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BEO 160829 CHEM Flashcards

1
Q

__ CFR ____.____, is the Hazard Communication guidance - chemical is hazardous if it can cause a physical or health hazard.

A

29 CFR 1910.1200

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2
Q

_____ is the study of adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms.

A

Toxicology

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3
Q

The 4 chemical phases of toxic materials are:

A
  1. Gas - NTP (1 atm, 25C)
  2. Liquid
  3. Vapor - solid/liquid at NTP, VP drives some to air.
  4. Solids
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4
Q

What are the three types of solid / fibers that hazardous chemicals can be?

A
  1. Fibers
  2. Dust
  3. Fumes
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5
Q

What are three types of “aerosols” that hazardous chemicals can be?

A
  1. Smoke
  2. Mist
  3. Fog
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6
Q

Any particle with an aspect ratio >3 is a _____.

A

Fiber

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7
Q

Any particles airborne by mechanical action are known as _____.

A

Dust

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8
Q

Solids that are vaporized then condense and solidify are known as _____.

A

Fumes

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9
Q

______ are solid particulates formed by incomplete combustion.

A

Smoke

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10
Q

Liquid droplets formed by mechanical action are known as _____.

A

Mist

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11
Q

_____ is liquid droplets formed by condensation.

A

Fog

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12
Q

_____ are sometimes referred to as corrosives.

A

Acids - pH 6 to 0

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13
Q

_____ are sometimes referred to as caustics.

A

Bases - pH 8 to 14

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14
Q

A chemical is known as _____ if it causes injury or death.

A

Toxic

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15
Q

A chemical is considered to be ______ if it ignites at >199.4 F.

A

Flammable

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16
Q

A substance is considered to be _____ if it promotes or initiates combustion.

A

Oxidizer / Reactive

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17
Q

_____ _____ is a gas that is pressurized in a container.

A

Compressed Gas

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18
Q

An _____ chemical explodes when heated, shocked, or pressurized.

A

Explosive

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19
Q

A _____ chemical will emit ionizing radiation.

A

Radioactive

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20
Q

A _____ is a chemical / substance that causes cancer.

A

Carcinogen

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21
Q

A _____ _____ is a potential or actual condition that can cause short or long term injury, illness, or death to personnel.

A

health threat

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22
Q

_____ _____ attack the nervous system by inhibiting acetylcholineterase (AChE). Symptoms include miosis, rhinorrhea, salivation, seizures, death.

A

Nerve Agents

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23
Q

_____ _____ destroy cell tissues and will have the following symptoms: skin/eye irritation, blisters.

A

Blister Agents

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24
Q

_____ _____ disrupt oxygen carrying capacity of blood. (They are known as cyanogens).

A

Blood Agents

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25
Q

_____ _____ attack the lung tissue and cause edema. Most known is PHOSGENE.

A

Pulmonary Agents

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26
Q

The most important and the route of entry of most concern for airborne chemicals is _____.

A

Inhalation

* closely associated with the circulatory system so contaminants are transported quickly into the blood stream.

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27
Q

What are the 5 routes of entry for chemicals into the body?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Absorption
  3. Contact
  4. Ingestion
  5. Injection
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28
Q

_____ results from contact with a chemical that penetrates skin into the blood stream.

A

Absorption

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29
Q

_____ results when a chemical contacts the skin and directly damaging the skin. The most common result is dermititis.

A

Contact

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30
Q

_____ is eating or drinking a chemical, usually accidentally, and can occur when personnel do not wash hands.

A

Ingestion

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31
Q

_____ occurs when the skin is punctured by an object or pressurized air and chemicals enter the body.

A

Injection

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32
Q

_____ _____ occur when two different chemicals affect the same target organ.

A

Additive Effect

2+2 = 4

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33
Q

_____ _____ occurs when two different chemicals have a combined effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.

A

Synergistic Effect

2 + 2 = 20

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34
Q

_____ occurs when one chemical that does not have a specific toxicity increases the toxicity of another chemical.

A

Potentiation

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35
Q

_____ occurs when components have a combined effect that’s less than the sum of their individual effects.

A

Antagonism

4 + 6 = 8

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36
Q

The degree of chemical hazard risk depends on _____ and _____ _____.

A

Concentration and Exposure Time

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37
Q

_____ _____ is short term exposure which can result in mild to extreme effects.

A

Acute Exposure

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38
Q

_____ _____ is long term exposure which may result in chronic effects ( cancer, etc…).

A

Chronic Exposure

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39
Q

_____ _____ are the most effective hazard control method since it can control the source and be integrated into the design.

A

Engineering Controls

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40
Q

What are 3 types of engineering controls when dealing with chem hazards?

A
  1. Substitution - replace with less hazardous chem
  2. Minimization - scale down process
  3. Ventilation - remove or dilute
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41
Q

What are 4 examples of admin controls?

A
  1. Job rotation
  2. Ed and Training
  3. Preventative Maintenance
  4. Med Surveillance
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42
Q

When selecting clothing as PPE, what 4 factors must be considered?

A
  1. Permeation
  2. Penetration
  3. Degradation
  4. Breakthrough Time
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43
Q

A _____ _____ is established when the sampling results exceed the allowable limit.

A

Regulated Area

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44
Q

What are some substances that require regulated areas per 29 CFR 1101?

A

* Asbestos (1101)

* Cadmium (1027)

* Benzene (1028)

* Formaldehyde (1048)

* Methylene Chloride (1052)

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45
Q

The _____ _____ _____ are our primary source of information regarding chemicals.

A

Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

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46
Q

The _____-_____ is the base chemical inventory list custodian system.

A

ESOH-MIS

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47
Q

How do we identify CBRN Hazards?

A

* Interviews

* Research

* Historical Data

* Observations

* Agencies - OSI, FBI

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48
Q

How do we eliminate transfer of contaminants from one area to another?

A

* Housekeeping

* Personal Hygiene

* Change out of work clothes

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49
Q

What are three health effects of asbestos exposure?

A
  1. Asbestosis
  2. Lung Cancer
  3. Mesothelioma
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50
Q

_____ is non-cancer, irritates the lungs, causes scarring of lung tissue, and has no effective treatment.

A

Asbestosis

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51
Q

_____ _____ is caused by continued, chronic exposure and is the most common cause of death.

A

Lung Cancer

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52
Q

_____ is a rare form of cancer resulting from the inhalation of fibers and affects the lining of the lung.

A

Mesothelioma

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53
Q

_____ _____ _____ is defined as being greater than 1% by weight of asbestos.

A

Asbestos Containing Material

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54
Q

_____ _____ can be crushed by the hand and is the greatest threat/hazard because it can send the asbestos into the atmosphere.

A

Friable Asbestos

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55
Q

_____ _____ can only be particle size reduced by mechanical processes and therefore is a low risk if un-disturbed.

A

Non-Friable Asbestos

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56
Q

What are 3 asbestos abatement options?

A
  1. Removal
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Repair
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57
Q

_____ _____ _____ covers all industries except construction and shipyard work.

A

General Industry Standard

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58
Q

_____ _____ covers all construction industry under 29 CFR 1926.1101

A

Construction Standard

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59
Q

When must notifications for postive asbestos detections be provided?

A

* OSHA - ASAP

* Construction - 5 working days

* General Industry - 15 working days

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60
Q

_____ _____ must be established wherever airborne concentrations of asbestos are in excess of the TWA and/or excursion limit

A

Regulated Areas

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61
Q

What must asbestos warning signs display?

A
  1. Danger - Asbestos
  2. PPE requirements
  3. Cancer and Lung Disease Hazard
  4. Authorized Personnel Only
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62
Q

What are controls that are acceptable for asbestos work areas?

A

* Local Exhaust Systems - ANSI Z9.2-1979

* Use a wet method during work

* Respirators and protective clothing

* Must have means for showering/cleaning self

* Workplace specific training

* All controls must be in writing

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63
Q

Where are the highest Pb exposure levels?

A

Children - inhalation and ingestion

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64
Q

__ CFR Part ____ bans the use of lead containing paint. 0.06% to total weight of non-VOC paint.

A

16 CFR Part 1303

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65
Q

__ CFR _____.____ OSHA Standard , Lead.

A

29 CFR 1910.1025

66
Q

__ CFR _____._____ Safety and Health regulations for construction, Lead

A

29 CFR 1926.62

67
Q

The _____ and _____ _____sets the action level for Pb at 0.015 mg/ml and Cu at 1.3 mg/L.

A

Lead and Copper Rule

68
Q

_____ _____ are warning signs that system requires changes and triggers further investigation / surviellance.

A

Action Levels

69
Q

_____ _____ increases the risk of lung cancer.

A

Radon Exposure

70
Q

_____ _____ is the second leading cause of lung cancer. When combined with cig smoking, there is a synergistic effect.

A

Radon Exposure

71
Q

According to the EPA and AFI 48-148, when should structures be mitigated?

A

Structures should be mitigated if average levels in the structure are above 4pCi/L

72
Q

All forms of _____ _____ are a carcinogen capable of causing lung cancer via inhalation.

A

Hexavalent Chromium

73
Q

What are the exposure limits for Hex Chromium?

A

* OSHA = 0.005 mg/m3 for 8/hr TWA

* Must attempt to keep below 0.025 mg/m3 for paint / prime

74
Q

What sampling methodology is recommended for hex chrom by the lab?

A

NIOSH Method 7605 - Hex Chrom

75
Q

What sampling methodology is recommended for strontium chromate?

A

NIOSH Method 7605 - partition

76
Q

Beryllium is found in aircraft parts and can be released to the atmosphere via:

A

* Grinding

* Welding

* Maching processes

77
Q

Name 4 health effects of exposure to beryllium.

A
  1. Beryllium Disease
  2. Anorexia / Weight Loss
  3. Heart Disease
  4. Sensitizer
78
Q

What are the exposure limits for Berylium?

A

OSHA Pel = 2 ug/m3 (totals)

USAF AL = 0.2 ug / m3 (totals)

ACGIH = 0.05 ug/m3 (inhalable only)

79
Q

What sampling methodology is used for Beryllium?

A

NIOSH 7300 (totals)

80
Q

What are the two samplers?

A
  1. SKC Inhalable
  2. Button Inhalable
81
Q

What are the 6 air sampling types?

A
  1. Grab
  2. Integrated
  3. Personal
  4. Area
  5. Active
  6. Passive
82
Q

_____ sampling occurs at a specifc moment.

83
Q

_____ sampling occurs over a period of time and then averaged. Used to compare TLUs, PELs, ALs

A

Integrated

84
Q

_____ sampling is the preferred method to evaluate worker exposures and to determine compliance. Data is compared against standards.

85
Q

_____ sampling is used to evaluate background concentration.

86
Q

_____ sampling employs a mechanical device and requires a relatively constant source of suction.

87
Q

_____ sampling relies on ambient air flow, is cheaper, easier, uses a badge, but not useable for high flow methods.

88
Q

Name some direct reading instruments and their purpose?

A

* Multi-gas meter - LEL, O2, CO, CO2, VOCs generally

* IAQ Meter - CO2, Temp, O2, Particulates, Humidity

* Mercury Vapor Monitor

* Colorimetric Tubes/badges -

* PID/FID - Photoionization/Flame

* Ionization - Organics, some inorganics.

* Spectrophotometer - Absorbs light. Organics/inorganics

* GC/MS - HAPSITE.

* Ion Mobility Spectrometer - Detection of toxic gases in combat.

* Particulate monitors - Monitor particulates

89
Q

Name some indirect sampling devices.

A

– Indirect requires sending off of the sample for analysis

– Air sampling pumps - can have different levels of air-flow.

* Low flow - 0.5 - 500 ml/min

* High Flow - 0.5 - 5 L/min

* Heavy Duty high-flow - 3-30 L/min. Area sampling

* XMX - Bio-aerosols Passive monitors

90
Q

When using charcoal tubes as a sampling media, what must you be aware of?

A

Break through - must have less than 10% between front and back.

91
Q

How do we determine the raw concentration for a sample?

A

If the TWA is above the OEL, no need for an UCL.

If, UCL<1, then 95% confident no overexposure

If LCL<1 and UCL>1, then unsure, may be overexposure

If LCL>1, then 95% confident overexposure Calculated by taking the SAE in conjunction with the standardized concentration.

92
Q

_____ is a parasite that is spread via cat fecies to pregnant women.

A

Toxoplasmosis

93
Q

_____ are one celled microbes, prokaryotes (lack nucleus) and are spherical, rod, or spiral shaped.

94
Q

_____ are single or multicellular, live in or on a host, take nutrients but do not give benefits.

95
Q

_____ do not generate their own food source. Examples are mushrooms or mold.

96
Q

_____ are proteinaceous infectious particles that lack nucleic acids.

97
Q

_____ are eubacteria, nonmotile, non spore-forming and live in ticks or mites.

A

Rickettsia

98
Q

_____ are mostly generic material and can not reproduced without a cell. Examples are influenza, small pox, and hepatitis.

99
Q

_____ are chemical substances made by biological agents and do not require an incubation period. Examples are botox, ricin.

100
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Pathogen–>

Resevoir–>

Escape–>

Transmission–>

Entry–>

Host

101
Q

What are the 4 routes of entry for BIO health threats?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Absorption via dermal contact
  3. Ingestion
  4. Injection
102
Q

What is the most common work place route of entry for BIO health threats?

A

Absorption through dermal contact

103
Q

What are the three transmission methods of BIO health threats?

A
  1. Contact
  2. Vector Borne (living organism)
  3. Airborne
104
Q

What are the two types of contact transmission methods?

A
  1. Direct - person to person
  2. Indirect - contaminated object acts as intermediate (fomite)
105
Q

What are the 3 categories of BIO warfare agents?

A
  1. Cat A
  2. Cat B
  3. Cat C
106
Q

_____ _____ are BIO warfare agents that are easily spread or transmitted, have high death rates, and examples are smallpox, anthrax, plague, and botulism.

A

Category A

107
Q

_____ _____ are BIO warfare agents that are moderately easy to spread, cause moderate illnesses, low death rates. They are the most important category

A

Category B

108
Q

_____ is how easily or quickly bio agents are spread.

A

Contagiousness / Infectivity

109
Q

The _____ _____ is the time between exposure and onset of symptoms.

A

Incubation Period

110
Q

_____ _____ is the time when a pathogen can be transmitted from person to person.

A

Communicability Period

111
Q

_____ ______ is the number of agents required to cause infection in a normal host.

A

Infectious Dose

112
Q

_____ is determined by potency, particle size, and exposure routes.

113
Q

_____ dictates the number of casualties.

114
Q

_____ _____ of 1 to 5 microns can reach alveoli and can do the most harm.

A

Particle Size

115
Q

Most pathogens are more harmful if they are ______.

116
Q

The _____ _____ impacts pathogen survival and dispersion.

A

Release Mechanism

117
Q

What are 6 environmental factors which impact bio hazard dispersal?

A
  1. Wind speed and direction
  2. Atmospheric stability, layering and mixing
  3. Terrain
  4. Rate of biological decay
  5. Rates of decay in soil, water, and on surfaces
  6. Time of day - dusk/dawn are ideal
118
Q

The US Army Medical Research Institute for Infectious Diseases (USAMRIID) has created a “blue book” for the ______ _____ __ _____ _____ ______.

A

Medical management of Biological Casualties Handbook

119
Q

What are the 2 impacts of BIO health threats?

A
  1. Psychological effects
  2. Physiological Responses
120
Q

_____ ______ is the loss of confidence in protective gear and counter measures.

A

Psychological Effects

121
Q

_____ _____ vary based on exposures, duration, dose, incubation period, and agent type.

A

Physiological Response

122
Q

What are some workplace engineering controls for bio hazards?

A
  • Sharps disposal containers
  • Pressurized vent systems
  • Bio safety cabinets
123
Q

BIO hazard engineering controls should target?

A

the source and/or resevoir

124
Q

Workplace admin controls seek to control the transmission of the agent through:

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • Sanitation
  • Food and Water sanitation
  • Safe work practices
125
Q

What respiratory PPE is required in a healthcare setting?

A

N95 or higher filtration

126
Q

What are examples of workplace BIO hazard PPE?

A
  • Gloves
  • Aprons
  • Lab coats
  • Gowns
  • Shoe covers
  • Face shields
  • Goggles
  • Glasses with side shields
  • Respiratory protection
127
Q

The ____ _____ _____ is usually a designated room in a workplace and used for chem and/or bio attacks.

A

Shelter In Place

128
Q

The _____ _____ _____ is specifically designed for rest/relief from exposure, especially in deployed environments.

A

Collective Protection System

129
Q

_____ is administered prior to a BIO attack to build up immunity before, during and after an attack.

A

Immunoprophylaxis

130
Q

_____ is provided post exposure to mitigate the affects of a BIO agent.

A

Chemoprophylaxis

131
Q

_____ occurs to patient zero, the first know case and/or carrier of a know BIO agent.

132
Q

_____ is for individuals who may be exposed but symptoms are not yet present.

A

Quarantine

133
Q

_____ _____ _____ is used to limit the transmission by reducing movement to other areas.

A

Restriction of Movement

134
Q

Drinking water filiters, air filters, wash areas are all examples of _____ decontamination.

A

Mechanical

135
Q

Disinfectants are common controls for _____ decontamination.

136
Q

_____ decontamination uses heat, UV light, radiation, pastuerization, steam and autoclaves.

137
Q

Level _____ suits are used for unknown BIO/CHEM hazards.

138
Q

Level ___ suits have the SCBA tank on the outside and are used for BIOagents.

139
Q

In the deployed environment, MOP gear is used for normal, everyday use and includes:

A
  • Mask
  • JSLIST Suit
  • Gloves
  • Boots
140
Q

29 CFR ____.____, Hazard Communication, identifies any chemical as hazardous if it can cause physical or health hazards.

A

29 CFR 1900.1200

141
Q

In the absence of info when determining total exposure health risks as a result of two or more chemicals, you should assume that the effect will be ______, and they will target the same organ.

142
Q

The compliance factor calculation is performed when 2 chemicals target the _____ _____ ______.

A

Same Target Organ

143
Q

What is the pathway for a chemical when permeation occurs to protective clothing?

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Diffusion
  3. Desorption
144
Q

_____ is the change in one or more physical properties of a protective material caused by contact with the chemical.

A

Degradation

145
Q

____ _____ is the time elapsed from initial contact on the outside surface until detection on the inside surface.

A

Break Through

146
Q

The _____ ______ of a chemical, if detected, provides an excellent warning that it is hazardous.

A

Odor Threshold

147
Q

When identifying CBRN hazards, what intelligence agencies should be consulted for info?

A
  • OSI
  • FBI
  • NCMI
148
Q

_____ _____ _____ is any material with >1% by weight of asbestos.

A

Asbestos Containing Material (ACM)

149
Q

An employer must establish regulated areas whenever the airborne concentration of asbestos is in excess of the _____ and/or _____ _____

A

TWA and/or excursion limit

150
Q

What are the CFRs for general industry and construction, specifically for Pb?

A

29 CFR 1910.1025

29 CFR 1926.62

151
Q

40 CFR 141.43 prohibits the use of lead pipes, solder, and flux, but allows _____ _____.

A

Lead Joints

152
Q

_____ sampling collects samples at the time of sampling but may not be true representative of actual levels.

153
Q

Charcoal tubes and silica gel tubes are used as air sampling media for the _____ of gases and vapors.

A

Adsorption

154
Q

_____ tubes are best used for organic compounds.

155
Q

Filters are used for ______ and are the most common sampling media.

A

particulates

156
Q

Mixed Cellulose Ester (MCE) filters are used for:

A

metal fumes and dust

157
Q

Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) filters are used for:

A

Hex chrom and silica

158
Q

The Brief and Scala Model is used to account for ______ and _____ _____ between exposures.

A

Metabolism and recovery time

159
Q

If a chemical has a STEL listed, it cannot be exceeded in a _____ minute period for more than ____ times per day and must have a recovery time of _____ minutes.

A

15 minute period

4 times per day

60 minute recovery

160
Q

The ____ (TLV=C) can not be exceeded under any circumstances.

BEO160829 (11 decks)

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