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piggy > Behavioural Science - Epidemiology & Biostatistics > Flashcards

Behavioural Science - Epidemiology & Biostatistics Flashcards

1
Q

A case control study is described as _____ (experimental/observational) and _____ (prospective/retrospective).

A

Observational ; retrospective

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2
Q

A cohort study is described as _____ (experimental/observational) and _____ (prospective/retrospective).

A

Observational ; prospective

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3
Q

What type of epidemiologic study selects subjects on the basis of the presence or absence of disease?

A

A case control study; subjects with the disease are the cases and those without are the controls

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4
Q

What type of epidemiologic study reports an odds ratio in its conclusions?

A

Case control study

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5
Q

What type of measure does a case control study use to report its conclusions?

A

Odds ratio

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6
Q

True or False? In a cohort study, the subjects are chosen on the basis of the presence or absence of risk factors.

A

True

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7
Q

True or False? In a cohort study, the subjects are chosen on the basis of the presence or absence of disease.

A

False ; subjects are chosen on the basis of presence of absence of risk factors

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8
Q

True or False? A cohort study follows subjects over a period of time to study the development of disease.

A

True

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9
Q

What type of epidemiologic study selects subjects on the basis of their exposure to risk factors?

A

Cohort study

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10
Q

What type of epidemiologic study follows subjects over time to study the development of disease?

A

Cohort study

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11
Q

What type of epidemiologic study reports relative risk as an outcome measure?

A

Cohort study

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12
Q

What type of measure does a cohort study use to report its conclusions?

A

Relative risk

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13
Q

What type of research study is defined as a collection of data from a group of people to assess the frequency of disease (and related risk factors) at a certain point in time?

A

Cross-sectional study

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14
Q

True or False? A cross-sectional research study can indicate disease prevalence.

A

True

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15
Q

True or False? A cross-sectional research study can show the correlation of a risk with a disease.

A

True ; however, it cannot show causality

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16
Q

What type of research study compares the frequency with which monozygotic twins develop a disease with how often it develops in dizygotic twins?

A

Twin concordance study

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17
Q

What aspect of risk for development of disease can be assessed with a twin concordance study?

A

Heritability of a disease

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18
Q

What type of research study compares the frequency with which siblings raised in different homes develop a trait or disease?

A

Adoption study

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19
Q

What does an adoption study measure?

A

Influence of genes and environment on traits and diseases

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20
Q

Patients with COPD had higher odds of a history of smoking than those without COPD is an example of _____ (odds ratio/relative risk).

A

Odds ratio

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21
Q

Smokers had a higher risk of developing COPD than did nonsmokers is an example of _____ (odds ratio/relative risk).

A

Relative risk

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22
Q

Are clinical trials experimental or observational studies?

A

Experimental

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23
Q

What type of epidemiologic study compares the therapeutic benefits of different treatment conditions or of treatment and placebo?

A

Clinical trial

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24
Q

What three features can be introduced into the design of a clinical trial to enhance the quality of the study?

A

It can be randomised, controlled and double-blinded

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25
Q

What is the study population for a phase I clinical trial?

A

Small number of healthy volunteers

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26
Q

Among whom is a phase III clinical trial performed?

A

A larger number of patients with the disease of interest randomly assigned to either the treatment under investigation or the best available treatment (or placebo)

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27
Q

What is the purpose of a phase I clinical trial?

A

To establish the safety, toxicity, and pharmacokinetics of a new treatment

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28
Q

What is the purpose of a phase II clinical trial?

A

To establish the safe/efficacious dosing of a new treatment, as well as possible adverse effects

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29
Q

What feature of a study can make a phase III clinical trial more convincing?

A

Making the trial double-blinded, so that neither the patient nor the investigator knows if the patient is in the treatment or control group

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30
Q

True or False? A clinical trial is a type of observational study.

A

False ; a clinical trial is a type of experimental study

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31
Q

True or False? A clinical trial can compare the therapeutic benefits of two or more treatments or of a treatment and a placebo

A

True

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32
Q

What is the purpose of a phase III clinical trial?

A

To compare the new treatment with existing treatment and determine whether the treatment will be approved for use

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33
Q

What are two factors that may limit the reliability of a meta-analysis?

A

The quality of the individual studies or bias in the selection of studies for analysis

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34
Q

What type of epidemiologic study pools data from several published studies to achieve greater statistical power?

A

Meta-analysis

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35
Q

True or False? A meta-analysis is the highest echelon of clinical evidence.

A

True

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36
Q

Given that predictive values of a test for a disease are dependent on the prevalence of the disease, how does a low prevalence of disease affect the positive predictive value of the test?

A

The positive predictive value of the test is lower for a disease with a lower prevalence

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37
Q

True or False? Positive and negative predictive values of a test for a disease depend on the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested.

A

True

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38
Q

Given that predictive values of a test for a disease depend on the prevalence of the disease, how does a high prevalence of disease affect the positive predictive value of the test?

A

The positive predictive value of the test is higher for a disease with higher prevalence

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39
Q

If a diagnostic test has 100% sensitivity, what should the value of the false-negative rate equal?

A

The value of the false-negative rate should be equal to 0; all cases of the disease are detected by the test

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40
Q

If a diagnostic test has 100% specificity, what should the value of the false-positive rate equal?

A

The value of the false-positive rate should be equal to 0; all patients without the disease are correctly identified

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41
Q

In HIV testing, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay screening is _____ (sensitive/specific) and has a high false-_____ (negative/positive) rate, with a _____ (high/low) threshold.

A

Sensitive ; positive ; low

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42
Q

In HIV testing, Western blot testing is _____ (sensitive/specific) and has a high false-_____ (negative/positive) rate, with a _____ (high/low) threshold.

A

Specific ; negative ; high

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43
Q

How is the sensitivity of a test determined?

A

Sensitivity is the number of cases correctly identified by a test divided by the total number of cases of the disease

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44
Q

What epidemiologic measurement is equal to the probability of a positive test (given that a person has the disease)?

A

Sensitivity

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45
Q

Given the sensitivity of a test for a particular disease, how is the false-negative rate calculated?

A

False-negative rate = 1 – sensitivity

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46
Q

Should the sensitivity of a screening test be high or low?

A

High

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47
Q

True or False? A screening test is a good method for ruling out a diagnosis, because it is a test with high sensitivity.

A

True (SNOUT = SeNsitivity rules OUT)

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48
Q

How is the specificity of a test determined?

A

Specificity is the number of correctly identified patients without the disease divided by the total number of those without the disease

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49
Q

What epidemiologic measurement is equal to the probability of a negative test (given that a person is free of the disease)?

A

Specificity

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50
Q

Given the specificity of a test for a particular disease, how is the false-positive rate calculated?

A

False-positive rate = 1 – specificity

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51
Q

For a confirmatory test, should the specificity of the test be high or low?

A

High

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52
Q

True or False? A confirmatory test is an appropriate method for ruling in a diagnosis, because it is a test with high specificity.

A

True (SPIN = SPecificity rules IN)

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53
Q

How is the positive predictive value of a test determined?

A

Positive predictive value is the number of true positive results divided by the total number of positive results

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54
Q

When calculating the positive predictive value of a test for a disease, what is the number of true positives divided by?

A

The number of people who tested positive for the disease

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55
Q

What epidemiologic measurement is equal to the probability of having a condition (given a positive test)?

A

Positive predictive value

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56
Q

How is negative predictive value of a test determined?

A

Negative predictive value is the number of true negative results divided by the total number of negative results

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57
Q

When calculating the negative predictive value of a test for a disease, what is the number of true negatives divided by?

A

The number of people who tested negative for the disease

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58
Q

What epidemiologic measurement is equal to the probability of not having the condition (given a negative test)?

A

Negative predictive value

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59
Q

Given that predictive values of a test for a disease are dependent on the prevalence of the disease, how does a high prevalence of disease affect the negative predictive value of the test?

A

The negative predictive value of the test is lower for a disease with a higher prevalence

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60
Q

Given that predictive values of a test for a disease are dependent on the prevalence of the disease, how does a low prevalence of disease affect the negative predictive value of the test?

A

The negative predictive value of the test is higher for a disease with a lower prevalence

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61
Q

In HIV testing, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is used as a screening test. Is a high sensitivity or high specificity ideal for this purpose?

A

Sensitivity

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62
Q

In HIV testing, the Western blot is used to confirm an initial screening test. Is a high sensitivity or specificity ideal for this purpose?

A

Specificity

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63
Q

In epidemiology, what measure of disease frequency is calculated by dividing the total number of cases in the population at a given time by the total population at risk?

A

Point prevalence

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64
Q

In epidemiology, what measure of disease frequency is calculated by dividing the number of new cases in the population during a given time period by the total population at risk during that time?

A

Incidence (Incidence is new incidents)

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65
Q

To estimate the prevalence of a disease, the incidence of the disease is multiplied by what factor?

A

The disease duration

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66
Q

In chronic disease states such as diabetes, is the prevalence of disease greater than, less than, or equal to the incidence?

A

Prevalence is much greater than annual incidence because of the long duration of the disease

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67
Q

In acute disease states such as a common cold, is the prevalence of disease greater than, less than, or equal to the incidence?

A

Incidence and prevalence are approximately equal for diseases of short duration

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68
Q

True or False? When calculating the incidence of a disease, people who were previously positive for the disease are no longer considered to be at risk.

A

True

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69
Q

True or False? When calculating the incidence of a disease, the total population at risk during a certain time period should include people who have the disease.

A

False ; the total population at risk during a certain period should not include people who have the disease because incidence is a measure of new cases of a disease, and those who have the disease are not at risk of getting the disease

70
Q

When calculating the odds ratio for a disease on the basis of exposure to a risk factor, what factor is divided by the odds of having the disease in an unexposed group?

A

The odds of having the disease in an exposed group

71
Q

When calculating the odds ratio for a disease on the basis of exposure to a risk factor, the odds of having the disease in an exposed group is divided by what factor?

A

The odds of having the disease in an unexposed group

72
Q

True or False? The odds ratio for a disease based on exposure to a risk factor approximates the relative risk if the prevalence of the disease is low.

A

True

73
Q

True or False? The odds ratio for a disease based on exposure to a risk factor approximates the relative risk if prevalence of the disease is high.

A

False ; the odds ratio approximated the relative risk if the prevalence of the disease is LOW

74
Q

When calculating the relative risk for a disease on the basis of exposure to a risk factor, what factor is divided by the disease risk in an unexposed group?

A

The disease risk in an exposed group

75
Q

When calculating the relative risk for a disease on the basis of exposure to a risk factor, the disease risk in an exposed group is divided by what factor?

A

The disease risk in an unexposed group

76
Q

What epidemiologic measurement is equal to the difference in disease incidence in an exposed group and an unexposed group?

A

Attributable risk; it is the percentage of cases of a disease caused by a risk factor

77
Q

True or False? Attributable risk is the difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups.

A

True

78
Q

What term describes the proportion of disease caused by exposure to the risk factor being studied?

A

Attributable risk

79
Q

How is the number needed to treat calculated?

A

1/Absolute risk reduction

80
Q

How is the number needed to harm calculated?

A

1/Attributable risk

81
Q

What term refers to the consistency and reproducibility of a test (reliability) and the absence of random variation in a test?

A

Precision

82
Q

What term refers to the trueness of test measurements (validity)?

A

Accuracy

83
Q

What type of error reduces precision in a test?

A

Random error

84
Q

What type of error reduces accuracy in a test?

A

Systematic error

85
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when subjects are not randomly assigned to a study group?

A

Selection bias

86
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when knowledge of the presence of a disorder alters self-reporting by subjects?

A

Recall bias

87
Q

What epidemiologic term refers to a systematically favored outcome in a study?

A

Bias

88
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when subjects are not representative of the population as a whole?

A

Sampling bias

89
Q

What are four ways to reduce bias in epidemiologic studies?

A

Use blind studies (double blind, preferably), assess placebo responses, perform a crossover study, and randomisation

90
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when information is gathered at an inappropriate time?

A

Late-look bias

91
Q

What are two subtypes of a blind study?

A

Single-blind studies, in which subjects are unaware of their treatment characteristics
Double-blind studies, in which neither the researcher nor the subject is aware of the selection status

92
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when subjects in different groups are not treated the same?

A

Procedure bias, e.g. subjects in a treatment group are encouraged to have better compliance than those in a control group

93
Q

What is the design of a crossover study?

A

The subject acts as his or her own control and is subjected to both treatment and placebo at different times

94
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when there are two closely associated factors and therefore the effect of one factor can change or confuse the effect of the other?

A

Confounding bias; in which the casual relationship is better explained by a variable other than the one being studied

95
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when early detection is confused with increased survival?

A

Lead-time bias

96
Q

What is the name of the phenomenon whereby a researcher’s belief in the efficacy of a treatment changes the outcome of that treatment?

A

Pygmalion effect

97
Q

What type of bias occurs in epidemiologic studies when the group being studied changes its behavior to meet the expectations of the researcher?

A

Hawthorne effect

98
Q

In a normal Gaussian distribution, what is the relationship between the mean, the median, and the mode?

A

Mean = median = mode

99
Q

What is the shape of the curve in a bimodal distribution?

A

The curve has two peaks

100
Q

If the statistical distribution of a data set has a positive skew, on what side of the mean is there a tail?

A

The right side

101
Q

If the statistical distribution of a data set has a negative skew, on what side of the mean is there a tail?

A

The left side

102
Q

In a data set that has a distribution with a negative skew, what is the relationship between the mean, the median, and the mode?

A

Mean < Median < Mode

103
Q

In a data set that has a distribution with a positive skew, what is the relationship between the mean, the median, and the mode?

A

Mean > Median > Mode

104
Q

Which characteristic is least affected by outliers: mean, median, or mode?

A

Mode

105
Q

What is the term for the hypothesis that there is no association between the variables being studied?

A

Null hypothesis

106
Q

What type of statistical hypothesis postulates that there is some difference between the populations being compared: null or alternative hypothesis?

A

Alternative hypothesis

107
Q

In statistical calculations, the P value is equal to the probability of making what type of error?

A

Type I error; type I error occurs when it is incorrectly concluded that an association is present

108
Q

In statistical analyses, the P value is judged against the probability of making a type I error (). What is the standard level of significance for in most contexts?

A

0.05

109
Q

In a statistical analysis, if P = .03, what percentage chance is there that the data are showing a difference by chance alone when none truly exists?

A

3%

110
Q

What type of statistical error occurs when the null hypothesis is not rejected when it should have been?

A

Type II error; type II error occurs when it is falsely concluded that there is no association between variables

111
Q

What type of statistical error occurs when the experimental hypothesis is mistakenly accepted and the null hypothesis is rejected?

A

Type I error

112
Q

In statistical analyses, if = 0.2, what percentage chance is there that the null hypothesis has been falsely accepted?

A

20%; this is generally considered an acceptable level for in a study design

113
Q

What type of statistical error occurs when one states that there is not an effect or difference when, in fact, one does exist?

A

Type II error

114
Q

In statistical calculations, the value is equal to the probability of making what type of error?

A

Type II error

115
Q

The power of a statistical test depends on which three factors?

A

The total number of end points experienced by the population, the difference in compliance between the treatment groups, and the size of the expected effect

116
Q

What statistical term refers to the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false?

A

Power (or 1 - )

117
Q

What study parameter is calculated when the probability of making a type II error is subtracted from 1?

A

Power

118
Q

How can a scientist increase the power of a proposed study?

A

By increasing study sample size

119
Q

How can the standard error of the mean be calculated from the standard deviation?

A

SEM equals SD over the square root of the sample size

120
Q

True or False? The standard error of the mean is directly proportional to the standard deviation.

A

True

121
Q

True or False? The standard error of the mean is less than σ.

A

True

122
Q

In biostatistics, what effect does increasing the sample size have on the standard error of the mean?

A

The standard error of the mean decreases

123
Q

In biostatistics, what effect does decreasing the sample size have on the standard error of the mean?

A

The standard error of the mean increases

124
Q

In a data set that has a normal (Gaussian) distribution, what percentage of the data falls within one standard deviation of the mean?

A

68%

125
Q

In a data set that has a normal (Gaussian) distribution, what percentage of the data falls within two standard deviations of the mean?

A

95%

126
Q

In a data set that has a normal (Gaussian) distribution, what percentage of the data falls within three standard deviations of the mean?

A

99.7%

127
Q

In biostatistics, how is the confidence interval calculated when the mean, the Z score, and the standard error of the mean are known?

A

Confidence interval = range from [mean – Z (SEM)] to [mean + Z (SEM)]

128
Q

For the 95% confidence interval, what is the value of Z?

A

Z = 1.96

129
Q

If the confidence interval between two groups overlaps, then these groups _____ (are/are not) significantly different.

A

Are not

130
Q

What statistical term refers to the range of values in which a specified probability of the means of repeated samples would be expected to fall?

A

Confidence interval

131
Q

In biostatistics, what P value corresponds with a confidence interval of 95%?

A

0.05

132
Q

True or False? In biostatistical calculations, the Z value is dependent on the confidence interval desired.

A

True

133
Q

If the 95% confidence interval for a mean difference between two variables includes 0, is the null hypothesis rejected?

A

No, the null hypothesis is not rejected, and there is no significant difference between the two variables

134
Q

If the 95% confidence interval for an odds ratio or relative risk calculation includes 1, is the null hypothesis rejected?

A

No, the null hypothesis is not rejected; there is no significant difference between the two groups studied

135
Q

What type of statistical test is used to check for a difference between the means of three or more groups?

A

Analysis of variance (also known as ANOVA)

136
Q

What type of statistical test is used to check for a difference between the means of two groups?

A

t-test (Remember Mr T is mean)

137
Q

What type of statistical test is used to check for a difference between two or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes (not mean values)?

A

χ²

138
Q

A perfect linear negative correlation between two variables has what correlation coefficient?

A

1

139
Q

True or False? r is always between -1 and 1.

A

True

140
Q

What statistical term;s absolute value indicates the strength of the correlation between two variables?

A

Correlation coefficient (r)

141
Q

In biostatistics, how is the coefficient of determination calculated from the correlation coefficient?

A

Coefficient of determination = r²

This is the value usually reported to convey the strength of a relationship between two variables

142
Q

What is an example of primary disease prevention?

A

Vaccination, a vaccinated person is no longer susceptible to the disease

143
Q

What is an example of secondary disease prevention?

A

Pap smear; cervical cancer is detected at an early, treatable stage

144
Q

What is an example of tertiary disease prevention?

A

Chemotherapy, which seeks to reduce disability from disease once it has already occurred

145
Q

Define the term primary prevention of disease.

A

The prevention of disease occurrence

146
Q

Define the term secondary prevention of disease.

A

The early detection of disease

147
Q

Define the term tertiary prevention of disease.

A

The prevention or reduction of disability from disease

148
Q

Name three services that can be provided as important preventive measures for patients with diabetes.

A

Eye exams, foot exams and urine tests for glucose

149
Q

Name three services that can be provided as important preventative measures for patients who use drugs.

A

Hepatitis immunisations, HIV tests and TB tests

150
Q

Name three services that can be provided as important preventive measures for patients with alcoholism.

A

Influenza immunisation, pneumococcal immunisation, TB tests

151
Q

Name a service that can be provided as an important preventive measure for patients who are overweight.

A

Blood sugar tests for diabetes

152
Q

Name a service that can be provided as an important preventive measure for patients who are homeless, inmates, or recent immigrants.

A

TB tests

153
Q

Name five services that can be provided as important preventive measures for patients who exhibit high-risk sexual behavior.

A

HIV, hepatitis B, syphilis, gonorrhoea and chlamydia tests

154
Q

What infectious diseases are reportable in all states?

A

“Hep Hep Hooray the SSSMMART Chick is Gone”

Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV, Salmonella, Shigella, Syphilis, Measles, Mumps, AIDS, Rubella, Tuberculosis, Chickenpox, Gonorrhoea

155
Q

Name the twelve diseases that are reportable in all states.

A

AIDS, chickenpox, gonorrhoea, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, measles, mumps, rubella, salmonella, shigella, syphilis, TB

156
Q

True or False? HIV infection is reportable only in some states.

A

True

157
Q

In order (from most common to least common) what are the five leading causes of death of infants?

A

Congenital anomalies, short gestation/low birth weight, sudden infant death syndrome, maternal complications of pregnancy, and respiratory distress syndrome

158
Q

In order (from most common to least common) what are the five leading causes of death of children who are between the ages of 1 and 14 years?

A

Injuries, cancer, congenital anomalies, homicide and heart disease

159
Q

In order (from most common to least common) what are the five leading causes of death of people who are between the ages of 15 and 24 years?

A

Injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer and heart disease

160
Q

In order (from most common to least common) what are the five leading causes of death of people who are between the ages of 25 and 64 years?

A

Cancer, heart disease, injuries, suicide, stroke

161
Q

In order (from most common to least common) what are the six leading causes of death of people who are older than 65?

A

Heart disease, cancer, stroke, COPD, pneumonia, influenza

162
Q

Healthcare payment are federal programs that originated from amendments to what act?

A

The Social Security Act

163
Q

What are the names of two federally funded healthcare programs that originated from amendments to the Social Security Act?

A

Medicare and Medicaid

164
Q

What part of Medicare covers hospital-related costs?

A

Medicare Part A

165
Q

What part of Medicare covers doctor bills?

A

Medicare Part B

166
Q

What patient population is eligible for Medicare?

A

Elderly patients (MedicarE is for the Elderly)

167
Q

What patient population is eligible for Medicaid?

A

Low-income/destitute patients (MedicaiD is for the Destitute)

168
Q

True or False? Medicaid is federal and state assistance for individuals with very low incomes.

A

True

169
Q

What program offers matching state and federal government funding for children;s healthcare coverage?

A

CHIP (Children’s Health Insurance Program)

170
Q

What is the role of third-party payers in the American healthcare system?

A

These are insurance companies that collect money from large populations to pay all or a portion of the medical bills of current patients

171
Q

In a fee-for-service system, how are physicians paid?

A

Physicians are paid for each procedure

172
Q

In a capitation system, how are physicians paid?

A

Physicians are paid for a period of time, independent of procedures performed

piggy (83 decks)

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