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SAFMEDS 2020 > BEHP 5018 and 5020B > Flashcards

BEHP 5018 and 5020B Flashcards

1
Q

Skinner wrote the book Verbal Behavior after a challenge by _________________

A

Alfred North Whitehead

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2
Q

Behavior reinforced through the mediation of other persons

A

Verbal behavior

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3
Q

Verbal operant

A

antecedent - behavior - consequence

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4
Q

Verbal operant under the antecedent control of an MO

A

mand

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5
Q

Verbal operant under the antecedent control of a nonverbal stimulus

A

tact

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6
Q

Verbal operant under the antecedent control of a verbal stimulus

A

intraverbal

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7
Q

Describe 4 roles of the listener:

  1. __________ for a verbal episode
  2. The listener _________ the speaker’s bx
  3. The listener functions as an ______ for verbal bx
  4. The listener takes ________ _________
A
  1. Necessary for a verbal episode
  2. The listener consequates the speaker’s behavior (mediates reinforcement)
  3. The listener functions as an Sd and MO for verbal behavior
  4. The listener “takes additional action”
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8
Q

Additional actions of the listener include:

  • nonverbal respondent bx: __________ ________
  • nonverbal operant bx: ___________ __________
  • verbal bx: __________ __________
A
  • emotional reactions
  • receptive language
  • speaker behavior
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9
Q

Skinner does not include ______ under listener bx.

A

covert verbal bx (thinking, understanding, processing)

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10
Q

Two components of a verbal antecedent where one verbal stimulus alters the evocative effect of the second verbal stimulus, and collectively they evoke a differential response

A

Verbal conditional discriminations

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11
Q

Verbal extensions is another term for _________

A

generalization

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12
Q

Which type of extended tact?

the novel stimulus shares all of the relevant or defining features of the original stimulus

A

Generic

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13
Q

Which type of extended tact?

the novel stimulus shares some, but not all of the relevant features

A

Metaphoric

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14
Q

Which type of extended tact?
the novel stimuli have none of the relevant features of the original stimulus, but some irrelevant but related feature has acquired stimulus control

A

Metonymical

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15
Q

Which type of extended tact?
the property which gains control of the response is only distantly related to the defining properties or is similar for irrelevant reasons

A

Solistic

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16
Q

Which type of multiple control?

– the strength of a single verbal response is a function of more than one variable

A

Convergent multiple control

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17
Q

Which type of multiple control?

– When a single antecedent variable effects the strength of more than one response

A

Divergent multiple control

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18
Q

List 6 points from Radical Behaviorism re: private events:

  1. Behavior is a _______ of the environment (entire universe)
  2. Part of the universe is ________ within the organism’s own skin
  3. Some ______ or ____ may be related to bx in a unique way
  4. We need not suppose that private events have _______ _______. They are just stimuli.
  5. We acquire VB under control of public stimuli by the ________ of others to our bx in the presence of those stimuli.
  6. We acquire VB controlled by private stimuli in 4 ways
A
  1. function
  2. enclosed
  3. stimuli or MOs
  4. special properties
  5. reactions
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19
Q

List the 4 ways that we acquire VB controlled by private stimuli:

  • P________ A___________
  • C________ R___________
  • C________ P___________
  • R________ R___________
A
  • Public accompaniment
  • Collateral responses
  • Common properties
  • Response reduction
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20
Q

Occur when an observable stimulus accompanies a private stimulus (and as a result an observer is able to teach VB for the private stimulus)

A

Public accompaniment (e.g., seeing child bump his head)

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21
Q

Occurs when an observable behavior accompanies a private stimulus (and as a result an observer is able to teach VB for the private stimulus)

A

Collateral responses (e.g., seeing child hold head and cry)

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22
Q

Occurs when a speaker learns to tact temporal, geometric, or descriptive properties of objects, and then generalizes those tact relations to private stimuli

A

Common properties (e.g., tacting emotional feelings)

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23
Q

Occurs when a speaker learns to tact features of their own body such as movement or position and the kinesthetic stimuli acquire control over verbal responses so that when the movements become covert , the learner is still able to tact the stimuli

A

Response reduction (e.g., learner tacts imagining swimming)

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24
Q

Occurs when part of the behavior of an organism becomes in turn one of the variables controlling another part

A

Autoclitic relation

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25
Q

Verbal behavior that is based upon or depends upon other verbal behavior

A

Autoclitic

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26
Q

Autoclitic behavior is concerned with ________ ______ on the part of the listener

A

practical action

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27
Q

Name the two levels of verbal behavior involved in autoclitic relations:

A

Primary verbal operant / standard relation

Secondary verbal operant / autoclitic relation

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28
Q

Informs the listener with respect to some nonverbal aspect of the primary response (including its controlling variables) and is therefore controlled by nonverbal stimuli

A

Autoclitic tact

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29
Q

Enjoins the listener to behave in some way with respect to the primary response and is controlled by MOs

A

Autoclitic mand

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30
Q

The distinction between what is/is not autoclitic bx cannot be made on the basis of the _______ ______ alone.

A

response form

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31
Q

Autoclitic bx is concerned with practical action on the part of the _______

A

listener

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32
Q

List 4 effects of punishment (related to self-editing):

A
  • concealing the identity of the speaker
  • recession to the covert level
  • talking to one’s self
  • disguised speech
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33
Q

List 4 types of self-editing problems:

  • ______ - behavior evoked by an EO involving a high value of positive listener reactions to VB
  • _______ - behavior evoked by an EO involving a high value of negative listener reactions to VB or evoked by an Sd without an EO variable related to positive listener reaction
  • _______ - a speaker who tacts his own VB, the sources of control, and a listener’s responses
  • _______ - a speaker who does not tact the contingencies related to his VB and is not under good audience stimulus control
A

Caring
Not Caring
Aware
Unaware

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34
Q

A speaker who is “aware and caring” likely has a _______ ________ _________

A

weak verbal repertoire

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35
Q

A speaker who is “unaware and caring” is likely to engage in a ______ _______ __________

A

high rate of VB

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36
Q

A speaker who is “aware and not caring” is likely to engage in _________ _________

A

offensive VB

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37
Q

A speaker who is “unaware and not caring” is likely to engage in ________ _________ _________

A

delusional, rambling self-talk

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38
Q

Self-editing problem defined by:

  • weak public speaking repertoire
  • weak intraverbals
  • weak mands for information
  • weak autoclitics
  • not getting to the point
  • may appear shy or have low confidence
A

“Aware and caring”

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39
Q

Self-editing problem defined by:

  • high rate of trivial verbal behavior
  • useless tacts of commonplace stimuli
  • high rate of mands
  • dominates a conversation
  • exaggerates, repetitive, too loud
A

“Unaware and caring”

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40
Q

Self-editing problem defined by:

  • hurtful VB
  • lying, cursing
  • obnoxious VB
  • offensive VB
  • socially inappropriate
A

“Aware and not caring”

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41
Q

Self-editing problem defined by:

  • illogical rambling
  • incoherence, mumbling
  • self-talk
  • odd mands
A

“Unaware and not caring”

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42
Q

The highest form of verbal behavior is _________

A

self-editing

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43
Q

__________ seems to be the main independent variable responsible for shaping self-editing

A

Punishment

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44
Q

The unit of analysis in verbal behavior is:

A

the three-term contingency (ABC)

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45
Q

List 4 antecedent conditions for verbal behavior:

  • state of _________ or _________ stimulation
  • some aspect of ______________
  • other _______ ________
  • own _______ _________
A
  • state of deprivation or aversive stimulation
  • some aspect of the environment
  • other verbal behavior
  • own verbal behavior
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46
Q

List two consequence conditions for verbal behavior:

  • related to the ________ _________
  • educational (________)
A
  • related to the motivating operations

- educational (social)

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47
Q

List the 4 base elements of the Pyramid Approach:

  • functional ________
  • powerful ________
  • functional _________
  • contextually __________ behaviors
A
  • functional activities
  • powerful reinforcers
  • functional communication
  • contextually inappropriate bxs (focus on functionally equivalent alternative bxs)
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48
Q

List the 5 top elements of the Pyramid Approach:

  • g__________
  • effective ________
  • specific _________ strategies
  • minimizing and correcting _______
  • ______ __________
A
  • generalization
  • effective lessons (sequential, discrete, incidental)
  • specific teaching strategies (goal is to eliminate prompts)
  • minimizing and correcting errors
  • data collection
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49
Q

PECS Phase 1: How to ______________

A

Communicate

  • teaches initiation using 2 person prompt procedure
  • no discrimination
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50
Q

PECS Phase 2: Increasing __________ and _______

A

Increasing Spontaneity and Range

  • adult moves away, picture book moved further away
  • persistence taught
  • no discrimination, but variety of people/activities/locations/reinforcers involved
  • communicative partner does not prompt
  • traveling taught with shaping
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51
Q

PECS Phase 3A: Simple ___________

A

Simple Discrimination

  • discrimination between preferred/ non-preferred
  • reinforce when picture is touched
  • error correction: Show, Practice, Switch, Repeat
  • vary distracters
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52
Q

PECS Phase 3B: ___________ Discrimination

A

Conditional Discrimination

  • discriminate between equally reinforcing
  • conduct correspondence checks
  • use error correction for mistakes
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53
Q

PECS Phase 4: Building ___________

A

Building Sentences

  • “I want” and picture on sentence strip
  • Learner taps symbols
  • add 3-5 sec time delay before naming reinforcer
  • add attributes and increase sentence length
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54
Q

PECS Phase 5: Answering __________

A

“What do you want?”

- leads to commenting

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55
Q

PECS Phase 6: ___________

A

Commenting

  • answering comment questions
  • discriminating between comment questions
  • teach using elements such as surprises and novelty
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56
Q

This phase of PECS requires no discrimination and uses a 2 person prompting procedure

A

Phase 1

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57
Q

This phase of PECS teaches the learner to travel to the book and communication partner

A

Phase 2

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58
Q

This phase of PECS teaches the learner to discriminate between a preferred and non-preferred picture

A

Phase 3A

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59
Q

This phase of PECS teaches the learner to discriminate between equally reinforcing pictures

A

Phase 3B

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60
Q

This phase of PECS introduces a sentence strip, tapping symbols, time delay and using attributes

A

Phase 4

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61
Q

This phase of PECS introduces the question “What do you want?”

A

Phase 5

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62
Q

This phase of PECS teaches commenting

A

Phase 6

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63
Q

Name the 4 steps in the PECS error correction sequence:

A

Model/Show
Practice
Switch (distract)
Repeat

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64
Q

Researcher who found that individuals with limited verbal bx or who do not respond to multiple communication interventions, should be offered the opportunity to use PECS

A

Maglione (2012)

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65
Q

Researcher who found stronger links between speech development and PECS vs sign language

A

McCleery (2013)

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66
Q

Research study that found PECS and PRT to be equally effective interventions

A

Schreibman and Stahmer (2013)

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67
Q

List the 3 general views of language:

A
  • biological
  • cognitive
  • environmental
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68
Q

Many credit Chomsky’s critique of VB with starting the ________ ________

A

“cognitive revolution”

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69
Q

List 3 reasons to avoid receptive/expressive framing of language:

  • implies different manifestations of the same ________ ________ ________
  • implies that __________ __________ is language
  • implies that understanding the meaning of a word is the same as __________ words
A
  • underlying cognitive processes
  • listener behavior
  • expressing
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70
Q

The main source of control for most intraverbal behavior is ______ _________ _________

A

verbal conditional discriminations

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71
Q

During Phase 4 of PECS instruction, the learner must be taught where to place an attribute card on the sentence strip and also how to __________ the variations between _________

A

discriminate the variations between attributes (does not require receptive mastery)

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72
Q

Behavior defined by its impact upon the environment

A

Operant behavior

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73
Q

The goal of the Pyramid Approach to education is to:

A

use the methods of science to develop effective educational strategies

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74
Q

Natural sciences use an ___________ approach

A

inductive (bottom up)

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75
Q

This approach to science requires collection of data prior to developing interpretations

A

Inductive science

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76
Q

This approach to science develops hypotheses and then tests them

A

Deductive science

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77
Q

List 6 characteristics of the natural science of behavior:

  1. It is an ___________ science
  2. Intimate contact with the ___________ of interest
  3. Focus on _________ behavior and __________, __________ definitions
  4. Use of standard, __________, and universal units of measurement
  5. ____________ analysis
  6. Identification of __________ ____________
A
  1. It is an inductive science
  2. Intimate contact with phenomenon of interest (as in biology, chemistry, physics)
  3. focus on observable behavior and objective, operational definitions
  4. use of standard, absolute, and universal units of measurement
  5. experimental analysis
  6. identification of functional relations
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78
Q

Name the two essential properties of behavior

A

Count and time

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79
Q

List 3 characteristics of the units of measurement:

A

Standard, absolute, universal

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80
Q

In reference to units of measurement, “standard” means:

A

everyone uses them

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81
Q

In reference to units of measurement, “absolute” means:

A

value does not change from one instance to the next

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82
Q

In reference to units of measurement, “universal” means:

A

applies to every instance of the phenomena

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83
Q

List 5 characteristics of Dimensional Quantities of bx:

  • able to be ______ as it is occurring
  • ____________ in the bx itself
  • not an ____________
  • ____________ to changes in the IV
  • __________ to the naked eye
A
  • able to be seen as it occurring in the environment
  • entailed in the behavior itself
  • not an abstraction (not a rating scale, for example)
  • sensitive to changes in the independent variable
  • visible to the naked eye
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84
Q

Name the 5 dimensional quantities of bx:

A
  • frequency/rate (count per time)
  • latency (temporal locus)
  • duration (temporal extent)
  • celeration (count/time/time)
  • IRT
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85
Q

Name 2 characteristics of dimensionless quantities of bx:

  • ___________ from the bx of interest
  • ___________ to environmental variables
A
  • abstractions

- insensitive

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86
Q

Likert scales, ratios, and percent correct are examples of ________ ___________

A

dimensionless quantities

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87
Q

Ongoing data collection under controlled conditions before interpretations are made

A

Inductive science

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88
Q

BF Skinner adhered to a ________ science of bx.

A

natural

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89
Q

BF Skinner’s system of measurement was ______ of ______

A

rate of response (frequency)

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90
Q

BF Skinner focused on ______ -__________ responding

A

free-operant

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91
Q

BF Skinner’s cumulative record was a _________ ________ _________

A

standard graphic display

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92
Q

List 3 characteristics of free-operant responding:

  • can be _________ at any time
  • _______ (does not require much time)
  • produces a wide range of _______ _______
A
  • emitted
  • discrete
  • response rates
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93
Q

A dimensional unit of behavior sensitive to subtle manipulations of the independent variable.

A

Rate of response

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94
Q

List 4 characteristics of a Standard Graphic Display (cumulative record):

  • ratio of ______ / ________
  • ___________ recording
  • produced standard _______ that represented rate of responding
  • allowed ease of _________ and __________
A
  • ratio of count/time
  • continuous recording
  • produced standard slopes
  • allowed ease of interpretation and comparison
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95
Q

Student of BF Skinner who created the Standard Celeration Chart:

A

Ogden Lindsley

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96
Q

A measure of change in rate over time

A

celeration

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97
Q

A Standard Celeration Chart depicts human behavior more accurately than an equal interval graph because bx changes ___________

A

exponentially

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98
Q

SCC: The lowest point on y axis of the SCC represents bx occurring ________

A

1 time/day

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99
Q

SCC: The highest point on the y axis of the SCC represents bx occurring _________

A

1000 times/minute

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100
Q

Features of the SCC:

Line depicting change in rate over time

A

Celeration Line

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101
Q

Features of the SCC:

Axis indicating successive calendar days

A

Bottom axis

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102
Q

Features of the SCC:

Axis indicating successive calendar weeks

A

Top Axis

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103
Q

Features of the SCC:

Axis indicating count/minute from .001 to 1000/min

A

Left Y axis

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104
Q

Features of the SCC:

Indicates weekdays

A

thin vertical lines

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105
Q

Features of the SCC:

Indicates Sundays

A

thick vertical lines

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106
Q

Features of the SCC:

Depicts standard slopes and allows for quick comparisons

A

Celeration Fan

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107
Q

Features of the SCC:

Axis indicating time periods for the bottom of the chart

A

Right y axis

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108
Q

A logarithmic scale may also be called an _______ _______ scale

A

equal ratio

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109
Q

Name a benefit of the logarithmic y-axis on the SCC:

A

preserves proportional amounts of bx change

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110
Q

The Standard Celeration Chart may also be called (2):

A
  • Standard Behavior Chart

- Six-cycle Chart

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111
Q

List 4 problems with equal interval line graphs:

  • charts are not __________
  • slope is __________ as you move up the chart
  • baseline ___________ is a confound
  • if using % correct, creates an _________ _________
A
  • standard
  • inflated
  • frequency
  • artificial ceiling
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112
Q

All Standard Celeration Charts start on the same date - this is called ___________

A

calibration

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113
Q

List the steps for completing a daily record on the SCC:

A
  1. Calculate counting time floor
  2. Calculate frequency correct
  3. Calculate frequency incorrect
  4. Find where day line and frequency line intersect and chart at intersection
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114
Q

In Precision Teaching, charting both correct/incorrect or bx to increase and decrease on the same chart is termed a ______ ______

A

“fair pair”

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115
Q

SCC: Observation or recording period, or amount of time spent counting the behavior

A

Counting time floor

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116
Q

SCC: Explain how to calculate the counting time floor

A

1/minutes spent recording

or 60/number of seconds

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117
Q

SCC: Dropping timing floors indicate _______ timing durations

A

longer

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118
Q

SCC: Explain how to chart frequencies

A

Count/number of minutes spent recording or

Count x counting time floor

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119
Q

SCC: Find the count/minute for a bx that occurs 10 times in 20 minutes

A

.5

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120
Q

SCC: Find the count/minute for a bx that occurs 10 times in 2 minutes

A

5

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121
Q

SCC: Find the count/minute for a bx that occurs 25 times in 30 seconds

A

50

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122
Q

SCC: Find the count/minute for a bx that occurs 25 times in 15 seconds

A

100

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123
Q

SCC: Find the counting floor for a 30 second observation period

A

2

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124
Q

SCC: Find the counting floor for a 10 minute observation period

A

.1

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125
Q

SCC: Find the counting floor for a 2 minute observation period

A

.5

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126
Q

Describe how to indicate a frequency of zero on the SCC

A

Place an X or ? below the counting time floor

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127
Q

How is frequency/rate plotted on the SCC?

A

count divided by minutes spent recording

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128
Q

SCC: Behavior has the opportunity to occur but is not observed or recorded.

This is termed a ________ day and data points are ___________ across this day.

A

ignore, connected

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129
Q

SCC: Behavior does not have the opportunity to occur.

This is termed a __________ day and data points are ___________ across this day.

A

no chance, not connected

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130
Q

SCC: Vertical line drawn between day lines

A

Phase change line

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131
Q

SCC: Number of minutes behavior is able to occur

A

Behavior floor

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132
Q

SCC: Explain how to calculate the behavior floor

A

1/number minutes behavior can occur

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133
Q

SCC: The closer together the counting time floor and the behavior floor, the ________ reliable the data will be.

A

more

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134
Q

SCC: Number of observation minutes (when time sampling)

A

Record ceiling

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135
Q

SCC: Explain how to calculate the record ceiling

A

1/number of observation minutes

(e.g., 1/10 if doing a MTS every 10 minutes

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136
Q

SCC: Explain how to calculate latency

A

1/latency

137
Q

SCC: Explain how to denote latency

A

Forward slash

138
Q

SCC: Forward slashes moving down the chart indicate ________ latency, while forward slashes moving up the chart denote ________ latency

A

longer, shorter

139
Q

SCC: A forward slash indicates a measure of ______

A

latency

140
Q

SCC: A backward slash indicates a measure of ________

A

duration

141
Q

SCC: Explain how to calculate duration

A

1/duration

142
Q

SCC: Explain how to denote duration data

A

Backward slash

143
Q

SCC: Backward slashes moving ________ the chart indicate longer duration, while backward slashes moving _________ the chart indicate shorter duration.

A

down, up

144
Q

SCC: An index of learning

A

Celeration

145
Q

SCC: List the steps for estimating celeration:

  1. Determine the _______ and ________ of the line
  2. Draw a __________ through the data series
  3. Ensure _______ of data points intersecting, above and below the celeration line
A
  1. slope and direction
  2. line-of-best-fit
  3. equal number
146
Q

SCC: To find celeration values, draw a line parallel to the celeration line, passing through a ________ and a _______ line

A

1-line, Sunday line

147
Q

SCC: If the celeration is increasing, draw a parallel line and then read the frequency of the ______ ________

A

next Sunday line

148
Q

SCC: If the celeration is decreasing, draw a parallel line and then read the frequency of the ______ ________

A

previous Sunday line

149
Q

A system of measuring and analyzing behavior using the Standard Celeration Chart:

A

Precision Teaching

150
Q

Precision Teaching was founded by:

A

Ogden Lindsley

151
Q

Precision Teaching - how one member of a class of behaviors affects the whole class is referred to as _____ /_____ relations

A

component / composite

152
Q

Precision Teaching: Functional mastery criteria involve (3):

A
  • fluency
  • aims
  • RESAA
153
Q

Precision Teaching: RESAA stands for:

A
  • Retention (maintenance/memory)
  • Endurance (resistance to distractions, attention span)
  • Stability (low variability)
  • Application (generalization)
  • Adduction (emergence of new repertoires)
154
Q

“Fluency” as a term to describe mastery was introduced by:

A

Carl Binder

155
Q

Fluency is ________ plus _______

A

accuracy plus speed

156
Q

Higher rate behavior is more likely to occur again - this is termed ________ __________

A

response probability

157
Q

Fluency is a product of _________

A

practice

158
Q

If we want bxs to occur when they are needed, we need to make sure they occur at a high rate so they are more likely to be _________ by the environment.

A

Selected (selectionist account)

159
Q

Mastery that produces a measurable outcome

A

Functional mastery

160
Q

Explain how the notion of fluency relates to a selectionist account of behavior:

  • rate is a measure of ________ _________
  • higher rate bxs have a greater _________ of occurrence
  • higher rate bxs are more likely to be __________ by contingencies of reinforcement
A
  • response probability
  • likelihood
  • selected
161
Q

In Precision Teaching the acronym for mastery is:

A

RESAA

retention, endurance, stability, application, adduction

162
Q

Progress monitoring needs to be both _________ and _________

A

proximal and distal

163
Q

Progress monitoring focused on ongoing specific training targets (pinpoints) is termed _________

A

proximal

164
Q

Progress monitoring focused on movement toward outcomes and curriculum-based measurement is termed _________

A

distal

165
Q

SCC: Describe the benefits of standard charting:

  • _________, absolute, _________
  • includes both ___________ of bx
  • uses ____________ units
  • standard visual display enables ease of _________
  • ease of __________ across bxs, settings, learners
  • celerations produce ________ _________
  • times _____ or greater celeration is both clinically and statistically significant
  • broad scale ________
A
  • standard, absolute, universal
  • properties
  • dimensional
  • interpretation
  • comparison
  • standard slopes
  • 2
  • impact
166
Q

When using the SCC, __________ becomes synonymous with intervention

A

assessment

167
Q

SCC: ________ and ________ are seemingly polar notions, but one informs the other

A

Precision, scope

168
Q

The primary founders of behavior analysis were:

A

Skinner and Fred Keller

169
Q

The university professor who has been the primary teacher of Skinner’s analysis of VB over the past 50 years is:

A

Jack Michael

170
Q

Developed the Assessment of Basic Learning Abilities (ABLA):

A

Meyerson

171
Q

Founder of JABA

A

M. Wolf

172
Q

The clinical researcher who was first to systematically apply Skinner’s analysis of VB to language assessment and intervention:

A

J Spradlin

173
Q

During the 70s, approximately 50 VB research projects were conducted at the _______ ________ Multihandicap Center

A

Kalamazoo Valley

174
Q

The ABLLS was created by:

A

Partington & Sundberg (1998)

175
Q

The VB-MAPP was created by:

A

Sundberg (2008)

176
Q

The purpose of language assessment is to determine the ________ _______ (aka baseline) of a child’s skills in order to compare it to typical language development data

A

operant level

177
Q

Traditional language assessments view _______ and/or ________ variables as the primary sources of control for verbal responses.

A

cognitive, biological

178
Q

In behavioral language assessments, the _______ ______ is the functional unit, and __________ _________ are viewed as the relevant sources of control for verbal responses.

A 
verbal operant (form and function)
environmental variables
179
Q

Most verbal operants are under ….

A

multiple sources of control

180
Q

The application of Skinner’s analysis of VB to language assessment suggests that language should be assessed in terms of its ______ and _______

A

form and function

181
Q

Skinner’s analysis of VB proposes that the unit of analysis in the measurement of language should be …

A

the ABC relation

182
Q

In addition to assessing the elementary verbal operants, it is also important to analyze and assess the _________ __________ that may be preventing verbal development

A

linguistic barriers

183
Q

The problem with assessment based on the traditional distinction between expressive and receptive language is that the categories _______ important distinctions between the verbal operants

A

blend

184
Q

The focus of traditional language assessment is on:

  • ________ form
  • _______ ________ of _________
  • age _______________
A
  • response form
  • mean length of utterance
  • age equivalents
185
Q

A standardized language assessment is …

A

norm-referenced

186
Q

List the 5 components of the VB-MAPP (important)

  • M_________ assessment
  • B_________ assessment
  • T_________ assessment
  • Skills ______ ________ and Tracking
  • ____________ and IEP Goals
A
  • Milestones Assessment
  • Barriers Assessment
  • Transition Assessment
  • Skills Task Analysis and Tracking
  • Placement and IEP Goals
187
Q

The VB-MAPP targets 16 verbal operants and related skills across 3 developmental levels:
Level 1 - ____ to ____ months
Level 2 - ____ to ____ months
Level 3 - ____ to ____ months

A

0-18 months
18-30 months
30-48 months

188
Q

The VB-MAPP Milestones Assessment covers the language skills of a typically developing child between 0 and _____ years old.

A

4

189
Q

Many of the early language skills emitted by typically developing children are _______ _________

A

multiply controlled

190
Q

The VB-MAPP Milestones Assessment should be conducted:

A

once a year

191
Q

The Early Echoic Skills Assessment (EESA) was developed by:

A

Barbara Esch

192
Q

The best results from a VB-MAPP assessment are obtained by someone who is:

  • formally trained in _______ _______
  • trained in ________ ________ of VB
  • has working knowledge of basic _________ ________ and grammar
A
  • behavior analysis
  • Skinner’s analysis
  • linguistic structure
193
Q

The VB-MAPP Barriers Assessment is scored using a _______ _______

A

Likert scale (0-4)

194
Q

Occurs when one Sd or MO alters the evocative effect of a second stimulus, and establishes the 2nd stimulus as an SD or MO, and they collectively evoke a response

A

Conditional Discrimination

195
Q

Most intraverbal behavior requires …

A

verbal conditional discriminations

196
Q

Typical children begin to emit intraverbal behavior when they are about ____ years old

A

2

197
Q

The VB-MAPP intraverbal subtest research found that children with autism made ________ errors as typical children who scored at their level

A

the same

198
Q

The VB-MAPP Intraverbal Subtest contains ____ intraverbal tasks that are _________ sequenced

A

80, developmentally

199
Q

The development of the Standard Celeration Chart focused classroom instruction on:

  • ______ ________ responding
  • __________ of response
  • __________ of learning
A
  • free-operant responding
  • frequency of response
  • celeration of learning
200
Q

List the 6 basic tenets of Skinner’s EAB:

  • __________ control operant behavior
  • the ________ knows best
  • work with _________ behavior
  • monitor _________ daily
  • use frequency as a ________, standard and ________ measure of behavior
  • use a ________ ________ for data
A
  • consequences control operant behavior
  • the learner knows best
  • work with observable behavior
  • monitor frequency daily
  • use frequency as a universal, standard, and absolute measure of behavior
  • use a standard display for data
201
Q

List the 4 values of the natural science for precision teaching:

  • be ______ when collecting data
  • be ______ to publish
  • be ______ and _______ about conclusions
  • collect _______ data than necessary
A
  • be tough when collecting data
  • be slow to publish
  • be careful and cautious about conclusions
  • collect more data than necessary
202
Q

Name 2 characteristics of developmental language assessments:

  • based on _________ and ________ distinctions
  • ______-__________
A
  • expressive and receptive

- norm-referenced

203
Q

List 3 characteristics of natural science:

  • an _________ approach
  • _________ analysis
  • _________ measurement
A
  • inductive approach
  • experimental analysis
  • standard measurement
204
Q

What is used to determine functional mastery criteria?

A

data on rates of responding

205
Q

List 3 challenges of standardized assessments:

  • difficult to ________ to a specific child
  • often conducted in a ________ environment
  • time-consuming to ________ __________
A
  • generalize
  • tightly controlled
  • norm reference
206
Q

The VB-MAPP does not assess ________________ after 18 months.

A

spontaneous vocal behavior

207
Q

In order to acquire an intraverbal, the learner must attend to the ________ rather than the ________ of the antecedent verbal stimulus.

A

content rather than the structure

208
Q

Children begin to turn toward sounds, respond to social smiles, and show very early imitation and babbling by ______

A

3 months

209
Q

Speech becomes a conditioned reinforcer for a child by _______

A

3 months

210
Q

A child typically responds to his name by ______

A

7 months

211
Q

Imitation and echoic skills begin to emerge by _____

A

12 months

212
Q

A child typically can look at a named picture by _______

A

12 months

213
Q

A child typically begins to respond to simple verbal requests by _________

A

12 months

214
Q

Early mands and tacts usually emerge around _______

A

12 months

215
Q

By 2 years old, typical children:

  • engage in _______ _______
  • begin to sort by _______ and _______
  • _________ items or pictures when named
  • use _______ word sentences
A
  • engage in social imitation
  • begin to sort by color/shape
  • points to items when named
  • uses 2-4 word sentences
216
Q

Sorting by shape or color typically emerges by age _____

A

2

217
Q

Pointing to items when named usually emerges by age _____

A

2

218
Q

The first skills to develop for typical children are (4):

A

mand, echoic, listener, tact

219
Q

A typically developing 2yo may have _______ mands and tacts

A

100-200

220
Q

A solid mand/tact repertoire (100-200) usually develops before ______, ________, matching to sample, or ___________.

A

matching, sorting, categorization

221
Q

Typical children understand “mine” and “his/hers” by age ____

A

3

222
Q

Match-to-sample skills typically emerge by age _____

A

3

223
Q

Pretend play skills typically develop by age _____

A

3

224
Q

A typical child can follow a 2-3 part direction at age ____

A

3

225
Q

A typically developing child understands simple position words by age _____

A

3

226
Q

A typical 2-year old emits _________ words per day

A

12-15,000

227
Q

A typical 3-year old uses ______ word sentences

A

4-5

228
Q

Typical 3 year olds emit _______ words per day

A

20,000

229
Q

At what age can a typical child state name, age and sex?

A

3

230
Q

At what age do pronouns emerge?

A

3

231
Q

At what age can most spoken words be understood by a stranger?

A

3

232
Q

Naming colors and counting typically emerge by age ____

A

4

233
Q

The concepts of “same” and “different” are typically understood by age _____

A

4

234
Q

By age 4, typical children speak in _____ word sentences

A

5-6

235
Q

A typical child can count 10+ objects, say name and address, and tell stories by age _____

A

5

236
Q

Young children may learn colors as ______, not ________

A

nouns, not adjectives

237
Q

It is important to consider typical language development when designing a language program because it:

  • allows further identification of the _________ of language
  • provides __________ on where to start and how to proceed
  • makes it possible to develop a __________ _________ as close as possible to that of a typical child
A
  • function
  • direction
  • language repertoire
238
Q

List 4 steps for beginning a VB intervention program:

  • Conduct a _______________
  • Determine the _________________
  • Determine _________ __________ and _________
  • Work on ___________ ________ skills
A
  • Conduct a VB-MAPP assessment
  • Determine the VB-MAPP level
  • Determine the skill strengths and weaknesses
  • Work on balancing out skills
239
Q

VB-MAPP: What content is primarily focused on with a Level 1 learner?

A

Mands

240
Q

VB-MAPP: List the preferred order of response forms from most to least preferred:

A

Speech, sign, PECS/AAC, written

241
Q

List the steps of developing a VB intervention program for a Level 1 learner:

  1. Identify _________ and _____ levels
  2. Identify _________ skills
  3. Identify _________ and conduct necessary ________
  4. Identify _________ _______
  5. Determine __________ levels
  6. Develop _______ ________ based on VB-MAPP scores
  7. ____________ and data collection
  8. _______ vs ________
  9. Prepare the _________ ________
  10. Daily _________
  11. _________ training
A
  1. Identify reinforcers and MO levels
  2. Identify existing skills
  3. Identify barriers and conduct necessary descriptive/functional analyses
  4. Identify response form
  5. Determine baseline levels
  6. Develop IEP goals based on VB-MAPP scores
  7. Measurement and data collection
  8. DTT vs NET
  9. Prepare the teaching setting (materials, data sheets, reinforcers)
  10. Daily schedule
  11. Parent training
242
Q

Name 3 ways to fade an echoic prompt:

A
  • delayed prompt
  • partial echoic prompt
  • combination of delayed and partial prompt
243
Q

List the steps of the stimulus transfer procedure:

  1. Present target Sd and _______ prompt (“What do you want?”
  2. If correct … reinforce
  3. If incorrect, present _______ prompt
  4. If correct response, repeat #1 (_______ _______)
  5. Add __________
  6. Repeat ________
A
  1. Present target Sd (eg. hold up bubbles) and verbal prompt
  2. If correct, reinforce
  3. If incorrect, present echoic prompt
  4. If correct response, repeat #1 (transfer trial) “Say ….”
  5. Add distracter trial (e.g., imitation)
  6. Repeat cycle with more distracters
244
Q

When training on mands and tacts, use _________ data

A

first trial

245
Q

List 6 important skills to teach early learners in a VB program:

A

mand, tact, echoic, imitation, listener responding, match to sample

246
Q

Match-to-sample skills can help develop the following skills:

  • advanced _________ and __________
  • natural environment training
  • listener ___________
  • _________
  • IV ____________
A
  • advanced scanning and attending
  • NET
  • listener discrimination
  • LRFFC
  • IV categorization
247
Q

Distracter trials are used to strengthen _________ and __________ control

A

stimulus, motivational

248
Q

After several nouns are acquired as tacts, training should begin on:

A

verbs

249
Q

Echoic skills can be increased by using a _______ context and ________ procedures

A

mand, pairing

250
Q

List skills that staff/parents need for an effective VB program:

  • basic _________ teaching procedures
  • how to ________ _________
  • elementary ________ _________
  • child __________ skills
A
  • basic behavioral teaching procedures (prompting, fading, reinforcement)
  • how to collect data
  • the elementary verbal operants
  • child management skills
251
Q

Stimulus control means that a _________ ________ evokes a __________ _________

A

particular stimulus, particular response

252
Q

When a particular stimulus evokes a particular response, _________ __________ has occurred

A

stimulus control

253
Q

A main objective of the VB approach is ….

A

stimulus control

254
Q

Stimulus control allows a child to _________ between different items

A

discriminate

255
Q

Most child management skills are ______ ______

A

common sense

256
Q

The two major components of parent/staff training for language programming are:

  1. Knowledge of basic ________ _________ procedures
  2. Knowledge of the _______ ________
A

behavior modification procedures

verbal operants

257
Q

The meaning of a response is found in the _________

A

antecedent (“Why” did the learner respond by picking up the car?)

258
Q

Match to sample, receptive ID, RFFC and intraverbals all involve __________ ____________

A

conditional discriminations

259
Q

A discrimination in which reinforcement of responding during a stimulus depends on other stimuli

A

conditional discrimination

260
Q

When the nature or extent of operant control by a stimulus condition depends on some other stimulus condition

A

conditional discrimination

261
Q

In a MTS task, what behavior is evoked by presenting the sample stimulus (Sd)?

A

scanning

262
Q

In a MTS task, what behavior is evoked by seeing the target item in the field (Sd)?

A

selection

263
Q

If a learner is making errors with RFFC or intraverbal tasks, look for errors in the _______ tasks

A

matching-to-sample (scanning/selection responses)

264
Q

Learner errors during conditional discrimination tasks may include:

  • _______ stimulus control
  • defective _________
  • weak conditional discriminations
  • difficulty with _______ _______
  • difficulty with _______ _______ in the array
A
  • establishing verbal stimulus control
  • defective scanning
  • weak conditional discriminations (esp auditory to visual)
  • difficulty with large arrays and NET
  • difficulty with similar stimuli
265
Q

When teaching MTS skills, make sure to include all the following variables in training:

  • size of _______
  • size and ___________ of the stimuli
  • similar _________ in array
  • adding __________
  • using different ________, _______ and _______
  • finding the item in its ________ __________
A
  • size of array
  • size and orientation of stimuli
  • similar stimuli in array
  • adding a background
  • using different colors, shapes and styles
  • finding the item in its natural context
266
Q

Conduct the VB-MAPP Intraverbal subtest if the child’s Milestones score is entering _______

A

Level 2

267
Q

In a ________ class, several different stimuli (car, bus, train) can evoke the same response (vehicle)

A

stimulus

268
Q

In a _________ class, one stimulus (vehicle) can evoke several different responses

A

response

269
Q

Fill ins:

  • are not used in _______ language

- act as prompts for teaching ______

A
  • are not used in everyday language

- act as prompts for teaching WH questions

270
Q

The goal of advanced verbal training is to:

  • avoid establishing ______ _________
  • expand the ________ and _________ of verbal stimuli and responses
A
  • avoid establishing rote responding
  • expand content and variation

NOT to teach new words

271
Q

Task materials and relevant instructions do not occasion predetermined level of performance in absence of prompts

A

Skill deficit

272
Q

The skill is intact, but the person is unmotivated to respond under appropriate stimulus conditions

A

Performance deficit

273
Q

Performance deficits can be accurately distinguished from skill deficits on basis of whether __________ __________ for correct responding rapidly increases accuracy

A

supplemental reinforcement

274
Q

Occurs when some property of responding is gradually changed by differentially reinforcing successive approximations to target behavior

A

Shaping

275
Q

_______ ________ specify changes in reinforcement criteria (based on latency, effort, location or duration) as bx moves toward the shaping target.

A

Percentile schedules

276
Q

Name 2 methods to increase response diversity:

A
  • extinction induced variability

- lag reinforcement schedules

277
Q

The ultimate goal of prompting is to promote _______ ________

A

independent responding

278
Q

An _________ reward is naturally related to the responses that produce it

A

intrinsic

279
Q

An _________ reward is arbitrarily related to the responses that produce it

A

extrinsic

280
Q

This theory states that “Reinforcement contingencies (extrinsic rewards) lead to decrements in enjoyment (intrinsic rewards) and thus result in decreases in engagement”

A

Overjustification

281
Q

List 3 factors that may account for what appears to be lessened intrinsic motivation when reinforcement is used:

A
  • satiation
  • contrast effects
  • learned helplessness (“It doesn’t matter how well I do”)
282
Q

Changes in rate of reinforcement under one condition can produce an opposite change in rate of responding in another condition

A

contrast effects

283
Q

Under what conditions do overjustification effects appear to be more pronounced?

A

when bx is already occurring at a high level

284
Q

List 4 experimental arrangements for reinforcer assessments:

A
  • single operant
  • concurrent schedule
  • progressive ratio
  • demand curves
285
Q

A single reinforcer schedule is arranged for a specific response in a ________ ________ reinforcer assessment

A

Single operant

286
Q

The most common type of reinforcer assessment is ______ _______

A

single operant

287
Q

The dependent variable in a single operant reinforcer assessment is:

A

rate of response/frequency

288
Q

A concurrent schedule reinforcer assessment is _______ sensitive to relative reinforcer effectiveness than a single operant assessment.

A

more

289
Q

In a concurrent schedule reinforcer assessment, the dependent variable is relative _________ _________ across available alternatives

A

response allocation

290
Q

Concurrent schedule reinforcer assessments may be sensitive to small differences in __________ reinforcer value. However, just because an item is less preferred in a concurrent schedule, it may still be an effective reinforcer in an _________ sense

A

relative, absolute

291
Q

A single-operant reinforcer assessment may mask differences in ________ reinforcer efficacy

A

relative

292
Q

A concurrent schedule reinforcer assessment may mask __________ _________ for lower preference stimuli.

A

reinforcer effects (lower preference items may still be effective reinforcers)

293
Q

In a progressive ratio reinforcer assessment, the session ends when the learner:

A

stops responding for a specified period of time

294
Q

The dependent variable in a progressive ratio reinforcer assessment is the ______ ______, which is the value of the ______ _________ schedule requirement

A

“break point”, last completed

295
Q

“All else being equal, as unit price increases, demand (consumption) decreases. And vice versa.”

A

Law of Demand

296
Q

A demand curve reinforcer assessment relates to ______ _______ of the item, and the ______ _______ that is consumed

A

unit price, total amount

297
Q

A ___________ __________ reinforcer assessment may mask differences in relative reinforcer efficacy

A

single operant

298
Q

A __________ __________ reinforcer assessment may mask reinforcer effects for lower preference stimuli

A

concurrent schedule

299
Q

Describe the 2-step process for identifying reinforcers:

A
  1. Conduct preference assessment to determine predictions about relative reinforcer efficacy
  2. Test predictions using a reinforcer assessment
300
Q

List the 3 general categories of preference assessments:

A
  • indirect assessment (client/caregiver report)
  • naturalistic (in-vivo) direct observation
  • direct assessment (free operant or approach based)
301
Q

Which general type of preference assessment is most accurate?

A

direct assessment

302
Q

Which general type of preference assessment is generally least effortful?

A

indirect assessment

303
Q

According to Graff and Karsten (2012), which preference assessment method was most commonly used across all respondents?

A

informal observation (in-vivo)

304
Q

According to Cote et al. (2007), which of the following best describes the outcomes of the comparisons of teacher and SPA ranking?

A

negative correlation in 5/9 cases

305
Q

List 4 approach/selection-based preference assessments:

A

single item, paired stimulus, MSW, MSWO

306
Q

In approach/selection-based preference assessment, hierarchies are derived from calculations of the number of times a stimulus is _________ given the number of times each is _________

A

selected, available

307
Q

Which preference assessment method presents one item at a time, measures whether or not approach occurs, and creates a hierarchy based on approaches/trials?

A

Single-item, approach method

308
Q

Which preference assessment is prone to false positives?

A

single stimulus

309
Q

Which preference assessment method may be more sensitive to relative preferences and allows one to include a large number of stimuli?

A

paired stimulus

310
Q

List two types of duration-based preference assessments:

A
  • single item

- free operant / multiple stimulus

311
Q

o Duration based assessments used also to determine the extent to which stimuli displace problem behavior

A

Competing stimulus preference assessment

312
Q

Name the two measures used in a competing stimulus preference assessment:

A
  • stimulus engagement

- problem behavior

313
Q

List 3 variables to consider when selecting a preference assessment method:

A
  • abilities
  • position biases
  • problem behavior
314
Q

Two preference assessment options for individuals with limited motor skills are:

A
  • microswitches

- indices of happiness

315
Q

List 3 possible methods to treat position bias:

A
  • quality training (choice btw preferred / nonpreferred)
  • magnitude training (magnitude of 1 stimulus 5x greater)
  • error correction (blocking the incorrect selection on repeated trials)
316
Q

List 3 alternative ways to arrange stimuli for individuals with position biases:

A
  • place stimuli vertically
  • hold stimuli in front of the learner
  • place stimuli in opposite corners of the room
317
Q

Conyers et al compared accuracy while comparing 3 preference assessment conditions - objects, spoken words, or pictures - and found that _______ and ________ preference assessments should be reserved for individuals with established __________ abilities

A

verbal, pictoral - discrimination

318
Q

List 3 considerations when selecting a stimulus preference assessment:

A
  • time available
  • function of problem bx
  • whether the stimulus can be delivered immediately after selection
319
Q

_______ preference assessments require less time to implement than _______ and DeLeon and Iwata (1996) found that they generated similar preference hierarchies

A

MSWO, paired stimulus

320
Q

If you wish to include a large number of stimuli, use a _______ ________ preference assessment, or a _______ ________ if time allows

A

single stimulus, paired stimulus

321
Q

Hanley et al evaluated preference using pictures and found that in most cases, ___________ preference hierarchies established only when selected items were immediately ________ following selection

A

differentiated, delivered

322
Q

If time is limited, which preference assessment would perhaps be LEAST appropriate?

A

paired stimulus

323
Q

According to the study by Kang et al., which PA method was NOT likely to evoke problem bx maintained by tangibles?

A

free operant

324
Q

According to the study by Kang et al., which PA method was most likely to evoke problem bx maintained by attention?

A

free operant

325
Q

Fisher et al found that top-ranked items identified by caregiver predictions based upon _____ were more preferred than the top-ranked items identified by predictions based upon a _______ _______ of items

A

RAISD, standard list

326
Q

Describe what is meant by the ecological fit of reinforcer:

  • Is it easily _________?
  • Does it ______ much?
  • Does it fit ____________ in the environment in which it will be used?
  • Can its use cause other ________ _________?
  • Does its ____________ wane easily?
  • Does its _________ disrupt ongoing behavior?
A

Is it easily replenished?
Does it cost much?
Does it fit naturally in the environment in which it will be used?
Can its use cause other sorts of detrimental effects?
Does its effectiveness wane easily across short periods of time?
Does its delivery disrupt ongoing behavior?

327
Q

According to the reinforcer selection flowchart suggested by DeLeon et al (2013), which type of stimulus should be considered first?

A

Social reinforcers / praise

328
Q

What has been revealed by research examining preference assessments that include mixed arrays?

A

food items often displace leisure items

329
Q

According to research conducted by Graff and Karsten (2012), which type of stimulus were respondents most likely to report using as reinforcers?

A

social reinforcers

330
Q

Two strategies that have been used for assessing preference for social stimuli are:

A
  • pictorial assessments

- alternating social consequence as a reinforcer vs. extinction condition

331
Q

When pairing social stimuli with primary reinforcers, “noncontingent pairing” refers to:

A

Primary reinforcers delivered freely and attention is consistently provided during consumption

332
Q

When pairing social stimuli with primary reinforcers, “contingent pairing” refers to:

A

Primary reinforcers and attention simultaneously provide contingent on the completion of a task

333
Q

Dozier et al attempted to pair social stimuli with primary reinforcers and found that __________ pairing was ineffective and _________ pairing was effective in about half of cases.

A

non-contingent, contingent

334
Q

Preference assessment: If the individual has the requisite visual scanning and motor skills, ___________ assessment should be used if time permits, __________ if time is limited.

A

paired stimulus, MSWO

335
Q

Preference assessment: If motor skills are intact but the individual cannot visually scan an array of stimuli, the _________ assessment may be most appropriate.

A

single stimulus

336
Q

Preference assessment: For individuals with side biases, the _________ or _________ assessments should be considered if training to overcome the side bias proves ineffective.

A

single stimulus, free operant

337
Q

Preference assessment: Complex stimuli can be assessed through the use of pictorial or verbal preference assessments if the individual has the requisite _______ _______ skills (visual MTS for the pictorial assessment and auditory MTS for the verbal assessment).

A

identity matching

338
Q

When identifying the items to be included in the preference assessment, one should consider both the _________ fit and likely _________

A

ecological, effectiveness

339
Q

Which preference assessment should one NOT use if an individual has problem bx maintained by attention?

A

free operant

SAFMEDS 2020 (13 decks)

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