Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BEO160829 > BEO160829 Block 2 > Flashcards

BEO160829 Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ _____ is a potential or actual condition that can cause short or long term injury, illness, or death.

A

Health Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is threat combined with vulnerability.

A

Health Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ _____ _____ is the probability and severity of an adverse health effect to a given individual or population from exposure to the health threat.

A

Health Risk Estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ _____ _____ is the process of identifying, analyzing, or evaluating OEH threats in a group or at a location over time.

A

Health Risk Assessment (HRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the decision making process to evaluate and select a Course of Action (COA) to minimize OEH risks, and maximize benefits for operations and missions?

A

Health Risk Management (HRM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the process of effectively communicating potential health effects, outcomes, and control measures to all stakeholders?

A

Health Risk Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ _____ is the process of estimating or calculating potential exposure of a health threat for an individual or population at risk. This is collection of data.

A

Exposure Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ _____ is the estimate of the human _toxicologica_l impact of a specified material.

A

Toxicological Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What provides a systematic method to identify and choose the optimum course of action (COA) for any given situation?

A

Risk Managment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is key to the effectiveness of Risk Management?

A

Early education and training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the goal of Risk Management?

A

To enhance mission effectiveness at all levels while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name a beneficial outcome of Risk Management.

A

RM provides a logical process to identify and exploit opportunities that provide the greatest return on time, money, and personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk Management (RM) Framework

A

*Identify, Control, Document Hazards –> ICD opportunities

*Evaluate and minimize risk –> maximize gain.

*Prevent or mitigate losses –> optimize gain.

*Conserve personnel and resources

*Maximize combat capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk Management

A

* Enhance performance

* Maximize effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk Management Principles

A

* Accept no unnecessary risk

* Decisions are made at appropriate level

* Integrate RM into operations, activities, and planning at all levels

* Apply process cyclically and continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

6 Steps of the ORM Decision Making Process

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. Assess hazards
  3. Develop controls and make decisions
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise and Evaluate –> Visit your shops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Key RM Process Items To Remember

A

* Apply steps in sequence

* Maintain balance in the process

* Apply the process as a cycle

* Involve people fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the levels of Risk Management?

A
  1. Time critical
  2. Deliberate
  3. Strategic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Time Critical RM level

A

* figure it out now

* “on the run” mental or verbal review of the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Deliberate RM level

A

Application of the complete process.

No time constraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Strategic RM Level

A

Thorough hazard identification and risk assessment process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Identify Health Threats

A

*Determine whether a potential or existing exposure poses a health threat.

*Assess the vulnerability for each potential health risk identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Analyze Health Threats and Risks

A

* Determine the health impact

* Quantify exposures (DATA)

* Comparability to standard/substance specific standard.

* Health Risk Estimate (HRE)

* Recommend Control Options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What AFI outlines the Occupational and Environmental Health Site Assessment?

A

AFI 48-145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the OEHSA provide?

A

It focuses on the collection of site specific data to identify potential or actual exposure pathways during bed down, employ, and sustainment of Air and Space Forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the primary objectives of the OEHSA?

A

* Identify OEH threats or hazards and potential or adverse health effects and impacts.

* Collect and document OEH exposure data for LER

* Inform commanders of health threats and risk mitigation options through HRA

* Reduce or eleminate health risks and maximize operations.

* Mitigate encroachment on mission capability.

* Support health surveillance –> trend exposure data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The OEHSA process is a standardized OEH framework for:

A

* Developing sampling strategy

* Selecting montioring equipment

* Collecting samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the OEHSA Process Steps

A
  1. Pre-deployment and baseline activities - use of home station info, TIC, TIM, WVA, etc…
  2. Site ID and Sectoring
  3. Site reconnaissance
  4. Conceptual Site Model
  5. Routine and Specialized Assessment - collection of data through sampling.

SOURCE –> PATHWAY –> RECEIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the process of validating that the data and info collected during the previous steps remains true and unchanged?

A

ReAssessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_______ is any administrative, industrial, or inclusive living quarters environment where a potential OEH exposure may occur.

A

Workplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What defines a Similar Exposure Group (SEG)?

A

* Similarity and frequency of the tasks they perform

* Materials and processes with which they work

* Similarity of the way they perform the tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Similar Exposure Group (SEG) Groupings

A

* Processes - collection of tasks

* Job - repetitive vs non-repetitive

* Task - individual activity

* Hazard - exposure agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Types of hazards

A

* Chemical

* Physical

* Radiological

* Biological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chemical Hazards

A

* Solvents

* Adhesives

* Welding

* Paint overspray

* Diesel exhaust

* Asebestos

* Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Physical Hazards

A

* Noise

* Ergonomics

* Thermal Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Radiological Hazards

A

* Ionizing - carries enough energy to free electrons which can cause damage to living cells

* Non- Ionizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Biological Hazards

A

* Pathogens

* Engineered Agents

* Amplified agents / toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the purpose of a routine assessment?

A

* Update admin data

* Review previous assessment data

* Identify potential health hazards and associated risks.

* Categorize (or re-categorize) workplace

* Identify the need for, prioritize, and schedule in depth (special) assessments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How can commanders use OEH input from BE to aid in making risk management decisions?

A

* Identify OEH support requirements

* Identify potential OEH hazards related to processes/activities

* Assign a qualitative risk to each hazard

* Identification of health hazard or exposure that may require a design change or modification to an existing weapon system to eleminat/mitigate the hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do special assessments provide?

A

* Quantify potential exposures identified during the routine assessment

* Perform periodic control evaluations to maintain confidence in the effectiveness of established controls

* Evaluate unscheduled requests

* Provide follow up action on recommendations from OEHWG

* Sustain compliance with regs

* Provide commanders and affected individuals with a summary of the outcome of the assessment, future plans, and recommendations to reduce the hazard/risk to acceptable levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

OEH Process Assessment Steps

A
  1. Define scope of support and resources
  2. Basic characterization
  3. Health Risk Assessment (HRA)
  4. Compliance Assessment (garrison only)
  5. Exposure Assessment
  6. Communication
  7. Re-Evaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you “Define Scope of Support and Resources” ?

A

Identify organizations that require support by identifying and establishing industrial workplaces or shops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the basic characterization?

A

* Workplace visit

* Opening conference

* Basic workplace characterization assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is included in a basic workplace characterization assessment?

A

* Review existing data

* Identify applicable processes

* Associate actual/potential OEH hazards with processes

* Identify/evaluate controls designed to address each OEH hazard

* Establish one or more SEGs based on the processes and associated potential exposures

* Establish one or more PARS based on potential exposure pathways (environmental activities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the Health Risk Assessment (HRA) goals?

A

* Assess hazard exposure using confidence in existing controls and hazard characterization

* Determine operational health risk using severity and probability

* Identify OEH risk reduction strategies

* Prioritize assessment based on RM process

* Schedule/suspense special assessments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Processes

A

* Look at workers equipment, procedures, and control measures

* Do shop personnel have the correct controls? Are they using and maintaining them properly?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chemical Use

A

* How and why are workers using chemicals?

* How much chemical is used?

* Ask questions and look in lockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Physical/Biological Hazards

A

* Are there loud noise sources?

* Extreme temp enviroments?

* Any biological lockers in place?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Exposure Controls

A

* ID general and local exhaust vent systems

* Are workers using proper PPE?

* Inspect PPE - note model and condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

New OHE Risks

A

* Are there any new risks not previously identified?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Compliance

A

* Is shop in compliance with the HAZCOM Program?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Compliance Assessment

A

Review programs (ie. respiratory) for compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Exposure Assessment

A

* Acceptable - document and reassess in future

* Unacceptable - provide control recommendation

* Uncertain - gather additional data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is exposure assesment data stored?

A

DOEHRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What 4 factors are used to calculate the Exposure Assessment Priority (EAP) rating?

A

* Health Effects Rating (HER)

* Exposure Rating (ER)

* Confidence in Hazard and Exposure Characterization

* Confidence in Existing Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What 2 factors are used to calculate the Health Risk Rating (HRR)?

A

* Health Effects Rating (HER)

* Exposure Rating (ER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What 2 factors are used to calculate the Uncertainty Rating (UR)?

A

* Confidence in Hazard and Exposure Characterization

* Confidence in Existing Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What 4 items should be communicated after an OEH Process assessment?

A

* Review findings

* Recommendations

* Follow up action items

* Expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the documentation requirements after an OEH process assessment?

A

* Report generated within 60 days after initial contact.

* Cover Letter

* Summary of health risks to include a list of current processes which exceed action level or exposure pathways with unacceptable exposures

* Summary of Risk Assessment Codes (RAC) assigned to shop

* Recommendation and follow up items

* Direction to ensure report is available to all workers

* Attachments - controls linked to process, certified PPE list with proper use instructions and limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How often should a workplace categorization and assessment take place?

A

* For deployed locations, the combatant command air component surgeon establishes the schedule.

* BE flight commander consults with OEHWG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What assessent tools are available for assessing OEH risk managment?

A

* Routine assessments

* Special assessments

* Workplace categorization and assessment frequency

* Risk Assessment Codes (RACs)

* Standards/Substance specific standards

* Statistical analysis of exposure data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the purpose of the OEH RM Assessment?

A

Provides commanders and supervisors with the HRA info needed to make informed judgments and decisions about what to do about health risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Defining Controls

A

* Adjustment

* Regulation

* Reduction

* Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the hierarchy of controls?

A
  1. Engineering
  2. Administration
  3. PPE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What should be considered when recommending controls?

A

* Does controlling the health risk transfer the risk to another population or increase another health risk?

* Does accepting the health risk transfer the risk to another population or delay the effects in the exposed population?

* Does controlling the health risk also coincidentally reduce another risk?

* Do the control measures reduce the risk with the expected benefits?

* Are resources to control the risk available?

* Is implementation of the control measure timely and easy?

* Have other functional areas provided input on how the health threat and control options impact other operational threats and activities?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the concept of taking all of the information gathered during assessments and attempting to spot a pattern or relationship between associated factors or variables with the information.

A

Trend Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are two measures of central tendency?

A
  1. Arithmetic mean (“average”)
  2. Geometric mean
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

_______ _____ is determined by adding all values then dividing by the number of values. Is known as the “average”.

A

Arithmetic Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_____ _____ is appropriate for describing central tendency of data that is normally distributed. Best at describing data trends with values clustered together.

A

Geometric Mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

_____ _____ is a measure of how “spread out” or “closely grouped” data is.

A

Standard Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do you calculate the standard deviation of a data set?

A

Suppose you have four quiz scores: 1, 3, 5, and 7. The mean is 16 ÷ 4 = 4 points. Subtracting the mean from each number, you get (1 – 4) = –3, (3 – 4) = –1, (5 – 4) = +1, and (7 – 4) = +3. Squaring each of these results, you get 9, 1, 1, and 9. Adding these up, the sum is 20. In this example, n = 4, and therefore n – 1 = 3, so you divide 20 by 3 to get 6.67, which is the variance. The units here are “points squared,” which obviously makes no sense. Finally, you take the square root of 6.67, to get 2.58. The standard deviation for these four quiz scores is 2.58 points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many sample are required to perform trend analysis?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is required to perform basic summary statistics?

A

* Number of samples (n)

* Highest sample value (max)

* Lowest sample value (min)

* Range (max - min)

* Mean

* SD

* GM

* GSD

* % of samples above Occupational Environmental Exposure Limit (OEEL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who determines which statistical tool is used?

A

Flight Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

95th Percentile Exposure Concentration

A

An estimate of the value above which approximately 5% of the exposures are expected to occur. 95% of exposures are below that number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the AIHA Exposure Rating Categories?

A
  1. 95th percentile is greater than OEEL
  2. 95th percentile is greater than 50% of OEEL.
  3. 95th percentile is between 10% and 50% of the OEEL
  4. Little to no exceeding of 10% of OEEL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are other rating information sources?

A

* Air samples of the same process from another base

* Mathematical modeling

* USAFSAM survey or consultative reports.

* NIOSH health hazard evaluations

78
Q

What are other rating information sources?

A

* Air samples of the same process from another base

* Mathematical modeling

* USAFSAM survey or consultative reports.

* NIOSH health hazard evaluations

79
Q

What is used to evaluate occupational exposure data in order to draw correct conclusions about exposure levels?

A

Trend Analysis

80
Q

What is used to evaluate occupational exposure data in order to draw correct conclusions about exposure levels?

A

Trend Analysis

81
Q

What is the law of diminishing returns?

A

Adding more of one factor of production will at some point yield lower per-unit returns.

82
Q

What is used to evaluate occupational exposure data in order to draw conclusions about exposure levels?

A

Trend Analysis

83
Q

_________ is the study of the distribution and risk factors of llness and disease in specific populations.

A

Epidemiology

84
Q

Epidemiology attempts to prevent disease/adverse health outcomes by determining:

A
  1. Frequencies and patterns of diseases
  2. Possible cause of disease
  3. Modes of transmission (in infectious disease)
  4. Factors contributing to exposure and risk
85
Q

What are the Public Health (PH) Responsibilities which concern to the Epidemiology Program?

A
  1. A description of trends in OEH related illness (to include audiogram significant/permanent threshold.
  2. Abnormal medical surveillance exam results (based on a records review).
86
Q

What are the BE responsibilities in the Epidemiology Program?

A
  1. Assess and document OEH exposures in AF Safety Automated System (AFSAS) for potential OEH-related illinesses identified by Public Health (PH).
87
Q

As a member of OEHWG, what are the two responsibilites for the BE representative?

A
  1. Consultation on OEH exposures and work-place specific Occupational and Environmental Health Exposure Data (OEHED) to the working group.
  2. Concise summary of OEHED document to the OEHWG for each Similar Exposure Group (SEG) reviewed.
88
Q

_________ is the number of new cases of illness or disease in a specified population during a set time period.

A

Incidence

89
Q

of new cases during time period

divided by

Population at risk during time period

multiplied by

population multiplier

A

Incidence

90
Q

_____ is the number of individuals with an outcome (illness) over a specified period of time. Includes new AND existing cases.

A

Prevalence

91
Q

_____ prevalence is the number with outcome at a specified point in time.

A

Point

92
Q

_____ prevalence is the number with outcome during a specified time period.

A

Period

93
Q

How do you calculate prevalence?

A

Number of new and old cases

divided by

Total Population at risk

multiplied by population multiplier

94
Q

True or False:

Prevalence is proportional to the incidence rate multiplied by the duration of the disease.

A

TRUE

95
Q

_____ _____ is a longitudinal study that follows groups divided by exposure status (exposed/unexposed) and compares risk for an outcome between the groups.

A

Cohort Study

96
Q

What are the 2 objectives of the Prospective Cohort Study?

A
  1. Determine current exposure, observes occurrence of disease over time.
  2. To produce an estimate of the risk of disease among those exposed.
97
Q

What is the relative risk of the Prospective Cohort Study?

A

Ratio of the incidence of disease among exposed to that among unexposed.

98
Q

What is the objective of the Retrospective Cohort Study?

A

To determine current disease status, follow records backswards to determine exposure status.

99
Q

What is the objective of the Case Control Study?

A

Compare exposures between groups by disease status (disease / no disease).

100
Q

What is the Odds Ratio?

A

Ratio of the odds of getting disease when exposed versus the odds when unexposed.

101
Q

True or False:

If Odds Ratio (OR) is greater than 1.0, there may be an association between disease and exposure.

A

TRUE

102
Q

What is the objective of the Cross-Sectional Study?

A

To determine prevalence of an outcome in population at risk.

103
Q

_____ _____ _____is the ratio of odds of having the disease when exposed versus the odds when unexposed.

A

Prevalence Odds Ratio

104
Q

Name the three types of BIAS.

A
  1. Selection
  2. Information
  3. Confounding
105
Q

_____ Bias occurs when there is incorrect or a non-representative selection of study participants.

A

Selection

106
Q

_____ Bias occurs when there is measurement error from the assessment of disease and/or exposure.

A

Information

107
Q

_____ Bias occurs when two or more exposure factors are associated with the disease and with each other.

A

Confounding

108
Q

_____ _____ is:

* Discipline grounded in science and experience

* Gives individuals knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques

* Improves dialogue about OEH hazards

A

Risk Communication

109
Q

What is the purpose of Risk Communication?

A

Provide stakeholders (institution, group, individuals affected making decisions) with the information necessary to make informed judgements.

110
Q

What are the principles and best practices of Risk Communication?

A
  • Build trust and credibility
  • Be proactive
  • Risk communication objectives
  • Understand stakeholders
  • Create effective messages
  • Communicate complex technical info
  • Written risk communication
  • Two way communication
  • Counter mis-info and misperceptions
  • Answer difficult questions
  • Dealing with controversy
111
Q

What are 4 factors that contribute to perceptions of trust?

A
  • Empathy / Caring
  • Honesty
  • Commitment
  • Competence / Expertise
112
Q

How do you increase credibility?

A
  • Bottom line, up front (BLUF)
  • Organized and prepared
  • Appropriate language
113
Q

Name 5 factors that can harm credibility.

A
  • Ignore fears about health and safety risks
  • Disregard suggestions and concerns by stakeholders
  • Being defensive
  • Hiding Info
  • Not fulfilling commitments
114
Q

What are the 4 Risk Communication Objectives?

A
  1. Provide Info
  2. Gather Info
  3. Build trust and credibility
  4. Influence behavior
115
Q

Understanding Stakeholders (Internal and External)

A
  1. What are the issues?
  2. What is at stake?
  3. Who is affected by the problem/issue?
  4. Who is concerned?
  5. What do they care about and why?
  6. Whom do i need to involve and keep informed?
  7. WHat are the key points and topic areas I need to address?
116
Q

Name the tips for Effective Messages.

A
  • Be proactive
  • Obtain internal agreement on the message
  • Tailor language to stakeholders
  • Use simple and clear language
  • Avoid language that conveys to stakeholders that they have no control.
  • Avoid absolutes
117
Q

Tips for communicating complex, technical information.

A
  • Tone
  • Plain language
  • Big picture
  • Answering technical questions
  • Practice
  • Limit terms
  • Simplify numbers
  • Use common sense
  • Use graphs / illustrations
  • Be honest
118
Q

What are considerations for written Risk Communication?

A
  • Short and to the point
  • Explain how risks were estimated
  • Provide risk comparisons
  • Define actions / steps being taken
  • Clearly articulate - what was done and why; results and what they mean; actions / decisions required
119
Q

In two way communication, as the receiver, what must you learn from the sender?

A
  • Learn important info about stakeholder concerns
  • Learn how risks are perceived
  • Learn local factors
  • Learn preferred method of communication
120
Q

How do you counter misinformation / misperceptions?

A
  • Refute misinformation in a few words
  • Do not repeat misinformation
  • Do not use words or phrases with negative association
  • Do not be confrontational
  • Be proactive
121
Q

Tips for dealing with controversy include:

A

* Communicate

* Listen

* Remain calm and professional

* Focus on building trust

122
Q

When dealing with controversy, you should never:

A
  • Raise negatives or repeat negative language
  • Speculate or respond to “what ifs”
  • Say “no comment”
  • Let people put words in your mouth
  • Get angry or emotional
123
Q

HAZCOM

A

Right to Know / Right to Understand

124
Q

_____ _____ is the communication of information to employees concerning the hazards of chemicals to which they are exposed under normal conditions of use or in a foreseeable emergency and the appropriate protective measures.

A

HAZCOM Program

125
Q

What are the 5 Federal HAZCOM standards?

A
  1. Evaluate the hazards of all chemicals
  2. Prepare written HAZCOM program
  3. Label containers
  4. Provide SDSs
  5. Train employees
126
Q

Which code of federal regulations (CFR) outlines the components of the HAZCOM program?

A

29 CFR 1910.1200

127
Q

29 CFR 1910.1200 requires employers to develop / implement / maintain a written program with the following requirements:

A
  • Container labeling
  • Forms of warning
  • SDSs
  • Employee info / training requirements
  • Haz chemical listing
  • Non-routine tasks and their hazards
128
Q

True or False:

The Fed HAZCOM standard covers:

* all industries and sizes of facilities under OSHA jurisdiction;

* has primacy over state program

A

TRUE

129
Q

In the AF, who has primary responsibility of the HAZCOM program?

A

Work Area Supervisor

130
Q

In the AF, who is responsible for the overall effectiveness of the HAZCOM program?

A

BEE

131
Q

What is the purpose of the AF HAZCOM Program?

A

Minimization of incidents involving chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the workplace.

132
Q

Who does the AF HAZCOM Program cover?

A

ALL employees that work in an environment where chemicals are known to be present and there is potential for exposure. They are provided info about hazardous chemicals.

133
Q

Employers must develop / implement / maintain a written HAZCOM program that describes these 4 items:

A
  1. SDSs
  2. Labels and other forms of warning
  3. AF Form 3952
  4. BE Shop survey letters
134
Q

What are 4 exempt materials that do not fall under AF HAZCOM Program guidance?

A
  1. Hazardous wastes regulated under Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
  2. Hazardous substances subject to a remedial action or removal action under Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)
  3. Drugs in final form
  4. Consumer products in normal use
135
Q

Name the 6 items that must be included with the installation specific HAZCOM Program.

A
  1. How to access SDSs
  2. Container labeling procedures and requirements
  3. Training requirements and procedures
  4. Chemical inventory requirements
  5. Procedures for informing employees regarding hazards of non-routine tasks and unlabeled pipes.
  6. Procedures for determining the hazard of a chemical
136
Q

What info is required on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

A
  • Physical and chemical properties
  • Physical and Health hazards
  • Routes of exposure
  • Precautions for safe handling and use
  • Emergency and First Aid procedures
  • Control measures
137
Q

Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) must be:

A
  • Immediately accessible
  • Be present for every item on the shop specific hazardous chemical inventory
  • Match the material on hand
  • Obtained from: Manufacturer/Supplier, Installation/Unit HAZMAT Tracking Activity, ESOH-MIS
138
Q

The work area/shop supervisor is responsible for ensuring ALL workers are proper trained on the chemical hazards in their work area/shop to include:

A
  • HAZCOM Training
  • Inititial Training
  • Supplemental Training
  • Documentation of Training
    • Determining effectiveness of HAZCOM training
139
Q

What are the BE HAZCOM Program responsibilities?

A
  • Technical guidance
  • Develop written HAZCOM guidance
  • Assist commanders and supervisors
  • Approval authority for AF Form 3952
140
Q

What are the Hazardous Chemical Inventory requirements?

A
  • HAZCOM program document for work area/shop must contain a list of ALL known hazardous chemical present.
  • The SDS identity MUST be cross referenced to the inventory
141
Q

What does the OSHA standard for Chemical Hygiene Plans include?

A
142
Q

What does the OSHA standard for Chemical Hygiene Plans EXPLICITLY exlude?

A
143
Q

What is a Chemical Hygiene Plan?

A
144
Q

What are the 8 Lab Safety and Health Program elements of a Chemical Hygiene Plan?

A
  • Written Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
  • SOPs
  • Chemical Hygiene Officer (CHO)
  • Lab hoods and PPE
  • Employee info and training
  • Hazard ID through labels and SDSs
  • Employee exposure determinations
  • Medical consultation / examination
145
Q

What are the unit commanders Chemical Hygiene Program responsibilities?

A
  • Ultimate responsibility for the CHP in the unit
  • Must appoint a chemical hygiene officer
146
Q

What are the Chemical Hygiene Officer’s (CHO) responsibilities?

A
  • Develop, implement, and maintan the CHP
  • Coordinate the protective measures with the BE
  • Monitor procurement, use, and disposal of chemicals
  • Routinely audit and document compliance with the CHP
  • Report the status of chemical hygiene compliance to the lab supervisor
  • Annually review / evaluate the CHP
147
Q

What is the laboratory supervisors CHP responsibilities?

A
  • Maintain hazmat inventory
  • Ensure employees know and follow procedures
  • Maintain protect equipment
  • Routinely inspect chemical hygiene procedures and emergency equipment
  • Ensure emergency training is adequate
  • Provide workers with info and training to ensure they are aware of chemical hazards
148
Q

What are the BE Chemical Hygiene Plan responsibilities?

A
  • Principle advisor and contact
  • Resolve questions regarding definition of laboratory
  • Coordinate on the written CHP and any changes
  • Assist CHO in determining methods to detect releases
  • Recommend control measures
  • Inform CHO of changes in lab requirements
  • Evaluate potential chemical hazards
  • Conduct worker exposure determinations
  • Inform workers of monitoring results within 15 days
149
Q

What is included on Safety Data Sheets (SDSs)?

A
  • Identification
  • Hazard ID
  • Composition/Ingredients
  • First Aid measures
  • Firefighting measures
  • Accidental release measures
  • Handling and storage
  • Exposure controls
  • PPE
  • Physical properties
  • Chemical properties
  • Stability and reactivity
  • Toxicological Info
  • Ecological info
  • Disposal considerations
  • Transport info
  • Regulatory info
  • Misc info
150
Q

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) requires SDSs available to:

A
  • Fire Departments
  • Emergency planning officials
151
Q

What is the central repository for SDSs?

A

The Hazardous Material Information Resource System (HMIRS)

152
Q

OSHA require that inventories communicate:

A
  • Specific Hazards
  • Protective equipment
  • Storage and disposal info
  • Any important info for incident response
153
Q

What is the Hazard Elimination Hierarchy?

A
  1. Engineering
  2. Administrative
  3. PPE
154
Q

Engineering Controls seek to eliminate/reduce/mitigate hazards by:

A
  • Substitution
  • Minimize exposure
  • Isolation or enclosure
  • Ventilation
155
Q

If engineering controls are unsuccessful in hazard abatement, administrative controls are implemented in the following methods:

A
  • Adjustment of work schedules
  • Housekeeping
  • Best work practices
  • Training
156
Q

What are the Risk Assessment Code (RAC) categories?

A
  1. Imminent
  2. Serious
  3. Moderate
  4. Minor
  5. Negligible
157
Q

Name the 2 Hazard Abatement forms.

A
  • AF form 1118 - to be posted in the workplace no later than the end of the next duty day after ID of the hazard.
  • AF form 3 - Used when an identified RAC 1,2,3 or hazard requiring more than 30 calendar days to abate.
158
Q

What is the Abatement Priority Number (APN)? What is used to calculate the APN?

A
  1. The RAC
  2. Cost Effectiveness Index (CEI)
159
Q

What does the Cost Effectiveness Index (CEI) measure?

A

Measures cost effectiveness of a hazard abatement project and represents a ratio of the project cost and its potential effectiveness.

160
Q

What are the 3 HAZMAT Management Process (HMMP) Programs?

A
  1. Installation HAZMAT Management Program (IHMP)
  2. Weapon System HAZMAT Program (WSHP)
  3. Ozone Depleting Substances Management Program (ODSP)
161
Q

What are the 4 Installation HAZMAT Management Process (IHMP) elements?

A
  1. HAZMART
  2. HAZMAT Tracking System
  3. Determination and Authorization
  4. Data Quality Management
162
Q

Name the Chemical / Hazardous Material Request Authorization AF Form.

A

AF Form 3952

163
Q

What is the AF Form 3952 used for?

A
  • 1st time use of a HAZMAT in a work area
  • Renewal of an expiring AF form 3952 authorization
  • Submission of revisions to existing AF Form 3952 due to changes
  • For use of the HAZMAT in a different process than originally identified.
164
Q

Which offices authorize an AF Form 3952?

A
  • CE
  • SE
  • BE
165
Q

What is BE’s responsibility when reviewing an AF Form 3952?

A
  • Review for accuracy
  • Parts I and II
  • Initial requests
  • Renewal / Change requests
166
Q

What potential hazards must be identified when reviewing work order requests?

A
  • Chemical hazards
  • Biological hazards
  • Physical hazards
  • Radiological hazards
167
Q

Who are the key partners in the review of construction projects?

A
  • CE Operations Flight
  • CE Customer Service
  • CE Flight
  • Construction Inspector / QA Evaluator
168
Q

What are the two forms used for construction projects?

A
  1. AF Form 332 - initiates all work
  2. DD Form 1391 - used to request and justify construction need
169
Q

What are the expectations when reviewing a construction plan?

A
  • Thorough and critical review
  • Develop conceptual model
  • Integrate logic, experience, and facts about the process
  • Identify potential risks
  • Examine potential control solutions
  • Communicate recommendations
170
Q

What is BE responsible for reviewing on the construction plan sheets?

A
  • Summary sheets
  • Heating, ventilation, and AC
  • Plumbing
  • Project specific items
171
Q

Who are the key players when investigating an OSHA recordable incident?

A
  • Health care provider
  • Public Health (PH)
  • BioEnvironmental Engineering (BE)
  • Installation Occupational Environmental Medicine Consultant (IOEMC)
172
Q

What is the process for the exposure assessment?

A
  • Worker interviews
  • Workplace visit
  • Workplace observations
  • Health Risk Assessments (HRA)
173
Q

Process evaluation during the exposure assessment

A

Review the following items

  • Equipment
  • Processes
  • Controls
174
Q

Chemical evaluation during exposure assessment investigations.

A
  • How and why are workers using chemicals?
  • How much chemical is being used?
175
Q

Physical and Biological evaluation during exposure assessment investigation.

A
  • Any noise, ergo, thermal hazards?
  • Any biological hazards?
176
Q

What are key considerations when evaluating the controls during an exposure assessment investigation?

A
  • Were workplace controls needed?
  • If controls are needed, are they available?
  • If available, were they in serviceable condition?
  • If serviceable, were they used properly?
  • If used properly, did controls adequately control hazard?
177
Q

What type of documentation is required for an exposure assessment?

A
  • Public Health (PH) forwards the occupational illness info to the OSHA 300 log via AFSAS.
  • AF Form 190 - Occupational Illness / Injury Report - filed in the individuals med record –> LER
178
Q

Who must review a Pregnancy Profile?

A
  • Public Health (PH)
  • BioEnvironmental Engineering (BE)
  • Healthcare Provider (HCP)
  • Installation Occupational Environmental Medicine Consultant (IOEMC)
179
Q

Which form is required for duty restriction recommendations as a result of a pregnancy?

A

AF Form 469

180
Q

The AF Form 469 must be filled out for duty restriction recommendations to include:

A
  • Specific tasks not to be performed
  • Contaminated areas that increase exposure risk
  • Hours to be worked in a week
  • Number of specific hours per day or shift the member can work
  • Is the member restricted to a specific shift?
181
Q

What 4 areas must be evaluated to determine if work place hazards exist for pregnant members?

A
  • Evaluation of hazards
  • Verify job description
  • Review workplace data
  • Compare to applicable standards
182
Q

What are 3 agents of concern for pregnant members?

A
  • Teratogens - chemical, biological, or physical agents can lead to malformation
  • Mutagens - chemical or physical agents which can change cell DNA
  • Carcinogen - chemical or physical agent capable of causing cancer
183
Q

What are 4 potential effects of exposure of hazards in the workplace to pregnant members?

A
  1. Birth defects
  2. Low birth weight
  3. Spontaneous abortion
  4. Functional defects
184
Q

When performing a pregnant worker evaluation of workplace risks, what are three areas of emphasis?

A
  1. PPE
  2. Documentation
  3. Observations
185
Q

Who are the 6 key members of the Confined Space Program (CSP)?

A
  1. CSPT
  2. Functional Manager
  3. Entry Supervisor
  4. Confined Space Entrants
  5. Attendants
  6. Emergency Personnel
186
Q

What are the duties/responsibilities of BE within the Confined Space Program (CSP)?

A
  • Provide local training on the use, calibration, and care of atmospheric testing and monitoring equipment
  • Certify organizational personnel to test confined spaces
  • Train on confined space duties
  • Document location of each confined space in DOEHRS
  • Review and approve non-entry permits not in MEP
  • Evaluate worker exposure to hazardous chemicals
  • Evaluate confined spaces for hazardous atmospheres and IDLH conditions
  • Assist in selection of PPE (respitory protection, etc…)
187
Q

What 3 criteria must be met for an area to be defined as a confined space?

A
  1. Large enough and configured for a worker to bodily enter and perform assigned work
  2. Limited or restricted means for entry or exit
  3. Not designed for continuous occupancy
188
Q

What is a non-permit confined space?

A

Does not contain or have potential to contain any hazard capable of causing death or serious physical harm.

Examples include: Aircraft dry bays, facility crawl spaces, communication manholes, barriers, Aircraft wheel wells.

189
Q

Name the 4 characteristics which if identified will result in an area being permitted as a confined space.

A
  1. IDLH atmosphere present or potential for development of a hazardous atmosphere.
  2. Oxygen content is less than 19.5% or greater than 23.5%
  3. Atmospheric testing results are >10% of LEL
  4. Any chemical in the atmosphere capable of adverse effects and death
190
Q

What 3 questions must be answered when testing the atmosphere of a confined space?

A
  1. Is the atmosphere acceptable?
  2. Is it still acceptable while a worker is in the confined space?
  3. Does the worker require evaluation for their exposure to air contaminants?

BEO160829 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions