BEHP 5018 Part 2 Flashcards
Graff and Karsten (2012) found that BCBAs reported conducting full scale preference assessments:
less than once a month
Zhou et al (2001) looked at correlation of PS preference assessment and found _____ correlation of rank-order preference over a 12-20 month period.
low
Individuals with ASD seem to have _______ stable preferences than individuals without ASD
more
Food preferences seem to be ______ stable than preferences for leisure items
more
DeLeon et al (2001) compared the results of a lengthy one-time PS assessment (top ranked item) and daily brief MSWO assessments (top ranked item) and found that the item chosen in the ________ assessment was generally a more effective reinforcer
daily
Research conducted by Zhou et al (2001) has suggested greater stability in stimuli ranked in what part of the preference hierarchy?
top
Which of the following has been suggested as a determining factor in whether or not frequent preference assessments help increase accuracy?
if preferences vary
According to a survey by Graff and Karsten (2012), how often did most BCBAs say they conducted mini preference assessments?
several times a day
The effectiveness of a reinforcer refers to both its _________ capacity to support responses that produce it and its utility in producing ________ behavior change
momentary, long-term
The studies by Hanley et al on changing preferences found that enhancing an activity with ________ _________ reinforcement can temporarily shift choices towards that activity
supplemental contingent
The studies by Hanley et al on changing preferences found that noncontingent pairing of an activity with established preferred stimuli can ________ shift choices towards that activity
temporarily
The studies by Hanley et al on changing preferences found that effects of pairing procedures appear to be ________
transient
List 4 determinants of stimulus value:
delay, rate, quality, magnitude
Generally, delays to reinforcement can ________ the effectiveness of behavioral arrangements and result in ________ in the value of a reinforcer
weaken, decreases
When delays occur, primary, directly consumable reinforcers are discounted ______ _______ than conditioned reinforcers
more steeply
Leon et al assessed delayed food, delayed tokens, and immediate tokens w/delayed exchange and found that:
- delayed _______ produced greatest persistence
- delayed _______ produced most rapid decreases in responding
- immediate token delivery with a delayed exchange opportunity equaled or ______ effects of delayed food
o
food, tokens, exceeded
In the Leon et al study of delayed reinforcement, which item produced the greatest persistence?
delayed food
In the Leon et al study of delayed reinforcement, which item produced the most rapid decreases in responding?
delayed tokens
Organisms will distribute behavior among concurrently available alternatives in the same proportion that reinforcers are distributed among those alternatives.
Matching law
Quality of reinforcement is conceptualized in terms of:
level of preference (higher preference = better quality)
Magnitude of reinforcement can vary according to:
quantity, intensity or duration
Research examining the effects of reinforcer quality has generally suggested that:
better quality reinforcers may function as more potent reinforcers
Research examining the effects of delay to reinforcement has generally suggested that:
delays can decrease the value of a reinforcer
When thinning schedules of reinforcement, consider the ________ of reinforcement
magnitude
An establishing operation is an environmental event, operation, or stimulus condition that serves the following two functions:
- a reinforcer establishing function
- evocative function
A reinforcer establishing function _______ alters the reinforcing effectiveness of other events
momentarily
An _________ __________ momentarily alters the frequency of occurrence of the type of behaviors that produces those other events as a consequence
evocative function
Momentarily increases the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus and momentarily increases the frequency of bx that produces the stimulus as a consequence
stimulus deprivation
Momentarily decreases the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus and momentarily decreases the frequency of bx that produces the stimulus as a consequence
stimulus satiation
The results of a study conducted by Vollmer and Iwata examining rates of simple responses under conditions of deprivation and satiation revealed that _________ decreased mean response rate
satiation
Imports principles of microeconomics to the study of operant behavior
Behavioral economics
Behavioral economics -
In economics, goods and services
In behavioral economics, reinforcers
commodities
Behavioral economics -
In economics, price paid per unit of a commodity
In bx economics, number of responses “paid” per unit of reinforcer
unit price
Behavioral economics -
In economics, total quantity of a commodity consumed, typically at the population level
In bx economics, total amount of a reinforcer obtained per unit of time, typically at the individual level
consumption
Behavioral economics -
sensitivity to price – the extent to which changes in unit price influence consumption of the commodity
elasticity of demand
Behavioral economics -
changes in price produce less than proportional changes in consumption (e.g., 1% increase in price produces < 1% decrease in consumption)
inelastic demand
Behavioral economics -
changes in price produce larger than proportional changes in consumption (e.g., 1% increase in price produces >1% decrease in consumption)
elastic demand
Behavioral economics -
Stimuli with equivalent initial consumption (under low cost conditions) may have very different ______ ______
demand profiles
Behavioral economics -
consumption of reinforcer not dependent on responding within earning context
open economy
Behavioral economics -
consumption of reinforcer entirely dependent on responding within earning context
closed economy
Behavioral economics -
Greater defense of consumption (less elastic curves) occurs under ________ economies than _______ economies
closed, open
Behavioral economics -
Demand is ______ elastic when substitutable reinforcers are concurrently available
more
Behavioral economics -
Consumption _______ more rapidly as price or delay increases when the alternative is functionally similar
declines
Zhou et al found low rank-order correlation over time for leisure preferences, while Ciccone et al found higher correlations for food preferences. What factors may account for this?
- different number of _________
- food preferences may be ______ ______ across time
- different ________ between initial and follow-up assessments
- different number of participants (22 vs 8)
- food preferences may be more stable across time
- different intervals between initial and follow-up assessments
Studies comparing the effectiveness of a stimulus chosen via initial preference assessment before the study and brief MSWO before daily training found that more frequent assessments were _______ helpful in identifying functional reinforcers.
sometimes
The Hanley et al studies on reinforcer effectiveness found that:
- reinforcement delivered for a less preferred activity can…
- ___________ of __________ will shift from an high to a low-preference activity after pairing
- effects appear to be _________
- reinforcement delivered for a less preferred activity can increase choice for that activity
- distribution of responding will shift from an high to a low-preference activity after pairing
- effects appear to be transient
List 7 determinants of stimulus value:
- delay, ______, quality and _________
- M_________ __________
- B_________ __________
- C_________
- A__________ and continuity
- Stimulus _________
- C________
- delay, rate, quality and magnitude
- motivating operations
- behavioral economics
- contingency
- accumulation and continuity
- stimulus variation
- choice
Studies on the effects of motivating operations on preference and reinforcer assessment results demonstrated that:
- states of deprivation _______ _________
- states of deprivation increase ________ of _________
- states of satiation generally do not _________ rates of responding
- states of deprivation increase preference
- states of deprivation increase rates of responding
- states of satiation generally do not decrease rates of responding
Demand curves vary with the ________ of alternatives
similarity
When problem behavior continues to be reinforced or when reinforcement of appropriate behavior needs to be thinned, _________ reinforcers will be more durable
dissimilar
Accumulated access, mediated through a token system:
- is _______ by learners
- supports ________ work
- supports greater ________ of work
- is preferred by learners
- supports faster work
- supports greater overall quantity of work
The Egel study on the effects of stimulus variation found that using the same reinforcer resulted in a ______ in percent correct and a ________ in percent on-task responding.
decrease, decrease
The Egel study on the effects of stimulus variation found that both percent on task and percent correct _______ with the delivery of varied reinforcers.
sustained at higher levels
Research on the effects of choice on stimulus value found that more learners preferred __________ choice to __________ choice. _________ choice supported higher rates of responding.
within session preferred over pre-session
within session supported higher rates
Research on the effects of choice on stimulus value found that more learners preferred _______ over _______ conditions
choice, no-choice - even though it was for the same reinforcers (red M&Ms)
Research on the effects of choice on stimulus value found that choice does / does not support higher rates of responding
does not
Assuming that a reinforcement contingency is correctly implemented, no change in responding may result from:
- ________ external contingencies that were not needed
- procedural __________ between the response and its outcome
- contrived
- mismatches
If a reinforcement contingency results in a decrease in responding, what are three possible explanations?
- o_________
- p_________
- d_________ properties of reinforcer
- overjustification
- punishment (learner prefers the task)
- discriminative properties of reinforcer (evokes a competing bx)
In rank-order correlation, a correlation of one indicates:
perfect correlation
In a study on shifts in preference over short time periods, researchers found more stability in preferences for ________ vs _________ stimuli
edible over non-edible
Despite more stability in preference for edible over non-edible stimuli, it is not a good idea to assess edibles less frequently because of ________ ________
individual differences
Trosclair-Lasserre (2008) study on effects of different reinforcer magnitudes on preference and reinforcer
efficacy found that:
- the ______ _______ of the discrepancy between magnitude of reinforcers might influence preferences
- learners might not be initially ______ to small discrepancies between magnitudes of reinforcers
- small discrepancies between magnitudes of reinforcers may produce ________
- absolute level
- sensitive
- indifference
Consumption ___ more rapidly as delay ___ when alternative is functionally similar
decreases, increases
Demand for luxury goods is ___ elastic than demand for necessary goods
more
There is a greater defense of consumption (less elastic curves) under ___ economies than ___ economies
closed, open
List 5 procedural mismatches that may result in a reinforcement contingency that does not increase responding:
- the stimulus used was not a ________
- the stimulus was not a reinforcer under the ______ ________ in which it was arranged
- the stimulus used was _______ a reinforcer under these conditions
- a response-reinforcer contingency was _______ but not __________
- the stimulus followed the ______ _______
- reinforcer
- specific conditions
- no longer
- arranged, contacted
- wrong response
In the study by Graff and Karsten, _____% of BCBAs reported never conducting full-scale preference assessments, while _____% reported conducting mini preference assessments at least daily
10%, 50%
In studies on shifts in preference, Ciccone studied ______ items, while Zhou studied _______ items
edible, leisure
Effectiveness of a reinforcer can refer to:
- ________ capacity to support responses that produce it
- utility in production of ________ behavior change
- momentary
- long term
List 4 strategies for incorporating a variety of reinforcers:
- frequent ______ _______
- stimulus ______
- pre-session _______
- ________ reinforcer choice
- frequent preference assessment
- stimulus variation
- pre-session selection
- post-response reinforcer choice
List 3 factors that may influence the elasticity of demand:
- _______ on income
- open vs closed ________
- nature of available ________
- constraints on income
- open vs closed economies
- nature of available alternatives
Interventions that involve ______ reinforcers are typically more durable than interventions that involve ______ reinforcers
contingent, noncontingent
DeLeon et al studied accumulated vs distributed reinforcers and found higher mean rates of responding in the ______ condition
accumulated
Accumulated access, mediated through tokens:
- supports _____ work
- supports greater overall _____ of work
- is _____ by learners
- supports faster work
- supports greater overall quantity of work
- is preferred by learners
When yoking is used in research on choice, the experimenter selects the reinforcer based on …
the order chosen by the learner in the preceding choice condition (imperfect b/c preferences may change)
Summarize conclusions of research on choice:
- no effect found in ______ _____
- preference for choice in _______ ________
- choice may be ________ but not always _______
- single operant
- concurrent schedule
- choice may be preferable but is not always beneficial (does not usually improve performance)
The influence of past events on current behavior is termed …
reinforcement history
List 3 examples of behavior resulting from reinforcement history:
- behavior that ________ in particular contexts during extinction
- responding that occurs at ________ high or low rates
- __________ bx that doesn’t match current contingencies
- persists
- unnecessarily
- rule-governed
A central tenet of behavior analysis is that reinforcement history influences responding _______
day to day
In research on reinforcement history, the target schedules are typically ______ _______ schedules
fixed interval
______ ______ schedules may be particularly sensitive to reinforcement history effects
fixed interval
Fixed interval schedules don’t select against particular ______ or patterns of ________
rates, responding
- responses during the interval do not influence delivery of the reinforcer
- response rates can vary widely without affecting reinforcement rate
Reinforcement history effects may be more influential when particular histories are correlated with distinct ______
stimuli
Alleman and Zeiler (1974) found that FT target schedules were affected by DRL or FR histories:
- response rates were ______ during FT after DRL
- response rates were ______ during FT after FR
low, high
Due to reinforcement history effects, if a clinician wants to suppress responding with a time-based schedule, reinforcement rates on the response-dependent baseline and time-based schedule should be ______
different
Due to reinforcement history effects, if a clinician wants to maintain responding with a time-based schedule, reinforcement rates on the response-dependent baseline and time-based schedule should be ______
similar / yoked
An unconditioned reinforcer functions as a reinforcer under _____ conditions without prior learning
some
A reinforcer does not function as a reinforcer strictly because it elicits a _______
reflex (such as salivation)
There must be an EO that increases the value of the stimulus
When we refer to a generalized conditioned reinforcer, we are referring to generalization across a wide variety of ________
Motivation Operation conditions (not behaviors)
Breaking a response-reinforcer dependency, resulting in gradual reduction of response rate
operant extinction
No longer pairing a conditioned and unconditioned stimulus, resulting in the conditioned stimulus no longer producing the conditioned response
respondent extinction
When using operant extinction to reduce behavior, it is most important to match the extinction procedure to the _______
function of the behavior
Extinction results in a _______ reduction in responding
gradual
List 4 response-generating effects of extinction:
- A_________
- E_________ _________
- R_________ _________
- T_________ _________
- aggression
- emotional outbursts
- response variation
- treatment relapse
Extinction-induced aggression is likely to be a _______ behavior
respondent (probably not immediately sensitive to consequences)
A group of responses varying in topography, all of which have the same effect on the environment
Response class
Recovery of previously treated responding, typically occurring when there is some disruption to the treatment
treatment relapse
List 3 possible causes of treatment relapse:
- return to a _______ in which problem bx was previously reinforced
- inconsistent ________
- addition of _________ previously associated with problem bx
- context
- implementation
- reinforcers
Form of treatment relapse associated with changes in context
renewal
Form of treatment relapse associated with increased exposure to extinction
resurgence
e.g., may occur with more intermittent implementation of a DRA
Response reduction happens more quickly after continuous reinforcement than intermittent reinforcement (maybe)
Partial reinforcement extinction effect (PREE)
PREE may be an ______ of different baseline response rates (reinforcement history)
artifact
The influence of recent reinforcement history, causing bx to change gradually during exposure to new contingencies
transition state
History effects may define ______ _______
transition states (influence of reinforcement history causing bx to change gradually during exposure to new contingencies)
In reversal designs, reinforcement history may cause _______ ________
sequential confounding
one phase follows another, so effects cannot be separated from history with previous phase
An extreme form of sequential confounding is termed ________
irreversibility
When planning for reinforcement history effects in reversal designs, __________ order of conditions
counterbalance
In multiple baseline designs, reinforcement history effects may lead to __________ across responses or settings
generalization
may be desirable clinically, but bad for experimental control
When planning for reinforcement history effects in multiple baseline designs, select baselines that are not too closely _______ or use _________ designs
related, combined
In multielement designs, reinforcement history effects can cause __________ effects
carryover
especially when conditions are not easily discriminable
When planning for reinforcement history effects in multi element designs, use clear _________ ________, _________ order of conditions, and provide ______ between sessions
discriminative stimuli (signal which condition is in effect)
counterbalance (allows for assessment of carryover)
- time
In changing criterion designs, reinforcement history effects may cause the organism to _____ ______ if the reinforcement schedule is increased too fast
stop responding (ratio strain)
When planning for reinforcement history effects in changing criterion designs, increase response requirements __________, but don’t stay at any step for too long.
gradually
establish a reinforcement history at intermediary steps
In changing criterion designs, considering ________ _______ is a critical feature of the design
reinforcement history
When studying the Partial Reinforcement Extinction Effect, control for differences in baseline rates of responding by measuring the _______ of responding during extinction
proportion
The Lerman et al study of the PREE found a ______ ______ effect for 2 participants
reverse PREE
During _____ states the influence of recent reinforcement causes behavior to change gradually during exposure to new contingencies
transition
During ______ states responding is controlled by current contingencies rather than by an interaction between current and historical contingencies
steady
Lerman et al. (1996) found _______ responding during extinction following continuous reinforcement than intermittent reinforcement, particularly when resistance was examined as proportion of baseline responding
more
OBM is a sub-discipline of _______
ABA
List the 4 sub-divisions of OBM:
- performance management
- behavior based safety
- behavioral systems analysis
- performance based pay
The most straightforward application of ABA in a business setting is _________
performance management
Involves analyzing individual or small groups of employees and modifying the environment to improve performance
Performance management
Equitably aligns the contingencies in an organization so that the better the employees and company do, the more money they can make, all things being equal
Performance based pay
A system with input, an entity that changes its behavior in response to conditions outside its boundaries
Open system
Open systems are _______ to external events
very responsive
List Abernathy’s 7 Sins of Wages:
- f_____ c______ pay
- pay for ______
- corporate _________
- performance-based _________
- management by _________
- management by _________
- __________ thinking
- fixed cost pay (expected yearly raise)
- pay for time (job expands to fill time available)
- corporate socialism (rewards underperformers/punishes overperformers)
- performance based promotions (promotions are the only way to increase wages)
- management by perception (subjective)
- management by exception (excessive use of negative reinforcement)
- entitlement thinking (company owes me)
Some effects of using excessive negative reinforcement are:
- performance to the _______ standard
- restricted _________
- __________ relationships
- e________
- may make negative reinforcement _____ effective
- performance to the minimum standard
- restricted innovation
- adversarial relationships
- excuses
- may make negative reinforcement less effective
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan is based upon a ranking, supervisor rating, company performance or peer assessment
Merit increase
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan is based on manager discretion and becomes an expectation
Annual bonus
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan may have a tax benefit, but is subject to restrictions of repeatability
Stock options
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan is based on year end profit but is non-contingent
Profit sharing
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan pays based on expense reduction and may promote cooperation, but is self-limiting over time
Gain sharing
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan generates high production but may not control for quality or safety and is limited to a single output that requires high volume
Piece rate
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan generates high production but may encourage unethical behavior, discourages cooperation, and is not indexed to company profitability
Sales commission
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan involves setting goals and paying out when goals are met, but may pay out when the company is unprofitable
Goal Sharing
Traditional performance pay plans:
This plan uses a scorecard which is multiplied by an incentive opportunity, but is not linked to company profitability
Goal Sharing Budget
The best traditional alternative to PFP is ______ _______
goal sharing
Performance-Based Pay: List the areas to include on the organizational scorecard: - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ control - p\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ - c\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ - s\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ - r\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ c\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ - c\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ s\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ - s\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ p\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
- expense control
- productivity
- cash flow
- sales
- regulatory compliance
- customer service
- strategic projects
Performance-Based Pay:
On an organizational scorecard, ________ refers to a ratio of employee output to labor hours
productivity
Performance-Based Pay:
On an organizational scorecard, ______ ______ refers to payables collections and inventory
cash flow
Performance-Based Pay:
List the steps for developing an organizational scorecard:
1. Select _______ to include
2. Decide the _______ of each category
3. List a specific ________ that impacts the category
4. Decide ________ and ________ in each category
5. List ______ and assign _______ based on what they can influence
- Select areas to include
- Decide the weight of each category
- List a specific measure that impacts the category
- Decide the measures and ranges of each category
- List jobs and assign weights based on what they can influence
Performance-Based Pay:
To accurately measure employee targets by priority, use a _______ ________
performance scorecard
Performance-Based Pay:
PIPP stands for …
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Percent of monthly salary eligible for incentives
Basis percent
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Score from scorecard
Performance index (PI) score
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Ranges from 0.0 to 3.0 based upon company profit
Company multiplier
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
State the formula for calculating incentive pay:
Salary x Basis % x PI Score x Company Multiplier
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Amount of money the company needs to cover expenses
Threshold
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
All wages multiplied by the basis %
Exposure
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Explain how to calculate company exposure
Multiply total wages by the basis %
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
If you calculate the multiplier scale at levels smaller than the whole organization, you may lose the ability to tie employee performance to _________ ________
organizational results
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
Explain how to calculate the amount for 1 on the multiplier scale
Divide exposure by % of profit sharing (e.g., .50) and then add the threshold amount
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay:
On the multiplier scale, 0 equals the ________
threshold
Performance-Based Pay: List the steps for transitioning from a conventional system to PFP: Level 1 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Focus Level 2 - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Pay Level 3 - Job \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Level 4 - Self-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Employees
Level 1 - Results Focus
Level 2 - Stakeholder Pay
Level 3 - Job Enrichment
Level 4 - Self-Managing Employees
Performance-Based Pay:
Which transition step involves creation of objective measurement, scorecard development, and implementation of performance management?
Level 1
Performance-Based Pay:
Which transition step involves employees giving up part of their base pay to receive a greater opportunity to earn based upon performance?
Level 2
Performance-Based Pay:
Which transition step involves a hiring freeze, flexible scheduling and work prospecting?
Level 3
Performance-Based Pay:
Which transition step involves training team leaders and a manager hiring freeze?
Level 4
Performance-Based Pay: List 3 base pay options: - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ freeze - reinstate raises \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in base pay
- permanent freeze
- reinstate raises below market value
- reduction in base pay
Performance-Based Pay:
When implementing a voluntary pay reduction, each one percent of salary given up should be be offset by a ______ percent incentive opportunity
3
Performance-Based Pay:
Voluntary pay reductions should be implemented in level ______
2
Performance-Based Pay:
Training employees to do other jobs within the company is termed ________
cross-utilization
Performance-Based Pay:
Increasing the job functions of a specific position is termed ________
job enlargement
Performance-Based Pay:
Increasing the authority of a specific position is termed _______
job enrichment
Performance-Based Pay:
Allowing employees to work fewer hours is termed ________
flexible scheduling
Performance-Based Pay:
Special projects, marketing, and contracting to outside organizations is termed _______
work prospecting
Performance-Based Pay:
Staff hiring freezes are implemented in Phase _____, while management hiring freezes are implemented in Phase _____
3, 4
Performance-Based Pay:
The most important role of managers in a PFP system is to facilitate _________ ___________
employee achievement
Performance-Based Pay:
Long et al demonstrated that PFP was ____ in increasing performance but was not preferred by _____ of the participants
effective, some
Profit-Indexed Performance Pay: List the steps for computing the multiplier scale: 1. Create the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 2. Calculate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 3. Determine how much \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to share 4. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the scores
- Create the threshold
- Calculate exposure
- Determine how much profit to share
- Prorate the scores
Which area of OBM?
Analyzes the entire organization to identify areas for
improvement that will produce the largest positive impact on the organization and focuses on planning and managing the variables that support desired performance
Behavioral Systems Analysis
Which area of OBM?
Requires a system-wide measurement system that uses metrics (scorecards) and goals to track employee performance
Performance Based Pay
When creating organizational goals, expense control, productivity, cash flow and sales are considered ________ goals
short term
When creating organizational goals, regulatory compliance, customer service and strategic projects are considered ________ goals
long term
The dimensional quantity related to temporal locus is _______
latency
The dimensional quantity related to temporal extent is _______
duration
IRT, rate and celeration are related to the fundamental properties of ________ _______ and __________
temporal locus and repeatability
The formula for IRT is:
time/# of responses
The two main methods for determining IOA are:
total count and percent agreement
Multiple targets may be graphed together when:
- targets are related (_________)
- targets are all ________ or _________
- targets are _______ approximately the same
- targets are related (co-occur)
- targets are all acceleration or deceleration
- targets are scaled approximately the same (or use dual axes)
A procedure designed to decelerate behavior or protect clients that temporarily limits movement or access to reinforcers
restrictive procedure
Procedures used to protect a client should he engage in bx that is dangerous to self or others, has the potential to cause significant property damage, or expose the client to legal consequences; not always included in treatment plan
emergency procedures
_______ ________ can be used to graph anything where instances of responding/data are of interest
cumulative records
In EAB, cumulative recording looks at _________ responding, while in applied settings, cumulative recording shows changes _______ sessions
continuous, between
List the steps for using trials-to-criterion data:
- Determine what one ______ will be
- Decide whether to report ______ or ______ ______
- Record _______ as the measure
- Present ________
- Determine what one trial will be
- Decide whether to report trials or blocks of trials
- Record count as the measure
- Present data
A method for classifying responses into categories, expressed as a percentage of responses for each code
Discrete categorization
A method of quantifying the chances of obtaining a specific sample from a population
Probability
To determine probability, divide the _______ (number of items meeting the definition by ________ (total number of items)
sample, population
Probability is expressed as a range from ____ to ____
0 to 1
Number of times an event occurred per 100 opportunities that the event could have occurred
Percent
Percent is ________ multiplied by 100
probability
Mean, median and mode are examples of ________ ________
descriptive statistics
In descriptive statistics, “mean” refers to the _______
average
In descriptive statistics, “median” refers to the _______
middle value
In descriptive statistics, “mode” refers to the ______
value that appears most often in the data set
Descriptive statistics:
_____ is generally a more sensitive measure, but ______ may be used when there are outliers to give a less skewed value
Mean, median
In business it is often acknowledged that 80% of revenue comes from 20% of customers. This is called the _______ ________
Pareto Principle or 80-20 Rule
_______ refers to the extent to which measures of behavior under the same environmental conditions diverge from one another (also called “bounce”)
Variability
When referring to variability of data, expected levels of variation are referred to as _______ _______ variation
common cause
When referring to variability of data, variations due to special circumstances are referred to as _______ _______ variation
special cause
A method of assessing the variability in a process by using statistical methods
Statistical Process Control
In statistical process control, ______ ________ are used to detect special cause variation
run tests
Statistical Process Control (SPC) can be useful for analyzing ________ data, monitoring post ________ data, and analyzing ________ events
baseline, intervention, unusual
When using SPC techniques along with visual data analysis, behavior data that vary by more than ______ standard deviations probably result from special causes
3
Trials-to-criterion is not an appropriate measurement for _____
IRT
Variability of data should be analyzed in relation to the _______
trend
Statistics:
Name the two research paradigms:
inductive, deductive
An _______ research paradigm uses a top-down approach
deductive
An _______ research paradigm uses a bottom up approach
inductive
An ______ research paradigm usually uses a fluid, qualitative approach but can use a quantitative approach
inductive
An _______ research paradigm generally requires statistics to analyze large amounts of data (quantitative)
deductive
The large majority of social science researchers use a _________ approach
deductive
ABA research typically uses an ________ paradigm
inductive
The goal of descriptive statistics is to describe _______ of the samples you are working with
properties
List 3 examples of descriptive statistics:
- C_______ ________
- V_________
- E______ ______
- central tendency
- variability
- effect size
List reasons for using descriptive statistics in ABA research:
- to complement ______ _______
- ______
- l______ c_______
- p_______ e________
- to complement visual analysis
- IOA
- level change
- program evaluation (aggregate data across clients)
One drawback of descriptive statistics is that they may _______ _______
hide trends (the mean of data that are at the same level might be the same even if the trend changes)
The goal of inferential statistics is to use ______ ______ as the basis for answering questions about the population
sample data
The goal of __________ statistics is to describe properties of the samples you are working with
descriptive
The goal of __________ statistics is to use sample data as the basis for answering questions about the population
inferential
List reasons for using inferential statistics in ABA research:
- appropriate with _______ research designs
- may open doors for ______
- supplements ______ _______
- group research designs
- funding
- visual analysis (a perceived weakness)
List drawbacks of using inferential statistics in ABA research:
- does not tell us how likely results are to be ________
- does not tell us _______ that results are due to chance
- best way to increase your chance of significance is to increase your number of ________
- a large number of _______ that will have very small effects become important
- may limit the ______ for doing research
- reduces ________ responsibility
- emphasizes ________ parameters at the expense of behavior
- our focus should be on _______ significance, ________, and number of participants that ________
- replicated
- probability (the probability is conditional on a true null hypothesis)
- participants (can be “gamed” to get a better chance of showing an effect)
- variables
- reasons (must have a hypothesis for every study)
- scientific responsibility (may not produce socially significant outcomes)
- population (results in a group average)
- social, durability, improve in a socially significant manner
Who conducted deductive group design research on young children with autism, using inferential statistics to compare intensity of ABA therapy?
Lovaas
A focus on inferential statistics may take the focus away from ________ ________ results
socially significant
Inferential statistics involve decisions about _____ levels of data
group
List 4 types of data used in statistics:
- N________
- O________
- I________
- R________
- nominal
- ordinal
- interval
- ratio
Categories, such as school districts, are an example of ______ data in statistics
nominal
A pain scale is an example of ________ data in statistics
ordinal
Degrees in Farenheit is an example of _______ data in statistics
interval (difference between each value is even)
Time and weight are examples of ______ data in statistics
ratio (difference between each value is even, and has a true zero - no negative values)
One reason for using descriptive statistics in ABA is that they complement _______ ________
visual analysis
Statistics:
List the three measures of central tendency:
mean, median, mode
Statistics: the sum of the scores divided by the number of scores
Mean
Statistics: Score that divides the distribution exactly in half
Median
Statistics: gives researchers two groups of equal sizes; low scorers and high scorers
median split
Explain how to calculate the median of a data set with an even number of scores
List the scores from lowest to highest
Add the middle two scores and divide by two
List 3 times to use median as the measure of central tendency:
- extreme ______ or ______ distribution
- undetermined ________
- open ended __________
- extreme scores or skewed distribution
- undetermined values
- open-ended distributions (0-5, 5-10, etc)
Statistics: Score or category that has the greatest frequency (peak)
mode (and a distribution can have more than one mode)
The mode is not a ________
frequency (it is a score or category)
The goal of _____ _________ measures is to find a single value that best represents the entire distribution
central tendency
What is the most representative method of reporting central tendency in your data when you have extreme scores?
median
The most common method of reporting central tendency is:
mean
The mode is an ideal measure of central tendency for:
nominal variables (e.g., male/female)
Mode is a useful measure for:
- _______ scales
- discrete ________
- describing ______
- nominal scales (e.g., male/female)
- discrete variables (samples that are hard to average such as # of children per family - mean may be 2.5, but mode is 2)
- describing shape
Variability describes the distribution in terms of ______ from the central tendency
distance
________ describes the distribution in terms of distance from the central tendency
Variability
Provides a quantitative measure of the degree to which scores in a distribution are spread out or clustered together
Variability
List 3 measures of variability:
- R______
- I_______ range
- S_______ ________
- range
- interquartile range
- standard deviation
Distance between the largest score and the smallest score, plus one
Range
Calculate the range for these scores:
10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40
31
(40-10) + 1
The most important measure of variability, which measures typical distance from the mean, is ______ ______
standard deviation
The standard deviation measure can reveal important patterns in _______ ________
IOA data
The standard deviation measure describes the typical distance from the _______
mean
The Excel formula for standard deviation is ________
=STDEV.S
Range is a crude measure of variability because it does not include all the _______ in the data set
scores
Standard deviation is a measure of _________
variability
Name 2 kinds of probability:
subjective, objective
The relationship between samples and populations are usually defined in terms of _________
probability
_________ probability is based on experience or intuition
Subjective
_________ probability is based on mathematical concepts and theory
Objective
Probability is a measurement within ______ statistics
inferential
P(event) = # of outcomes classified as the event / total # of possible outcomes
Probability formula
Probability formula - # of ________ classified as the event divided by total # of ________ outcomes
outcomes, possible
The probability of event A, p (A), is the ______ of the number of outcomes that include event A to the total number of possible outcomes
ratio
Probability values are contained in a limited range from ____ to ____
0 to 1
A probability of 0 means that the event will _____ occur
never
A probability of 1 means that the event will ______ occur
always
Probability can be expressed as f______ , d______, or p_________
fractions, decimals or percentages (these are always positive)
In order to apply the rules of probability to samples and populations we must satisfy two requirements:
- each individual in the _____ must have an _____ chance of being selected
- if more than one individual is selected, there must be constant ________ for each and every selection
- each individual in the population must have an equal chance of being selected
- there must be constant probability for each and every selection
(sampling with replacement)
Probability and ________ are equivalent
proportion
Probability and proportion are _________
equivalent
A numerical measurement of how many standard deviations above or below the mean a raw score falls
z-score
One standard deviation = _____
68% (34.13% on each side)
Involves drawing multiple samples (e.g., 25 instead of just an individual) from the population and examining the means of each
sampling distribution of the means
Samples provide ________ pictures of the population
incomplete (i.e., sampling error)
The discrepancy between a sample statistic and its corresponding population parameter
sampling error
The collection of sample means for all the possible random samples of a particular size (n), that can be obtained from a population
Distribution of sample means (e.g., 10 samples with 25 in each)
A distribution of statistics obtained by selecting all possible samples of a specific size from a population
Sampling distribution
For any population, the distribution of sample means will approach a normal distribution as n approaches infinity
Central Limit Theorem
The shape of the distribution of sample means will be almost perfectly normal if either one of the following conditions is satisfied:
- population from which the sample is selected is _____
- the number of scores (n) in each sample is relatively ____ (n > 30)
- normal
- large
States that the larger the sample size the more probable it is that the sample mean will be close to the population mean
Law of Large Numbers
The primary use of a distribution of sample means is to find the _______ associated with any specific sample
probability
A statistical method that uses sample data (statistics) to evaluate a hypothesis (question) about a population parameter
Hypothesis testing
Hypothesis testing uses ______ , probability and distribution of _____ ______
z-scores, sample means
The purpose of hypothesis testing is to help researchers ________ between real patterns in data and ______ patterns in data
differentiate, random
Hypothesis testing begins with a population with ______ parameters
known
The goal of ________ ________ is to determine what happens to the population after the treatment is administered
hypothesis testing
List 4 assumptions for hypothesis tests with z-score:
- r________ s________
- i________ o________
- v______ of standard deviation is unchanged by the tx
- normal s_______ d________
- random sampling
- independent observations
- value of SD is unchanged
- normal sampling distribution
A formalized hypothesis testing procedure is important because researchers must have a ________ method for evaluating the results of their research studies
standardized
State the 4 main steps of hypothesis testing:
- State the _______ about a population
- Set the _______ for a decision
- Collect data and compute ______ _______
- Make a ________
- hypothesis
- criteria
- sample statistics (mean)
- decision (compare to the prediction)
The ______ hypothesis predicts that the IV (treatment) will have no effect on the DV
null
The ______ hypothesis predicts that the IV will have an effect on the IV
alternative
The null and alternative hypotheses are __________
non-directional
If Treatment A is better than Treatment B, the researcher should ________ the _________ hypothesis
accept the alternative hypothesis
If Treatment A is NOT better than Treatment B, the researcher should ________ the ________ hypothesis
fail to reject the null hypothesis
we do not accept the alternative hypothesis, but have not disproven the null hypothesis
When setting the criteria for a decision (in hypothesis testing), consider how much the ______ will need to change in order to be confident that the treatment effect would not also be seen in the _________
sample, population
When setting the criteria for a decision (in hypothesis testing), divide the distribution of ______ _______ into means likely to be obtained if the null hypothesis is true and means very unlikely to be obtained if the null hypothesis is true
sample means
The probability value that is used to define the very unlikely sample outcomes if the null hypothesis is true (also called level of significance)
alpha level
Alpha (a) defines the _______ _______
critical region
The extreme sample values that are very unlikely to be obtained if the null hypothesis is true
critical region
When testing a hypothesis, the two possible decisions are:
- _______ null hypothesis
- _______ null hypothesis
- reject
- fail to reject
We reject the null hypothesis if the sample mean falls in the _______ _______ and there is a big discrepancy between the sample and the ______ ________
critical region, null hypothesis
We fail to reject the null hypothesis if the ______ ______ does not fall in the critical region and the sample data is reasonably close to the null hypothesis
sample mean
If we reject the null hypothesis, this means that a treatment effect ______
was demonstrated
If we fail to reject the null hypothesis, this means that a treatment effect ______
was NOT demonstrated
The purpose of a _____ ______ is to determine whether the result of the research study (the obtained difference) is more than would be expected by chance alone
test statistic
When we set a (alpha) at .05, we are _____ % sure that we are not making a decision error when we reject the null hypothesis
95%
Sigma is the same as …
standard deviation
A type ___ error (false ________) in hypothesis testing involves rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true
1, positive
A type ____ error (false ________) in hypothesis testing involves failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is actually false
2, negative - (a treatment effect exists but is not detected)
Z-scores require knowledge of the _________
population standard deviation
When population data is not available, use a _______ instead of a z-score
t-statistic
A test used to compare two means to see if they are statistically different
t-test
If you need to compare the means of 2 groups, use a ______. If you need to compare more than two groups, use _______
t-test, ANOVA
When you need to compare the means of groups that are not independent, use a ________ _______ t-test
related samples
List 2 possible contaminating factors that could cause a type 1 error in a related samples t-test:
- c________ _______
- p________ _______
- carryover effects
- progressive error (performance changes consistently over time)
Repeated measures design may be more appropriate than multiple baseline when teaching an ______ skill because it allows for fewer sessions and more participants
obscure
ANOVA stands for …
analysis of variance
A statistical technique used to measure and describe a relationship between two continuous variables
correlation
List 3 characteristics of correlation:
- involves no _______ or control
- requires ____ scores for each participant
- presented graphically in a _________
- involves no manipulation or control
- requires 2 scores for each participant (X and Y)
- presented graphically in a scatter plot
Correlation - List 3 characteristics of the relationship between X and Y:
- _________ (positive or negative)
- _____ of relationship (linear)
- _______ of relationship (strength)
- direction (positive or negative)
- form of relationship (linear)
- degree of relationship (strength)
The degree (strength) of a correlation is measured from _______ to ________
-1.00 to +1.00
negative 1.00 to positive 1.00
+1.00 indicates a _______ positive correlation
strong
-1.00 indicates a _______ negative correlation
strong
0.00 indicates _______ correlation
no
0.30 indicates a ______ positive correlation
weak
-0.20 indicates a ______ negative correlation
weak
Name two ways that correlation can be distorted:
- restricted _______
- o_________
- restricted range (one variable has a ceiling)
- outliers
Describes a linear relationship between two or more variables
regression
The linear regression equation builds upon correlation to make ________
predictions
A measure of strength of a phenomenon
effect size
An effect size of .2-.3 is …
a small effect
An effect size of .5 is …
a medium effect
An effect size of .8 or larger is
a large effect
An effect size is useful for comparing ______ _____ but cannot be used for _________ ______
group data, behavioral data (because observations are not independent)
The primary emphasis of behavioral pediatrics is _______
prevention
Approximately _____ of all primary care child visits involve behavior problems
50%
Common behavior problems are not __________, they are ______ ________
pathologies, skill deficits
Name the two types of intervention in behavioral pediatrics:
health education, prescriptive treatments
List the three domains of care in behavioral pediatrics:
- ________ behavior problems
- ________ problems with significant ________ dimensions
- ________ problems with significant ________ dimensions
- common
- behavioral, medical
- medical, behavioral
The “rule of thirds” in behavioral pediatrics:
- a third of patients _______
- a third of patients _______
- a third of patients _______
improve, stay the same, get worse
List 3 reasons primary healthcare providers don’t address common behavioral problems:
- limited or no _______
- limited or no _______
- lack of _________
- limited or no time
- limited or no training
- lack of inclination
Between _____ and _____ of children in the US have at least one diagnosable mental health problem fro which they are not receiving services.
11 and 25%
List 2 reasons traditional mental health services don’t address common behavioral problems:
- parents are reluctant to go due to ________ quality of care
- ________
- variable, stigma
In behavioral pediatrics, “overinterpretation” refers to the tendency to look for an _______ _______ ________
underlying problem syndrome
In behavioral pediatrics, most research focuses on highly impaired populations. This is referred to as _______ _______
Berkson’s Bias or textbook case bias (emphasis on extreme cases)
In medical research practice, there is lack of emphasis on treatment and more focus on ______ ______ ______ because that is where reinforcement is most available.
correlative theory building
Children learn through _________ with _________
repetition with contrast
Children learn through two types of change: _______ and ________
quality (pleasant/unpleasant) and quantity (large change/small change)
Change in quality of consequences determines direction of learning. Changes can be ________ or _________
pleasant (reward/relief) or unpleasant (pain/loss)
Change in quantity of consequences determines the need for repetition. Changes can be _______ or _______
large (requires less repetition) or small (requires more repetition)
List the 4 steps in Pat Friman’s toileting program:
Drink - Undress - Play - Pay
According to Dr. Friman, typically developing infants cry for an average of ____ to ____ hours a day in the first 4-8 weeks of life.
2-3
Bedtime problems, simple habits, non-compliance or simple phobia are examples of ________ ________
toddler misbehavior
An effective treatment for toddler misbehavior is ______ _______
time out
The most effective treatment for bedtime problems is _______ ________
escape extinction
Parents typically avoid escape extinction for bedtime problems because they want to avoid the _______ _______
extinction burst
The most crucial variable for establishing effective time out is _____ ______
time in
When dealing with behavior problems in older children, Dr. Friman recommends using ______ _______ _______
job-based grounding
In early work on anxiety (Estes/Skinner), anxiety was characterized as _______ _______
conditioned suppression (presence of the aversive stimuli suppresses performance)
The most effective treatment for anxiety currently available is ________ and ________ _________. In behavior analytic terms this is ________ _________
exposure and response prevention, escape extinction
An intrinsic aspect of behavior that influences littering is _______ _______
response effort
The responses that emerge during an extinction burst are those the child has found to be _______ _______ in producing what they want from parents since infancy
most effective
According to Dr. Friman, problem-free children (aka “Gerber babies”) are ________ (they are found in a tail of the distribution)
deviant
Supportive health education in behavioral pediatrics teaches caregivers how to _____ _______ ______
use effective strategies
Dr. Friman recommends not treating thumb/finger sucking unless the following conditions are met:
- child is older than ____ and,
- bx occurs in more than one __________ or,
- if the bx is causing _______ _______
- child is older than 5
- bx occurs in more than one environment
- or bx is causing physical damage
