNA hybrid is generally intermediate between that of RNA and DNA RNA duplexes are more stable than DNA duplexes DNA duplexes are more stable than RNA duplexes DNA duplexes are less stable than RNA- DNA hybrid
DNA duplexes are more stable than RNA duplexes
70
DNA denaturation is measured by absorbance at 220nm 230nm 250nm 260nm
260nm
71
Which of the following is false about denaturation? Disruption of hydrogen bonds Disruption of phosphodiester linkage Loss of helical structure of DNA It is resulted as a result of change in pH or increase in temperature
Disruption of phosphodiester linkage
72
Which of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA? AMP GMP CMP TMP
TMP
73
Which of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA? AMP GMP CMP UMP
UMP
74
Which of the following is false? RNA does not obey Chargaff’s rule DNAs can be identified by Orcinol color reaction In RNA OH group is present at 2’ position Alkali hydrolyses RNA to 2’3’-cyclic diesters
DNAs can be identified by Orcinol color reaction
75
Which of the following involves in carrying genetic information from DNA for protein synthesis? m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA sn-RNA
m-RNA
76
Which of the following does not act as a restriction enzyme? EcorI BamHI HindIII polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase
polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase
77
Which of the following enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA? Reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase RNA polI RNA polII
Reverse transcriptase
78
Which of the following statements is true? Exonuclease III removes nucleotide residues from the 3’ ends of a DNA strand Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease removes terminal phosphates Alkaline phosphatase removes nucleotides from 5‘ends Kinase adds homopolymer tails to the 3’ –OH ends of a linear duplex
Exonuclease III removes nucleotide residues from the 3’ ends of a DNA strand
79
Which of the following can be termed as a restriction modification system? Restriction endonuclease + methylase DNA ligase + methylase Restriction endonuclease + acetylase DNA ligase + acetylase
a. Restriction endonuclease + methylase
80
Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases? Type I and II requires ATP to move along DNA Type I, II and III requires ATP to move along DNA Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence Type II requires ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence
Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence
81
Which of the following enzymes’ combined action leads to the generation of sticky ends in plasmid vector? Alkaline phosphatase and terminal transferase Exonuclease III and alkaline phosphatase Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease and terminal transferase Exonuclease III and terminal transferase
Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease and terminal | transferase
82
Generally a plasmid vector contains how many elements? 1 2 3 4
3
83
To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added? MgCl2 CaCl2 NaCl HCl
CaCl2
84
Which of the following statements is false? The cells which take up recombinant plasmids are drug resistant The cells with no recombinant plasmids are drug resistant Plasmid replication is independent of cell’s division The cells containing recombinant plasmid are called transformed cells
The cells which take up recombinant plasmids are drug resistant
85
The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule is generally termed as Chromosome Plasmid Genomic DNA Bacteriophage
Plasmid
86
E.cor1 is a DNA ligase enzyme Restriction endonuclease A vector used for insulin synthesis A plasmid used as a vector
Restriction endonuclease
87
In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is used? Cleaving DNA Recombining DNA Cloning Screening
Screening
88
A DNA library is a A DNA fragment inserted into a vector. A general collection of all genes sequenced thus far. All DNA fragments identified with a probe. A collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism.
A collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism.
89
Which of the following enzyme is required for end to end joining of DNA? DNA ligase Restriction endonuclease RNA polymerase DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
90
Repressor molecules bind to Operator Promoter Enhancer Hormone response element
Operator
91
Generally YAC contains how many elements? 1 2 3 4
4
92
Which of the following endonuclease removes a length of DNA between two telomere sequences? EcoR1 EcoR2 BamHI HindIII
BamHI
93
In hybridization method, which of the following is pressed onto agar? Silicon paper Nitrocellulose paper Filter paper PVDF
Nitrocellulose paper
94
Which of the following temperature best suits for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells? 35°C 36°C 37°C 30°C
37°C
95
Which of the following is a DNA element that instructs RNA polymerase where to bind on DNA? Operator Promoter Enhancer Hormone response element
Promoter
96
Site directed mutagenesis facilitated research on Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Fats
Proteins
97
Recombinant DNA molecule is produced by ligating Two DNA segments Two m-RNA molecules One m-RNA with one t-RNA One m-RNA with DNA segment
Two DNA segments
98
Arrange the following steps involved in Gene cloning in the correct order i. Isolation of desired gene ii. Insertion of isolated gene to the vector iii. Introduction of recombinant vector to the host iv. Expression of recombinant gene in host v. Extraction of recombinant gene product i, ii, iii, iv, v v, iv, iii, ii, i i, iii, ii, iv, v iv, v, ii, i, iii
i, ii, iii, iv, v
99
Where does a restriction endonuclease cuts DNA? Ligation site Recognition sequence Ori Replication site
Recognition sequence
100
Which of the following statements is true about a vector? Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors All vectors are plasmids Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors Fungi can also be used as vectors
Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors
101
Which of the following is true about plasmids? They are present in all organisms They are present in bacteria only They are present in bacteria and phages They are present in plants and animals
They are present in bacteria and phages
102
DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from E.coli only E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage Saccharomyces Retroviruses
E.coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage
103
The main aim of human genome project is To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body To introduce new genes to human beings To remove disease causing genes from humans To improve techniques of finger printing
To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body
104
The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing means Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with mRNA Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe
105
Agar is extracted from Fungi Bacteria Algae Virus
Algae
106
END
END