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SAFMEDS 2020 > BEHP 5021 Behavioral Pharmacology > Flashcards

BEHP 5021 Behavioral Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of EAB include:

  • interest in _________ in its own right
  • _________ measurement
  • _________ ________ of the IV
  • _________ measurement
  • _________-subject designs
  • _________ inspection
  • _________ environments
A
  • interest in behavior in its own right
  • objective measurement
  • operational definition of the IV
  • repeated measurement
  • within subject designs
  • visual inspection
  • controlled environments
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2
Q

Traditional psychology studies use:

  • _________-subject designs
  • _________ measurement
  • summary __________
A
  • between subject designs
  • statistical measurement
  • summary statistics (means)
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3
Q

EAB uses __________ or __________ measurement

A

continuous, repeated

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4
Q

In EAB, variability is handled by isolating and minimizing _________ _________

A

extraneous variables

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5
Q

List 4 factors in the development of behavioral pharmacology:

  • development of _________ _________
  • concerns about ________ ________
  • concerns about __________ __________
  • _______ for mental illness
A
  • development of behavior analysis
  • concerns about drug abuse
  • concerns about environmental contamination
  • drugs for mental illness
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6
Q

Who studied the effects of caffeine on respondent behavior?

A

Zavadski

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7
Q

Who studied the effects of caffeine on operant behavior?

A

Skinner and Heron

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8
Q

Who developed the pole jumping procedure?

A

Cook and Weidley

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9
Q

In the pole jumping experiments, the presence of an antipsychotic drug disrupted ________ but not __________

A

avoidance, escape

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10
Q

The _______ ________ procedure was used as a screening process for potential new antipsychotic drugs

A

pole jumping

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11
Q

A drug is a _______ that effects ________ _______

A

A drug is a chemical that effects living tissues

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12
Q

List 2 categories of drugs:

A
  • psychoactive (has some effect on body or behavior)

- psychotropic (is prescribed for a particular reason)

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13
Q

This category of drugs has some effect on body or behavior:

A

psychoactive

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14
Q

This category of drugs is prescribed for a particular reason:

A

psychotropic

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15
Q

List the three ways drugs are named:

A
  • trade name
  • generic name
  • chemical name
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16
Q

The name given by the original manufacturer of a drug is the ________ name

A

trade

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17
Q

The name for the active ingredient in a drug is the _________ name

A

generic

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18
Q

List 4 ways that drugs can be classified:

  • ________ structure
  • ________ effects
  • ________ use
  • ________
A
  • chemical structure
  • behavioral effects
  • therapeutic use
  • generation
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19
Q

Benzodiazepines are an example of which drug classification:

A

chemical structure

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20
Q

Stimulants and sedatives are examples of which drug classification:

A

behavioral effects

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21
Q

Anti-psychotics and anti-emetics are examples of which drug classification:

A

therapeutic use

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22
Q

Typical and atypical antidepressants are examples of which drug classification:

A

generation

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23
Q

List 4 basic facts about drugs:

  • Drugs are ______ _______
  • Drugs are ______ _______
  • Drugs have ________ _______
  • Drugs have ________ _______
A
  • dose dependent
  • time dependent
  • multiple effects
  • toxic effects
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24
Q

The relationship between the dose of a drug and the effect on behavior is the _____ _______ ______

A

dose response curve

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25
Q

The dose response curve expresses the relationship between the ______ and the _______ _____ _______

A

the relationship between the dose and the effect on behavior

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26
Q

The most common way of classifying drugs is by ________ ________

A

therapeutic use

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27
Q

Identify the two frames for the therapeutic use of behavioral medication:

  • ________ use
  • ________ use
A

chronic, acute

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28
Q

When drugs are being used long term, the behavior analyst _________ definitions of behavior targeted by medication, provides _______, and creates systems to monitor ______ ________

A

operationalizes, data, side effects

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29
Q

List 4 main reasons for acute drug use:

  • _________ ___________ use
  • _________ ___________ use
  • _______ _______ use
  • pre-__________
A
  • emergency behavioral use (chemical restraint)
  • emergency medical use (e.g. for side effects)
  • short term use (to relieve symptoms)
  • pre-medication (to relax/sedate before medical appointments)
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30
Q

List the 4 types of drug effects:

  • ______ effect
  • ______ effects
  • _________ effects
  • _______ effect
A
  • main effect
  • side effects
  • secondary effects (effect on behavior)
  • toxic effect
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31
Q

A ________ effect of a drug is an effect on behavior that is not a particular effect of the drug.

A

secondary (e.g., increase in stealing due to increased hunger)

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32
Q

List the 4 stages of pharmokinetics:

  • Administration and ___________
  • D__________
  • B__________
  • E__________
A
  • Administration and absorption
  • Distribution
  • Bio-transformation
  • Excretion
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33
Q

List the 8 routes of drug administration:

  • (p.o.) ________
  • (i.m.) ________
  • (i.v.) _________
  • (inh) _________
  • (s.l.) _________
  • (s.c.) _________
  • (top) _________
  • (p.r.) __________
A
  • oral
  • intra-muscular
  • intra-venous
  • inhalation
  • sub-lingual
  • sub-cutaneous
  • topical
  • rectal
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34
Q

In drug administration, b.i.d. means to give the medication:

A

twice a day

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35
Q

In drug administration, t.i.d. means to give the medication:

A

three times a day

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36
Q

In drug administration, q.d. means to give the medication:

A

four times a day

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37
Q

In the distribution stage, the drug goes into the small ______, the _______, and is absorbed into the ______ _________ ______ at the site of action

A

small arteries > capillaries > extra-cellular fluid at the site of action

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38
Q

Occurs when a drug binds with protein molecules in the bloodstream

A

protein binding

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39
Q

Drugs may have an affinity for, and bind with, fat or bone tissue. These are known as ______ _______

A

silent receptors

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40
Q

Psychoactive medications ______ pass the blood brain barrier

A

can

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41
Q

Binding to silent receptors is sometimes called _______ _______

A

depot binding

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42
Q

When a drug molecule is converted to a metabolite, this is known as _______________

A

bio-transformation

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43
Q

A __________ is a drug molecule that has been changed through bio-transformation

A

metabolite (may be more, less or equally effective)

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44
Q

Bio-transformation takes place in the ______ or __________

A

liver (most common), GI tract

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45
Q

List 4 ways that a drug or metabolites can be excreted:

A
  • kidneys (urine)
  • breast milk
  • saliva
  • lungs
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46
Q

The liver changes drug molecules into _________

A

metabolites

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47
Q

The most common organ associated with excretion is _____

A

kidneys

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48
Q

Kinetics are related to the _______ of drug effects

A

length

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49
Q

A certain amount of a drug will be metabolized and excreted in a certain period of time. This is the definition of __________

A

0 order kinetics

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50
Q

A certain fraction of a drug will be metabolized and excreted in a certain period of time. This is the definition of _________

A

1st order kinetics

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51
Q

The amount of time it takes for the body to metabolize and excrete half of a drug dose

A

half-life

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52
Q

If a drug has a short half-life, you may need to take it _______ often

A

more

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53
Q

If a drug has a long half-life, you may need to take it _______ often

A

less

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54
Q

Generic drugs have the same active ingredient as the brand name drug, but bioavailability may differ as much as ______%

A

20%

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55
Q

The degree to which a drug or other substance becomes available to the target tissue after administration

A

bioavailability

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56
Q

A change from brand to generic (for the same drug and dosage) should be indicated on graphs with a ______ _______ ________

A

condition/phase change line

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57
Q

Unpredictable adverse drug reactions unrelated to known pharmacological properties of the drug

A

idiosyncratic reaction

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58
Q

An effect opposite to the expected effect of a drug

A

paradoxical drug reaction

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59
Q

An idiosyncratic reaction is an unpredictable adverse drug reaction _________ to the known pharmacological properties of the drug

A

unrelated (also called Type B or Type 2 reactions)

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60
Q

A paradoxical drug reaction is an effect ________ to the expected effect of a drug

A

opposite

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61
Q

A decrease in the effectiveness of a drug with repeated administrations

A

tolerance

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62
Q

List 5 types of drug tolerance:

  • M__________
  • C__________
  • B__________
  • C__________
  • C__________ __________
A
  • metabolic tolerance
  • cell tolerance
  • behavioral tolerance
  • cross tolerance
  • compensatory reaction tolerance
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63
Q

This type of drug tolerance occurs when the drug itself creates enzymes to break the drug down

A

metabolic tolerance

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64
Q

This type of drug tolerance occurs when cells become less responsive to a drug over repeated administrations

A

cell tolerance

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65
Q

This type of drug tolerance occurs when the drug effect on learned behavior decreases over repeated administrations

A

behavioral tolerance

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66
Q

This type of drug tolerance occurs when one drug produces tolerance to a different drug

A

cross tolerance

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67
Q

This type of drug tolerance occurs when the environment or other stimuli becomes a conditioned stimulus that elicits a protective/opposite conditioned response

A

compensatory reaction tolerance

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68
Q

Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in the sum of the two effects

A

additive

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69
Q

Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in a lower effect than the sum of the two effects

A

infra-additive

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70
Q

Drug interaction in which the combination of the two drugs results in a greater effect than the sum of the two effects

A

supra-additive

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71
Q

The dose at which a drug produces the intended effect

A

effective dose

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72
Q

The median effective dose of a drug, at which half of those who take it receive the intended effect

A

ED 50

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73
Q

A measure of the safety of a drug

A

therapeutic index

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74
Q

State the formula for calculating therapeutic index

A

median lethal dose / median effective dose

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75
Q

The _________ the therapeutic index of a drug, the safer it is

A

higher

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76
Q

The ________ the therapeutic index of a drug, the more dangerous it is

A

lower

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77
Q

The dosage (usually in mgs/kg) of a drug needed to produce a particular effect

A

potency

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78
Q

Potency is not the same as _________

A

effectiveness

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79
Q

The maximum effect (% of people who experience the intended effect) a drug may be expected to produce

A

peak efficacy (expressed as a %)

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80
Q

If drug X is more potent than drug Y, then _______ of drug X is needed to achieve the same effect

A

less

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81
Q

When termination of a drug produces a physiological withdrawal syndrome in the opposite direction of the drug effect

A

physical dependence

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82
Q

Occurs when a drug functions as a reinforcer, and as a result the person spends a lot of time taking or seeking the drug

A

psychological dependence

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83
Q

A drug that elicits vomiting or increase in heart rate is functioning as an __________ __________

A

unconditioned stimulus

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84
Q

If a drug that elicits immune suppression is paired with a sweet substance, the sweet substance may begin to elicit immune suppression. The sweet substance has become a ___________ ____________

A

conditioned stimulus

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85
Q

If the effects of a drug signal the availability of reinforcement for engaging in certain behaviors, the drug is functioning as a _________ _________

A

discriminative stimulus

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86
Q

A drug with the side effect of increased thirst may function as an __________ __________

A

establishing operation

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87
Q

A drug with the effect of appetite suppression may function as an __________ __________

A

abolishing operation

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88
Q

Another name for a nerve cell is a ________

A

neuron

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89
Q

A neuron is made up of a _______ or cell body, _________, an ______, and a ________ _______

A

A neuron is made up of a soma or cell body, dendrites, an axon, and a terminal button

90
Q

_________ react to stimulation from other neurons

91
Q

When a neuron is stimulated, it releases ____________ into the __________

A

neurotransmitters, synapse

92
Q

The space between neurons is called the _________

93
Q

Communication within a neuron is __________

A

electrical

94
Q

Communication between neurons is __________

A

chemical (via neurotransmitters)

95
Q

Chemicals released by the pre-synaptic neuron into the synapse

A

neurotransmitters

96
Q

List 6 examples of neurotransmitters:

  • d_________
  • n__________
  • e__________
  • _______
  • _______
  • s_________
A
  • dopamine
  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
  • ACH
  • GABA
  • serotonin
97
Q

Neurotransmitters may be a perfect fit for receptors and “unlock” them - this is known as the _________

A

lock and key analogy

98
Q

List 3 potential actions of drugs at the receptor:

A

agonist
partial agonist
antagonist

99
Q

When a drug occupies and activates a receptor site, enhancing neurotransmission, it is described as an _______

100
Q

When a drug occupies but does not activate a receptor site, blocking neurotransmission, it is described as an _________

A

antagonist

101
Q

When a drug occupies a receptor site but has only a weak effect, it is described as a _______ _______

A

partial agonist

102
Q

_________ travels down the neuron’s axon, but ________ fill the synaptic cleft

A

Electricity, chemicals

103
Q

________ operating in the _______ define most of behavioral pharmacology

A

Chemicals, synapse

104
Q

Psychotropic means __________ __________

A

behavior changing

105
Q

Respondent and operant conditioning are useful in the evaluation of drug effects because they provide a ______ ________

A

predictable baseline

106
Q

Chlorpromazine is a _______ name, while Thorazine is a ______ name for the same drug

A

generic, trade

107
Q

Metabolic drug tolerance may also be called _________ tolerance

108
Q

Caffeine, theobromine and theophylline are members of which class of drugs?

A

Methylxanthines

109
Q

Caffeine
Site of distribution: _________
Site of biotransformation: _________
Site of excretion: _________

A

Distribution: Brain
Biotransformation: Liver
Excretion: Kidneys

110
Q

The half-life of caffeine is about _____ hours

111
Q

Caffeine stimulates the release of __________ and blocks receptor sites for _________

A

releases epinephrine, blocks adenosine

112
Q

Caffeine’s effects include:

  • increased ______ _______
  • increased __________
  • increased __________
  • decreased ___________
  • vaso____________
A
  • increased heart rate
  • increased alertness
  • increased endurance
  • decreased sleepiness
  • vasoconstriction
113
Q

Caffeine withdrawal may cause a headache due to ___________

A

vasodilation

114
Q

Symptoms of caffeinism include a low grade _____, m______, and agitation. Too much caffeine can also cause ________

A

fever, malaise, anxiety

115
Q

The type of tolerance related to caffeine is _______ tolerance

A

cell - body creates additional receptors for adenosine

116
Q

In schizophrenia, hallucinations and delusions are referred to as ________ symptoms

117
Q

In schizophrenia, flat affect, loss of pleasure and decrease in goal-directed bx are referred to as ______ symptoms

118
Q

One theory of schizophrenia is that the brain has too much _________

119
Q

The route of administration for anti-psychotics is ______ or _______

A

oral or IM

120
Q

Anti-psychotics
Site of distribution: _________ and _____ _______
Site of biotransformation: _________
Site of excretion: _________

A

Distribution: brain and fat cells
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys

121
Q

The half-life of anti-psychotics ranges from _____ to _____ hours

122
Q

Typical anti-psychotics function as dopamine __________ while atypicals function as _________ _________

A

antagonists, partial agonists

123
Q

Anti-psychotic effects include:

  • decrease in _________
  • impairments in ________ function
  • impairments in ________ regulation
  • c___________
  • _________ effects
A
  • decrease in dopamine
  • impairments in sexual function
  • impairments in temperature regulation
  • constipation
  • motor effects (EPS)
124
Q

Typical anti-psychotics can cause motor effects also called…

A

extra-pyramidal side effects

125
Q

List 5 examples of extra-pyramidal side effects:

  • P___________
  • t_________ __________
  • a_________
  • d_________
  • n_________ _________ __________
A
  • Parkinsonism
  • tardive dyskinesia
  • akathesia
  • dystonia
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
126
Q

Symptoms such as a shuffling gate, tremors, and a mask like expression while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of ____________

A

Parkinsonism

127
Q

Symptoms such as lip-smacking, tongue-thrusting or grimacing while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of _______ _______

A

tardive dyskinesia

128
Q

Symptoms such as restlessness, pacing or movement of arms and legs while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of _________

129
Q

Symptoms of muscle clenching while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of __________

130
Q

Symptoms such as stiffness, fever, and flu-like signs while taking anti-psychotics may be a sign of __________ __________ __________

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

131
Q

Anti-psychotics _________ typically cause withdrawal syndromes

132
Q

Tolerance in anti-psychotics usually only relates to ______ ________

A

side effects

133
Q

The therapeutic index for anti-psychotics ranges from ______ to _______

A

100 to 1000

134
Q

Risks of anti-psychotics include ______ and _______

A

EPS and diabetes

135
Q

Some anti-psychotics have the behavioral effect of a strong ________ operation for ______ or _______

A

EO, food or fluids

136
Q

Stealing food or fluids may be a _________ effect of anti-psychotics

137
Q

In addition to treating psychosis, other uses of anti-psychotics include:

  • anti-_______
  • ________ syndrome
  • ________ problems in autism
  • ________ withdrawal
A
  • anti-emetics
  • Tourettes
  • behavior problems
  • alcohol withdrawal
138
Q

Anti-psychotics may cause dry mouth, blurred vision, sedation, memory problems, constipation, difficulty urinating and anorgasmia. These symptoms are known as ______-__________ symptoms

A

anti-cholinergic

139
Q

The anti-cholinergic side effects of anti-psychotics may lead to __________ (fluid seeking)

A

polydipsia

140
Q

Neurolepsis is characterized by:

  • _________ slowing
  • _________ quieting
  • _________ indifference
A
  • psychomotor slowing
  • emotional quieting
  • affective indifference
141
Q

Most typical anti-psychotics are ___________ (chemical structure)

A

phenothiazines

142
Q

Anti-cholinergic side effects of anti-psychotics include:

  • dry _______
  • _______ vision
  • s________
  • ________ problems
  • c________
  • difficulty _________
  • a__________
A
  • dry mouth
  • blurry vision
  • sedation
  • memory problems
  • constipation
  • difficulty urinating
  • anorgasmia
143
Q

When discriminating between dyskinesia and akathesia, remember that with dyskinesia you cannot sit ______, while with akathesia you cannot sit ______

A

Dyskinesia - can’t sit still

Akathesia - can’t sit down

144
Q

The anti-psychotic drug with the strongest anti-cholinergic side effects is ________

145
Q

The primary action of typical anti-psychotics in the brain is to _______ ________

A

block dopamine

146
Q

List 3 anxiolytic (longer-acting) drugs:

  • V______
  • L______
  • X______
A
  • Valium
  • Librium
  • Xanax
147
Q

List 3 sedative/hypnotic (shorter-acting) drugs:

  • H______
  • R______
  • _______ (such as Ambien)
A
  • Halcion
  • Restoril
  • Z drugs
148
Q

List 2 routes of administration for anxiolytic/sedative drugs:

A
  • oral (absorbed in GI tract)

- IV (absorbed in bloodstream)

149
Q

Anxiolytics/Sedatives
Site of distribution: _________ and _____ _______
Site of biotransformation: _________ or ______ ______ metabolism
Site of excretion: _________

A

Distribution: Brain and fat cells
Biotransformation: Liver enzymes or first-pass metabolism (starts in GI)
Excretion: Kidneys

150
Q

Barbituates at low doses and benzodiazepines facilitate _______ binding

151
Q

GABA is a neurotransmitter that helps __________ ______ _________

A

stabilize brain activity

152
Q

Barbituates at high doses will open the _____ _______

A

ion channel

153
Q

List effects of benzodiazepines:

  • mild effect on ______ ______ and ______ ______
  • decreased ________ and ________ ________
  • decreased ________ ________
A
  • heart rate/blood pressure
  • anxiety and muscle tension
  • seizure activity
154
Q

List symptoms of withdrawal from benzodiazepines:

  • increased _________
  • increased _________ ________
  • can cause _________
A
  • increased anxiety
  • increased muscle tension
  • can cause seizures
155
Q

Tolerance to benzodiazepines develops _________, therefore these drugs have a ______ potential for abuse

A

quickly, high

156
Q

Behavioral functions of benzos include being an EO for ______ and sometimes for ______

A

sleep, food

157
Q

Benzos have a ______ lethality risk

158
Q

Anxiolytics can pass through the _______ _______

A

placental barrier

159
Q

The Geller procedure is a screening tool for ________

A

anxiolytics

160
Q

The Geller procedure uses a ________ schedule

161
Q

When an anxiolytic is administered, responding on the FR1 food + shock condition of the Geller procedure _______

162
Q

Based on the Geller procedure, we see that anxiolytics may function as an ______ for punishment

163
Q

Likely functional relations inherent in anxiety related behavior are ________ and _________ _________

A

escape, respondent conditioning

164
Q

List 3 kinds of antidepressants:

  • first generation (t_______ and ______ inhibitors)
  • second generation (______)
  • third generation (_______)
A

1st gen - tricyclics and MAO inhibitors
2nd gen - SSRIs
3rd gen - SNRI and others

165
Q

Anti-depressants
Route of administration: _______
Sites of distribution: ______, _______, ________ ______
Site of biotransformation: ________ and _____ _____
Site of excretion: _________ and _______ _______

A

Administration: oral
Distribution: brain, liver, breast milk
Biotransformation: liver, first pass in GI
Excretion: kidneys, breast milk

166
Q

The half-life of anti-depressants varies from ____ to _____ hours

A

3 to 24 hours

167
Q

Side effects of SSRIs include:

  • n_______
  • weight ______ or ______
  • h________
  • i________
A
  • nausea
  • weight gain or loss
  • headaches
  • insomnia
168
Q

Withdrawal effects of anti-depressants include general ________ and _______

A

malaise and anxiety

169
Q

Anti-depressants are at _____ risk of abuse

170
Q

Anti-depressants may function as an AO for ______and either an AO or EO for ______

A

sleep, food

171
Q

Depression is not a ______ of behavior, but a _______ of behavioral _______ that can be operationalized

A

cause, category, responses

172
Q

The two main categories of seizures are ________ and _________

A

partial and generalized

173
Q

Generalized seizures affect both __________ of the brain and cause _______

A

hemispheres, loss of consciousness

174
Q

Name 3 sub-types of generalized seizures:

A
  • tonic/clonic
  • atonic
  • partial
175
Q

In an atonic seizure, the individual loses _______ ______

A

muscle control

176
Q

Partial seizures affect one hemisphere of the brain and may cause ________ _________. Complex partial seizures may cause _________ __________ and __________

A

sensory phenomena, impaired consciousness, automatisms

177
Q

Name 2 sub-types of partial seizures:

A
  • simple

- complex

178
Q

List 4 first generation anti-convulsants:

  • P_________
  • D_________
  • T_________
  • D_________
A
  • Phenobarbital
  • Dilantin
  • Tegretol
  • Depakote
179
Q

List 4 second generation anti-convulsants:

  • N________
  • L________
  • T________
  • T________
A
  • Neurontin
  • Lyrica
  • Trileptal
  • Topamax
180
Q

The first anti-convulsant, introduced in 1857, was _______

181
Q 
Anti-convulsants
Route of administration: \_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of distribution: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of biotransformation: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of excretion: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Administration: oral or IV
Distribution: brain
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys

182
Q

The half-life of anti-convulsants ranges from _____ to _____ hours

A

4 to 24 hours

183
Q

Anti-convulsants work by enhancing _______ or reducing the activity of ________

A

GABA, neurons

184
Q

List side effects of anti-convulsants:

  • s________
  • difficulty _________
  • s_______ problems
  • m_______ problems
A
  • sleepiness
  • difficulty concentrating
  • speech problems
  • memory problems
185
Q

Anti-convulsants are teratogenic, meaning that they can cross the ________ ________

A

placental barrier

186
Q

The three main symptoms of ADHD are:

A

inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity

187
Q

List 3 characteristics of the inattentive form of ADHD:

  • changing _______ frequently
  • not ________ ________
  • highly __________
A
  • changing tasks frequently
  • not following directions
  • highly distractible
188
Q

Characteristics of hyperactivity in ADHD include _______ and quick __________

A

restlessness, movements

189
Q

Characteristics of impulsivity in ADHD include high ________ to immediate consequences, poor _______ ________, and a disregard for ________ or delayed _________

A

sensitivity, decision making, danger, consequences

190
Q

List the three kinds of drugs used to treat ADHD:

  • _________ __________ stimulants
  • non- ___________ stimulants
  • non-stimulants
A
  • amphetamine-related stimulants
  • non-amphetamine stimulants
  • non-stimulants
191
Q

Name 2 amphetamine-related stimulants used to treat ADHD:

A
  • Adderall

- Dexedrine

192
Q

Name 2 non-amphetamine stimulants used to treat ADHD:

A
  • Ritalin

- Concerta

193
Q

Name 3 non-stimulants used to treat ADHD:

A
  • Clonidine

- Tenex/Intuniv

194
Q

Stimulants may work by increasing the ______ to ______ ratio or by increasing _________ for certain kinds of tasks

A

signal : noise

motivation

195
Q

List effects of stimulants:

  • decreased _______ and _________
  • increased _________
  • increased ______ _________
A
  • decreased sleep and appetite
  • increased alertness
  • increased task completion
196
Q

List effects of non-stimulant drugs for ADHD:

  • increased _________
  • decrease in ________
  • decrease in ________
A
  • increased sleepiness
  • decrease in alertness
  • decrease in activity
197
Q 
Stimulants
Routes of administration: \_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of distribution: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of biotransformation: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Site of excretion: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Administration: oral or transdermal
Distribution: brain
Biotransformation: liver
Excretion: kidneys

198
Q

Stimulants work by triggering release of _________ and ___________, and blocking reuptake of __________

A

dopamine, norepinephrine

norepinephrine

199
Q

Stimulants may have the following behavioral effects:

  • _______ for sleep
  • _______ for food
  • _______ for certain activities/tasks
A

AO, AO, EO

200
Q

Stimulants do not cause significant problems with tolerance, but could effect _______ or cause _____ in certain individuals. They can also exacerbate ______ problems.

A

growth, tics, heart

201
Q

Name two types of designs for drug experiments:

A
  • correlational studies

- true experiments

202
Q

In a correlational study, participants are assigned to groups based on _______, while in a true experiment, participants are assigned _________

A

based on IV, randomly

203
Q

A _________ __________ introduces biases and makes it harder to draw conclusions

A

correlational study

204
Q

Systematic bias is controlled for through _______ _______

A

random assignment

205
Q

A ________ condition helps to isolate drug effects vs extraneous variable better than the baseline condition in drug evaluation

206
Q

A ______ ______ is demonstrated when behavior changes in the direction of the drug effect during the placebo condition

A

placebo effect

207
Q

The appearance of negative symptoms (side effects) as a result of drug administration minus the active ingredient is the ______ _______

A

nocebo effect

208
Q

This drug stimulates release of epinephrine and blocks adenosine:

209
Q

This therapeutic group of drugs cause a decrease in dopamine:

A

antipsychotics

210
Q

This therapeutic group of drugs facilitate GABA binding at low doses:

A

anxiolytics

211
Q

This therapeutic group of drugs enhance GABA or reduce neuron activity:

A

anticonvulsants

212
Q

Name 2 groups of drugs that cross the placental barrier:

A
  • anxiolytics

- anticonvulsants

213
Q

This therapeutic group of drugs cause release of dopamine and norepinephrine:

A

ADHD drugs

214
Q

List 7 elements of a medication evaluation:

  • i_______ ________
  • p_______ _________
  • b________ ________
  • s________ _________
  • d______ _________
  • what to ________
  • d________
A
  • informed consent
  • prescriber cooperation
  • behavioral targets
  • sensitive measures
  • drug protocol
  • what to study
  • design
215
Q

The three elements of informed consent are _________, __________ and ____________

A

information, capacity, voluntariness

216
Q

When choosing a med evaluation design, it is critical to consider the _________ of the drug

A

kinetics (half-life)

217
Q

List 3 designs commonly used in medication evaluation:

  • w__________
  • m________ __________
  • a________ __________
A
  • withdrawal
  • multiple baseline
  • alternating treatments
218
Q

In a med eval study, a multiple baseline design can be used across __________ but not across ________

A

individuals, behaviors

219
Q

Drugs with a very short half life can be evaluated using a multiple baseline across _________

220
Q

A study looking at the effects of different values (doses) of the IV is called a ________ ________

A

parametric analysis

221
Q

A study looking at the effects of various combinations of IVs is called a _________ _________

A

component analysis

222
Q

List 3 areas for BA participation in drug evaluation:

  • s__________
  • a__________
  • d__________ of a professional relationship
A
  • selection of a prescriber
  • assessment of the prescriber’s history/expertise
  • development

SAFMEDS 2020 (13 decks)

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