BEHP 5017 Flashcards

1
Q

The fundamental goal of performance management is …

A

to bring out the best in people

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2
Q

Science is a systematic approach to the understanding of _______ _________

A

natural phenomena

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3
Q

Operant conditioning was first advanced by ______

A

Skinner, 1938

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4
Q

In behavior analysis, there are 2 primary ways of determining cause and effect:

A
  1. reversal designs

2. multiple baseline designs

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5
Q

All organizational results are the product of ______ ______

A

human behavior

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6
Q

Deming’s 4 categories of process variance are: M____, M______, M______, and M_______

Many organizations approach problems by trying to control variance in the first three.

A

Materials
Machinery
Methods
Manpower

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7
Q

Performance consists of a ______, one or more ______, tasks, and _______, which are combined to produce a specific accomplishment.

A

situations, behaviors, results

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8
Q

The accomplishment is anything to which you can assign a ______

A

value

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9
Q

A state is a static condition that exists as a result of _______

A

behavior (Putting on safety glasses is a bx, wearing safety glasses is a state)

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10
Q

A ______ is a static condition that exists as a result of behavior

A

state (Putting on safety glasses is a bx, wearing safety glasses is a state)

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11
Q

Which method is interested in employee performance and behavior safety? OBM, I/O, or OB?

A

OBM

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12
Q

Which method is interested in hiring selection criteria and legal issues? OBM, I/O, or OB?

A

I/O

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13
Q

Which method is interested in employee diversity and politics? OBM, I/O, or OB?

A

OB

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14
Q

I/O stands for ______

A

Industrial and Organizational Psychology

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15
Q

Pinpoints should be _______, ________, and ________

A

observable, measurable, and reliable

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16
Q

Always tie behavior to ________

A

results

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17
Q

Pinpoints can be ______ or _______

A

behavior or results

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18
Q

BARS stands for …

A

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale

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19
Q

The most common dimensions measured in OBM are (4):

A
  1. Quantity
  2. Quality
  3. Cost
  4. Timeliness
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20
Q

PIP stands for …

A

Potential for Improving Performance

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21
Q

OBM quality measures include: A______, C____, and N______

A

Accuracy, class, and novelty

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22
Q

OBM quantity measures include: F______ and R____

A

Frequency, rate

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23
Q

OBM cost measures include: L____, M______, and M_______

A

Labor, materials, management

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24
Q

A behaviorally anchored rating scale is a _______ measure

A

quality

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25
Q

A PIP is useful for selecting _______ or ______ that that require improvement

A

pinpoints, groups

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26
Q

Which data collection system allows objective evaluation of all job elements? (checklist, point system)

A

point system

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27
Q

Point focus must focus on _____ ________

A

work outputs

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28
Q

Checklists can be used as a ____ ____ and to confirm _______ of a task

A

job aid, completion

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29
Q

IOA should ideally be collected on at least _____ of data

A

33%

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30
Q

The extent to which two independent but simultaneous measurements agree is a check of ________

A

reliability

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31
Q

A _____ describes both behavior and results

A

task

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32
Q

A ______ can be measured after the behavior occurs (without the performer present)

A

result

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33
Q

Three components of result pinpoints are:

1) the ________ of change
2) the _____ of ______
3) the ___________

A

1) direction
2) units of measure
3) pinpoint itself

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34
Q

The direction of change should always be an _______ in some result

A

increase

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35
Q

Four components of a behavior pinpoint are:

1) a______
2) o______
3) c_______
4) c_______

A

1) action
2) object
3) condition
4) criteria

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36
Q

The action component of a behavior pinpoint should be a ______ ________ that is observable

A

physical movement

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37
Q

The condition component of a behavior pinpoint tells the performer _____ to do the behavior

A

when

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38
Q

The criteria component of a behavior pinpoint tells the performer when to _____ the behavior

A

criteria

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39
Q

The _______ component of a behavior pinpoint tells the performer when to do the behavior

A

condition

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40
Q

The _______ component of a behavior pinpoint tells the performer when to stop the behavior

A

criteria

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41
Q

The _______ component of a behavior pinpoint should be a physical movement that is observable

A

action

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42
Q

The ______ component of a behavior pinpoint states what is being acted upon

A

object

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43
Q

All behavior pinpoints must include at least an ______ and _______

A

action, object

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44
Q

List the 4 areas of emphasis in OBM

A

Performance management
Behavior based safety
Performance based pay
Behavioral systems analysis

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45
Q

Name the area of OBM that analyzes the organization outside the 3-term contingency

A

Behavioral systems analysis

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46
Q

Name the area of OBM that uses metrics and scorecards

A

Performance based pay

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47
Q

Name 2 barriers to measurement in OBM

A

time constraints

resistance from employees

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48
Q

The formula for PIP is _______ performance over mean ______ performance

A

exemplar, typical

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49
Q

Name 4 methods for doing preference assessment with employees

A
  • ask employees
  • observe employees
  • survey
  • ranking assessment
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50
Q

A mission is the _______ an organization or job exists

A

reason

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51
Q

A_____ is the reason an organization or job exists

A

mission

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52
Q

Missions should describe pinpointed _______, not pinpointed __________

A

results, not behaviors

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53
Q

List 5 criteria for determining job mission

Gilbert, 1978

A
Accomplishment
Control
Overall Objective
Reconcilable
Numbers
(Gilbert, 1978)
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54
Q

ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:

Accomplishment - It is a ______, not a ________

A

result, behavior

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55
Q

ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:

Control - The ________ has the predominant influence over the accomplishment

A

performer

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56
Q

ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:

Overall Objective - The accomplishment represents the ______ ______ for the job’s existence

A

major reason

not just one of several objectives for the job

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57
Q

ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:

Reconcilable - The accomplishment must have _______ _______ with the requirements of other jobs

A

minimal conflict

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58
Q

ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:

Numbers - It must be possible to generate ________, ___________ data to measure the accomplishment

A

practical, cost-effective

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59
Q

If you have supervisors who can be successful when employees are not, you will have constant _______ and _______ problems

A

productivity, morale

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60
Q
ACORN Test for Determining Job Mission:
Numbers - list 3 considerations for selecting measures
- Is the measurement \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
- Does the measurement have \_\_\_\_\_\_?
- What is the \_\_\_\_\_\_ of measurement?
A
  • meaningful
  • validity
  • cost
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61
Q

Reliability refers to the degree to which …

A

2 or more people get the same number when measuring a performance

(but high reliability does not equal validity)

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62
Q

Validity refers to the extent to which …

A

the data reflect what was intended to be measured

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63
Q

“20% of employee behaviors produce 80% of the results” - This is known as _______ ______

A

Pareto’s Law

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64
Q

SPC (in OBM) refers to ______ ______ ______

A

Statistical Process Control

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65
Q

Statistical Process Control is used to separate _______ in the process from _______ in the behavior of the performer

A

variance, variance

66
Q

When measuring quality, _______ refers to measuring degree of conformity to the standard or true value (e.g., a decrease in errors).

A

accuracy

67
Q

When measuring quality, _______ refers to measuring the comparative superiority of a product or accomplishment (e.g., design, materials, color, phrasing, expression) - the way something is done/made.

A

class

68
Q

What type of quality measurement would be used to measure customer service behaviors related to attitude ?

A

class (pinpointed bxs re: how the task is done)

69
Q

When measuring quality, _______ refers to unusual or unique aspects of a performance - the degree to which new or unusual combinations or variations are used.

A

novelty

70
Q

Performance cost is determined by measuring the cost of ________ that add value to the raw material.

A

behaviors

71
Q

Name the 3 sub-divisions of performance cost:

A

labor, material, managment

72
Q

Name 2 common measurements of quantity in OBM settings

A

frequency and rate

73
Q

Name the 2 major measurement methods in OBM

A

Counting and Judgment

74
Q

List 4 techniques used in making judgments about performance:

A
  1. opinion-based ranking
  2. opinion-based rating
  3. criteria-based ranking
  4. criteria-based rating
75
Q

A performance matrix is a _________ of BARS, checklists and counts that covers all aspects of a job

A

performance matrix

76
Q

To train employees to self-monitor, first reinforce _________ data, then reinforce ________ recording, and finally reinforce _________

A

recording, accurate, performance

77
Q

Which OBM measurement system is most objective and should be preferred?

A

counting

78
Q

List 4 items included on a performance feedback graph

A

labels, baseline, intervention, goal

79
Q

When attention follows problems, problems _______

A

increase

80
Q

A PIC/NIC Analysis is not a ______ analysis

A

scientific

81
Q

A small, ________ consequence that is certain to occur is more powerful than very large positive or negative consequences that are ________ or uncertain.

A

immediate, future

82
Q

PIC/NIC Analysis: PIC stands for …

A

Positive, immediate, certain

83
Q

PIC/NIC Analysis: NIC stands for …

A

Negative, immediate, certain

84
Q

PIC/NIC Analysis: PFU stands for…

A

Positive, future, uncertain

85
Q

PIC/NIC Analysis: NFU stands for…

A

Negative, future, uncertain

86
Q

When people learn which elements/stimuli in their environment predict desired consequences and which do not, they have learned _______ _________

A

stimulus discrimination

87
Q

An aversive stimulus which, when removed, strengthens the future probability of a response

A

Negative reinforcer

88
Q

The process of removing an aversive stimulus that strengthens the likelihood of a future response

A

Negative reinforcement

89
Q

The process of presenting an aversive stimulus that suppresses (stops) behavior, at least temporarily

A

Punishment

90
Q

Any event that when following a behavior suppresses (stops) it

A

Punisher

91
Q

Removing something valued or desired resulting in a decrease in the behavior it follows

A

Penalty

92
Q

Name the two kinds of performance problems identified by Mager and Pipe (1997)

A

can’t-do and won’t-do

93
Q

Biologically important reinforcers such as food, water and sleep are also called ______ ________

A

primary reinforcers

94
Q

Neutral stimuli that do not have biological importance but have been paired with other reinforcers are called _________ ___________

A

secondary reinforcers

95
Q

Any desired effect or change that your behavior produces in the environment, without requiring interaction with another person, is a _______ reinforcer.

A

natural

96
Q

A consequence provided by one person to another than increases the frequency of the other person’s behavior is a ________ __________

A

social reinforcer

97
Q

The most common type of reinforcement in PM settings is _________

A

social

98
Q

List 4 characteristics of behavior undergoing extinction

A
  1. extinction burst
  2. emotional behavior
  3. habit breakdown (variability)
  4. resurgence
99
Q

_________ is information about performance that allows a person to change his behavior.

A

Feedback

100
Q

Feedback must be combined with a ________ if behavior change is to take place.

A

consequence

101
Q

Performance feedback must serve 2 functions:

  1. tell you where you stand relative to some ______
  2. what to do to _______
A

target, improve

102
Q

List 10 characteristics of effective feedback:

  1. ________ information
  2. Information on a performance the person _______
  3. __________ following the performance, if not during
  4. ___________
  5. ______ __________ when possible
  6. If not (5), delivered by the ________ _______ _______
  7. Focused on __________
  8. Easily understood
  9. ___________
  10. Used as an _________ to __________
A
  1. specific information
  2. performance the person controls
  3. immediately
  4. individualized
  5. self-monitored
  6. person in charge
  7. improvement
  8. easily understood
  9. graphed
  10. antecedent to reinforcement
103
Q

The optimal timing of feedback to establish a new behavior is ________ ________ the next opportunity to respond

A

Immediately before

104
Q

Give _______ feedback after the performance and _______ feedback before the next performance

A

positive, corrective

105
Q

PDC stands for …

A

Performance Diagnostic Checklist

106
Q

Use ________ feedback to increase desired behavior

A

positive

107
Q

Use ________ feedback to increase desired behavior and decrease undesired behavior

A

constructive

108
Q

List 4 characteristics of effective reinforcers (CARE)

A

Controllable (manager has direct control, won’t be overruled)
Available
Repeatable
Efficient (costA -effective)

109
Q

A ______ _______ is any interaction between people that increases behavior or performance.

A

social reinforcer

110
Q

A _______ ______ is any economically valuable object that is present contingent on a behavior, that results in an increase in the frequency of that behavior.

A

tangible reinforcer

111
Q

A tangible delivered contingent on some behavior is a ________. A tangible delivered some time after the performance is a _________.

A

reinforcer, reward

112
Q

When delivering a tangible reinforcer, always provide _______ reinforcement along with it

A

social

113
Q

You reinforce _______ and reward ________

A

behaviors, results

114
Q

Fixed interval schedules produce a scalloped or _____ ____ _____ pattern of responding

A

break and run

115
Q

In FI schedules, the _______ the interval, the ______ the performance

A

longer, lower

116
Q

Given an equal number of reinforcers, _____ _____ schedules generate the lowest level of responding

A

fixed interval

117
Q

A VI schedule produces a _______ but ______ response rate

A

low to moderate, but very steady

118
Q

VI schedules are appropriate for any job where ______ and ______ are more important than speed

A

patience, vigilance

119
Q

___ schedules can produce all-or-nothing responding

A

Fixed ratio (pause after reinforcement, followed by high rate bx)

120
Q

A _____ schedule generally produces the highest response rate overall

A

Variable ratio

121
Q

The term “high and steady rate” is associated with _____ schedules

A

Variable ratio

122
Q

_____ schedules are sometimes associated with enthusiasm and excitement

A

Variable ratio

123
Q

List 3 organizational challenges where a knowledge of reinforcement schedules is vital:

1) _________ productive performance
2) _________ problem behaviors
3) _________ high performance

A

increasing, decreasing, maintaining

124
Q

If you want a behavior to occur only at a specific time, use a ______ ______ schedule

A

fixed interval

125
Q

If you want vigilant or precise behavior, use a _______ ______ schedule

A

variable interval

126
Q

Performance under FI schedules can be improved somewhat by _______ the ________ of reinforcement

A

shortening the interval (e.g. using daily deadlines)

127
Q

_________ chaining puts the performer in contact with the natural reinforcer sooner than ______ chaining

A

backward, forward

128
Q

The most important reason for setting goals is creating additional opportunities for _____________

A

reinforcement

129
Q

Goals are ___________ for performance

A

antecedents

130
Q

Goals do not consistently produce improvement unless they are paired with _________

A

reinforcement

131
Q

A goal should be both _________ and __________

A

challenging, attainable

132
Q

Using punishment sets up _______ as a possible reinforcer

A

revenge

133
Q

Adapting to punishment is known as __________

A

habituation

134
Q

________ is to punishers and penalties, as _______ is to positive and negative reinforcers

A

Recovery; extinction

135
Q

List 3 ways to decrease unwanted behavior in OBM settings

A

Extinction, correcting, differential reinforcement of alternative behavior

136
Q

Managers hold people __________; leaders inspire people to feel __________

A

accountable, responsible

137
Q

The mission statement is the ______ ______ of the organization

A

ultimate goal

138
Q

Focusing too much on an activity and not on the ultimate mission is termed an ________ _______

A

activity trap

139
Q

Losing sight of the purpose of the organization can be called ___________ __________

A

organizational myopia

140
Q

Reinforcement should be tied to ________-related behavior

A

mission

141
Q

The key for new initiatives is to change the _________ of _________

A

allocation of reinforcers

142
Q

When introducing new initiatives, Geller (2002) suggests providing _________ for requests, involving employees in _________, and offering ________.

A

rationale, decisions, choices

143
Q

List the 3 ethical questions suggested by Cooper, et al.

A

What is the right thing to do?
What is worth doing?
What does it mean to be a good behavior analyst?

144
Q

List the 6 guiding principles in the ISPI Code of Ethics:

  • add _______
  • __________ practice
  • c___________
  • continuous __________
  • i_________
  • uphold ____________
A
  • add value
  • validated practice
  • collaboration
  • continuous improvement
  • integrity
  • uphold confidentiality
145
Q

A cost that a corporation’s action imposes on society is termed an _____________

A

externality

146
Q

Which OBM study reduced shortages in a retail store?

  • Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)
  • Goomas (2012)
  • Cook and Dixon (2005)
  • Rodriguez (2011)
  • Slowiak et al. (2005)
A

Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)

147
Q

Which OBM study reduced picking errors at a distribution center by switching to automated scans?

  • Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)
  • Goomas (2012)
  • Cook and Dixon (2005)
  • Rodriguez (2011)
  • Slowiak et al. (2005)
A

Goomas (2012)

148
Q

Which OBM study used a lottery system to increase paperwork completion in a human service organization?

  • Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)
  • Goomas (2012)
  • Cook and Dixon (2005)
  • Rodriguez (2011)
  • Slowiak et al. (2005)
A

Cook and Dixon (2005)

149
Q

Which OBM study used a scorecard and feedback to reduce days sales outstanding?

  • Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)
  • Goomas (2012)
  • Cook and Dixon (2005)
  • Rodriguez (2011)
  • Slowiak et al. (2005)
A

Rodriguez (2011)

150
Q

Which OBM study used job aids, goal setting and feedback to increase customer satisfaction scores at a medical clinic?

  • Rohn, Austin, and Lutrey (2002)
  • Goomas (2012)
  • Cook and Dixon (2005)
  • Rodriguez (2011)
  • Slowiak et al. (2005)
A

Slowiak et al (2005)

151
Q

_________ _________ is something about a work environment that produces harm to an employee

A

Occupational stress

152
Q

List 5 effects of occupational stress:

  • increased ________
  • h________
  • d________
  • physical _______
  • increased ________ ________
A
  • increased absence
  • hostility
  • depression
  • physical illness
  • increased alcohol consumption
153
Q

List 4 recommendations by Hackman and Oldham (1980) to decrease occupational stress:

  • increase a__________
  • increase task _________
  • increase task ___________
  • increase f_________
A
  • increase autonomy
  • increase task variety
  • increase task significance
  • increase feedback
154
Q

_______ _____________ states that a small, immediate consequence has more impact on behavior than a large, future, and uncertain one.

A

Delay discounting

155
Q

List the 5 steps of behavior change for managers:

A
Pinpoint
Measure
Feedback
Reinforce 
Evaluate
156
Q

“Do no harm”

A

Non-malfeasance

157
Q

Failure to perform an act that is required by law

A

Nonfeasance

158
Q

Having the welfare of the client as the goal is termed …

A

Benficence

159
Q

Non-malfeasance means …

A

“do not harm”

160
Q

Nonfeasance means …

A

failure to perform an act required by law

161
Q

Beneficence means ….

A

having the welfare of the client as the goal

162
Q

BAs should provide services that are (4):

A

comprehensive, integrated, individualized, data-based