Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ID Review > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Name all Gram Positive Cocci [8]

A

Staph, Strep, Enterococcus, Granulicatella/Abiotrophia, Peptostreptococcus, parvimonas micra, finegoldia magna, Staph saccharolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name all Gram Positive Rods [8]

A

Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Erysipelothrix, Clostridium, Actinomyces,Propionibacterium, Eggerthella/Eubacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name all Gram Negative Cocci [3]

A

Neisseria, Moraxella, Veillonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name all Gram Negative Rods [8]

A

Enterobacteriacaeae, Nonfermentors [Aceinetobacter, Pseudomonas], Pasteurella, HACEK organisms, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Prevotella, Porphyyromonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name aerobic gram positive cocci [4]

A

Staph, Strep, Enterococcus, Granulicatella/Abiotrophia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name aerobic gram positive rods [4]

A

Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Erysipelothrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name aerobic gram negative cocci [2]

A

Neisseria, Moraxella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name aerobic gram negative rods [4]

A

Enterobacteriacaeae, Nonfermentors [Aceinetobacter, Pseudomonas], Pasteurella, HACEK organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name Anaerobic Gram Positive Cocci [4]

A

Peptostreptococcus, parvimonas micra, finegoldia magna, Staph saccharolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name Anaerobic Gram positive rods [4]

A

Clostridium, Actinomyces,Propionibacterium, Eggerthella/Eubacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name Anaerobic Gram negative rods [4]

A

Bacteriodes, Fusobacterium, Prevotella, Porphyromoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name Anaerobic Gram negative Cocci [1]

A

Veillonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Common contaminant bacteria [10]

A

Peptostreptococcus, parvimona, finegoldia magna, staph [coag negative, saccharolyticus], currently forming gram-positive rods, viridans group strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Organisms associated with gastrointestinal neoplasia

A

Strep gallolyticus, infantarius, alactolyticus, lutetiensis, equinus [all formally strep bovis group], and clostridium septicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spirochete type bacteria [3]

A

Borrelia, leptospira, treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Obligate intracellular bacteria [6]

A

Chlamydia, Coxiella, Rickettsia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia, Oreintia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Differential for gram-positive cocci in clusters [5]

A

Staph aureus and coagulase-negative staph, micrococcus, Aerococcus, Rothia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Differential for gram-positive cocci in pairs

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (may stain Gram variable or gram-negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains differential

A

Viridans group strep, beta-hemolytic strep such as strep pyogenes, enterococcus, abiotropia and Granulicatella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gram-positive rods differential

A

Bacillus, Clostridium, Listeria, lactobacillus, Eggerthella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which bacteria may be big and boxy with spores

A

Bacillus, Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which bacteria may be coccobacillary?

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Coryneform gram-positive rods

A

Corynebacterium, actinomyces, Cutibacterium, Erysipelothrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which bacteria may have sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Beaded gram-positive rods

A

Mycobacterium, nocardia, actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Branching filamentous gram-positive rods

A

Nocardia, streptomyces, Gordonia, Tsukamurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gram variable rods

A

Clostridium, Gardnerella, bacillus, leptotrichia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Gram-negative coccus

A

Veillonella, Acidaminococcus, Megasphaera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Gram-negative diplococci

A

Neisseria meningitidis and gonorrhea, moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gram-negative coccobacilli differential

A

Haemophilus, Acinetobacter, Moraxella, Pasteurella, bacteroides, Brucella, tularensis, aggregatibacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tiny gram-negative rod/junky Gram stain

A

Tularemia, Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gram-negative rods

A

Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Achromobacter, HACEK organisms, pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Organisms that are gram-positive rods but may stain gram-negative

A

Bacillus, Clostridium. Both of these can stain gram variable or gram-negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Examples of gram-negative rods in a fusiform pattern

A

Fusobacterium, leptotrichia, capnocytophaga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Curved gram-negative rods

A

Campylobacter, Helicobacter, vibrio, acrobacter, anaerobiospirillum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes of gram negative diplococci in the CSF?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cause of gram-negative diplococci from joint fluid?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cause of gram-negative diplococci from respiratory source?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Organisms that stain gram variable

A

Acinetobacter, Bacillus, Clostridium, Leptotrichia, Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Buzzword: Seagull shaped or gull wings

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

AVOID anaerobic cultures in the following locations

A

Mouth, throat, stool, superficial wounds, urine, vagina/cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Appropriate place to get anaerobic cultures

A

Blood, deep wounds, abscesses, sterile body fluids, tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pathogens of infection in bite wounds

A

Anaerobic oral flora [Prevotella], Eikenella, Pasteurella, Staph intermedius/pseudointermedius, Strep anginosus group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pathogens that cause culture negative endocarditis

A

Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikenlla corrodens, Kingella [HACEK], Bartonella, Brucella, Chlamydia, Coxiella, Legionella, Mycoplasma, Tropheryma Whipplei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Utility of blood agar?

A

Demonstrates hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does not grow on blood agar?

A

Haemophilus, Francisella, Granulicatella/Abiotrophia, Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What organisms ONLY grow on chocolate agar?

A

Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, N. gonorrhea. Francisella, Granulicatella/Abiotrophia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does NOT grow on chocolate agar?

A

Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the utility of MacConkey agar?

A

Looks at lactose fermentation. Gram-negative rods that are NONfastidious grow on this agar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does NOT grow on MacConkey agar?

A

Gram-positives [though Bacillus might], fastidious gram-negativess such as Brucella, HACEK, Francisella, Moraxella, Neisseria, Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What organisms are alpha-hemolytic?

A

Viridans group strep and enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What organisms are beta-hemolytic?

A

Staph auerus, Clostridium perfringens, Aeromonas, E. coli, Pseudmonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What organisms are catalase positive?

A

Staph, Bacillus, Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What organisms are catalase negative?

A

Enterococcus, Strep, Aerococcus, Actinomyces, Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What organisms are coagulase positive?

A

S. aureus, intermedius, pseudointermedius, schleiferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What organisms are oxidase positive?

A

Aeromonas, moraxella, neisseria, pasteurella, plesiomonas shigelloides, Pseudmonas [except oryzihabitans and luteola]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What organisms are oxidase negative?

A

All enterobacteriaceae except P. shigelloides, Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What organisms are indole positive

A

Aeromonas, E. coli, Morganella morganii, Plesiomonas shigelloides, Proteus vulgaris, Providencia, Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What organisms are indole negative?

A

Acinetobacter, Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

GNR, beta-hemolytic, metallic sheen, green pigment on MacConkey Agar, Oxidase positive organism

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

GRN, beta hemolytic, oxidase negative, indole positive, lactose fermenting

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

GPC in clusters, beta hemolytic, yellow pigment, catalase positive

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What diseases do fleas transmit?

A

Rickettsia typhi, Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What diseases do lice transmit?

A

Bartonella quintana [trench fever], Borrelia recurrentis [relapsing fever], Rickettsia prowazekii [Epidemic typhus]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What diseases do mites transmit?

A

Rickettsia akari [Rickettsialpox] and Orientia tsutsugamushi [Scrub typhus]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is Shiga toxin-producing E. coli detected?

A

MacConkey with sorbitol to detect O157. EIA to detect all other serotypes. BOTH methods are recommended by the CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which shiga toxin is more severe

A

2 > 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is MALDI-TOF MS?

A

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption/Ionization Time-of-Flight Mass Spectrometry. IDs bacteria based on the relative abundance of ribosomal proteins in the cell.

  1. Add colony to MALDI plate
  2. Add matrix to embed bacteria or fungal cells so when they are hit by laser they are not fragmented and can be analyzed
  3. Hit plate with laser
  4. Laser causes desorption and ionization
  5. Positively charged ionized molecules move toward a negatively charged detector and the time of flight is measured which correlates to the weights of proteins
  6. Mass spectrum is made and compared to data base
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Bioterror: Big boxy gram positive rods in chains, catalase positive, non-hemolytic, non-motile

A

Anthrax [Bacillus anthracis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Bioterror: Tiny gram-negative rods that are oxidase and urease positive. MALDI says Ochrobactrum.

A

Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Brucella endemic areas

A

Mexico, South and Central America, Caribbean, Mediterranean basin, Eastern Europe, Middle East

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Risk factors for Brucella?

A

Undercooked meat, raw dairy, veterinarians, Abattoir workers, hunters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What causes Glanders?

A

Burkholderia mallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Gram-negative coccbacilli, slow growing, variable growth on MacConkey agar, oxidase variable, colistin resistant

A

Burkholderia mallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Burkholderia mallei endemic areas?

A

Central and South America, Middle East, Asia, Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Occupations with risk for Burkholderia mallei?

A

Abattoir workers, Horse caretakers, vets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What causes Melioidosis?

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

GNR with “cracked/dry earth” appearance of colonies. Oxidase positive, colistin resistant. MALDI says it is B. thailandensis. Agar has a “musty odor”

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei endemic areas?

A

Tropics, Southeast Asia, Austrialia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei occupational risks?

A

Agricultural workers, this with open skin wounds, DM, CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tiny gram negative rods that are oxidase negative, weakly catalase positive. Only grows on chocolate agar.

A

Tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Tularemia endemic areas?

A

North America, Europe, Asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Tularemia risk factors

A

Hunters who skin rabbits muskrats, prairie dogs. Tick and deer fly bites, mowing over a rabbit’s nest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Safety-pin/bipolar staining on Giemsa stain. Commonly missed on gram stain. “Fried egg” appearance on stain. Oxidase negative. Indole negative. Nonlactose fermener. Nonmotile

A

Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Plague endemic areas?

A

Western US, South America, Africa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Risk factors for plague?

A

Flea bites, hunters who skin rabbits and rodents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Actinotignum schaalii is emerging to cause..?

A

UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Corynebacterium propinquum is emerging to cause..?

A

Respiratory infections and endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Corynebacterium kroppenstedtii is emerging to cause..?

A

Beast abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Leptotrichia is emerging to cause..?

A

Bacteremia in neutropenic patiants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Staph pseudintermedius is emerging to cause..?

A

Dog bite infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Bacteria associated with birds?

A

Chlamydia psittacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Bacteria associated with cats?

A

Bartonella henselae, Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Bacteria associated with farm animals?

A

Anthax, Brucella, Coxiella, E. coli, Campylobscter, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, Leptospira, Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Bacteria associated with fish?

A

E. rhusiopathiae, Strep iniae, Vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Bacteria associated with dogs?

A

Leptospira, Pasteurella, Staph intermedius and pseudointermedis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Bacteria associated with leeches?

A

Aeromonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Bacteria associated with reptiles?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Bacteria associated with Rodents?

A

Leptospira, Spirillum minus, Streptobacillus moniliformis, Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Bacteria associated with chitlins?

A

Yersinia enterocolticia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Bacteria associated with eggs?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Bacteria associated with gravy?

A

Clostridium perfringens

103
Q

Bacteria associated with home-canned goods?

A

Clostridium botulinum

104
Q

Bacteria associated with honey?

A

C. botulinum

105
Q

Bacteria associated with oysters?

A

Vibro vulnificus

106
Q

Bacteria associated with chicken?

A

Campylobacter, salmonella

107
Q

Bacteria associated with raw mil/cheese?

A

STEC, Brucella, Campylobacter, Coxiella burnetti, Listeria, Salmonella

108
Q

Bacteria associated with rice?

A

Bacillus cereus

109
Q

Describe the inherent error of MIC?

A

It is +/- one doubling dilution; so reported MIC of 2 ug/mL may be either 1 or 4 ug/mL.

110
Q

What are aerobic GRN intrinsically resistant to?

A

Clinda and vanco

111
Q

What is Burkholderia cepacia complex intrinsically resistant to?

A

Penicillins, 1st and 2nd gen cephalosporins, ertapenem, colistin, fosfomycin

112
Q

What is Citrobacter koseri intrinsically resistant to?

A

Ampicillin, piperacillin, ticarcillin

113
Q

What is E. coli intrinsically resistant to?

A

Nothing

114
Q

What is Klebsiella intrinsically resistant to?

A

Ampicillin, Ticarcillin

115
Q

What is proteae intrinsically resistant to? [Proteus, Morganella, Providencia]

A

Colistin, nitrofurantoin, tetracyclines and tigecycline.

116
Q

What is Salmonella and shigella intrinsically resistant to?

A

1stand 2nd gen cephalosporins, cephamycins, aminoglycosides

117
Q

What is serratia marcescens intrinsically resistant to?

A

Nitrofurantoin, colistin

118
Q

What is stenotrophomonas maltophilia intrinsically resistant to?

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins 1-3rd gen [except ceftaz], cephamycins, aztreonam, carbapenems, aminoglycosiddes, tetracyline, fosfomycin

119
Q

What is enterococcus intrinsically resistant to?

A

Cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, clinda, bactrim

120
Q

What is E. faecalis intrinsically resistant to?

A

Cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, clinda, bactrim, quinupristin/dalfopristin

121
Q

What is listeria intrinsically resistant to?

A

Cephalosporins

122
Q

What are the SPICE organisms?

A

Serratia, Pseudomonas, Indole-positive protea [Proteus vulgaris, Providencia, Morganella morganii], Citrobacter freundii complex, Enterobacter spp.

123
Q

What are the SPICE organisms resistant to?

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, ertapenem.

124
Q

What bacteria are resistant to colistin? [7]

A

Gram positives, Burkholderia, Inquilinus limosus, Neisseria, Pandoraea, Protea [Proteus, Providencia, Morganella], Serratia

125
Q

What bacteria are vancomycin resistant?

A

Gram-negatives, Colstridium innocuum, Enterococcus gallinarum and casseliflavus, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus, Weissella

126
Q

What is mecA and mecC?

A

Gene that encodes penicillin binding proteint 2a, responsible for MRSA. mecA is most common in US and World. mecC is reported in Europe, rare in US

127
Q

What beta-lactams might cover MRSA?

A

Ceftaroline and ceftobiprole [not in US]

128
Q

What is responsible for VISA?

A

Not acquired or intrinsic; phenotype is due to expression changes in Staph aureus when exposed to vanco. Multiple genomic changes can be responsible, most notable is increased thickness of cell wall.

129
Q

Describe vanA and vanB

A

Encodes for cell wall precursors that end with D-alanyl-D-lactate rather than D-alanyl-D-alaine. This allows for VRSA and VRE. vanA is most common in US and resistant to teicoplanin. vanB is less common in US and susceptible to teicoplanin

130
Q

What is KPC?

A

This is Klebsiella pneumonia carbapenemase. Leads to resistance to all beta-lactams. Found in Enterobacteriaceae and nonfermenters.

131
Q

What are the metallo-beta-lactamases?

A

NDM [New Dehli metallo-beta-lactamase], VIM [Verona imipenemase], IMP [Imipenem metallo-beta-lactamase]

132
Q

What are oxacillinases?

A

These are resistant to carbapenems but retain susceptibility to cephalosporins

133
Q

Treatment options for VRE?

A

Daptomycin, doxycycline, linezolid, tedizolid, oritavancin, quinupristin/dalfopristin [E. faecium only]

134
Q

Treatment options for carbapenemase producing organisms?

A

Ceftazidim/avibactam [no activity against metallo-beta-lactamases], colistin, meropenem/vaborbactam [limited activity against metallo-beta-lactamases and oxacillinases], tigecycline

135
Q

What antibiotics cover anaerobes?

A

Ampicillin/penicillin [only gram positive anaerobes], betalactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combos, cephamycins, carbapenems, clinda, flagyl, moxifloxacin, tetracycline

136
Q

What are aerobic actinomycetes?

A

They are filamentous bacteria found in soil that are not genetically related. They are typically GPR with some form of branching that grow slowly.

137
Q

What are examples of aerobic actinomycetes? [5]

A

Gordonia, Norcardia, Rhodococcus, Streptomyces, Tsukamurella

138
Q

Strategy to identify aerobic actinomycetes?

A

Grow on fungal culture due to slow growth rates. Obtain a modified acid-fast stain due to the presence of mycolic acids in their cell wall

139
Q

Which aerobic actinmycete is NOT identified via a modified acid fast stain?

A

Streptomyces

140
Q

What is a modified acid fast stain?

A

This uses sulfuric acid as a decolorizing step vs traditional which uses hydrochloric acid as a decolorizer. Aerobic actinomyetes are typically NEGATIVE with this type of stain.

141
Q

Describe colonies of nocardia?

A

Chalky white, dry. Develop orange pigment with time

142
Q

Describe the gram stain of nocardia

A

Beaded rods that are more delicate than streptomyces

143
Q

How does streptomyces differ from nocardia?

A

Streptomyces rods are thicker than nocardia, streptomyces modified acid-fast is negative.

144
Q

In whom is 5 or more mm of induration positive for TB?

A

Immunosuppressed patients [HIV, transplant, high-dose steroids], those with close contact with TB, those with fibrotic lung changes on CXR consistent with prior TB

145
Q

In whom is 10 mm or more induration considered positive for TB?

A

Recent [<5 years] immigrants from high-burden countries, IVDU, mycobacteria lab personnel, Children <4.

146
Q

How is anaplasma phagocytophilum diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT; serology 2 weeks post infection.

147
Q

How is Barotnella diagnosed?

A

Serology, PCR/NAAT

148
Q

How is bordetella pertussis diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT on respiratory specimens

149
Q

How is borrelia burgdoferi diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT. Serology should NOT bed tested if the patient has NOT been in a lyme-endemic region due to false positives. Immunoblot to confirm

150
Q

How is borrelia relapsing fever diagnosed?

A

Microscopy to look for spirochetes in blood, PCR/NAAT, serology

151
Q

How is chlamydia psittaci diagnosed?

A

Serology [IgM and IgG]

152
Q

How is Chlamydia pneumonia diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT on resp secretions

153
Q

How is coxiella burnetii diagnosed?

A

Serology

154
Q

What does Phase 1 > Phase 2 antibodies in coxiella burnetii indicate? Phase 2 > Phase 1?

A

1 > 2 = chronic or past infection.

2 > 1 = acute infection

155
Q

How is Ehrlichia diagnosed

A

PCR/NAAT, Microscopy with giemsa stain of blood smear to receal morulae.

156
Q

Which Ehrlichia can be diagnosed via serology?

A

Chaffeensis, E. ewingii cross-reacts

157
Q

How is Kingella kingae diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT of joint fluids for septic arthritis. Blood culture for other presentations [endocarditis, woundd infection]

158
Q

How is Klebsiella granulomatis diagnosed?

A

Visualization of Donovan bodies on tissue crush preperation or biopsy

159
Q

How is haemophilis ducreyi diagnosed?

A

Culture on special media [only in speciality labs, <80% sensitive]. Rule out syphilis and HSV prior to testing

160
Q

How long must abx, PPI and bismuth compounds be stopped prior to H. pylori testing?

A

2-4 weeks

161
Q

Which legionella group does the urine antigen test?

A

Group 1, this can be <50% of infections in some parts of the county.

162
Q

How is leptospira diagnosed?

A

Culture of blood and CSF in the first week of symptoms.
Urine after 7-10 days of illness
Serology: IgM after 7-10 days

163
Q

How is mycoplasma genitalium diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT

164
Q

How is mycoplasma hominis diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT, culture on special media

165
Q

How is mycoplasma pnemonia diagnosed?

A

PCR/NAAT

166
Q

How is Orientia tsutsugamushi ddiagnosed?

A

Serology, PCR/NAAT

167
Q

How is rickettsia diagnosed?

A

Serology

168
Q

How is Spirllum minus diagnosed?

A

Visualization of blood and infected tissues with Giemsa stain, Wright stain, or darkfield microscopy. Broad-range bacterial PCR sequencing.

169
Q

How is streptobacillus moniliformis diagnosed?

A

Culture with enriched liquid media

170
Q

What are nontreponemal tests?

A

This detects antibodies against molecules released by cells damaged t. pallidum. RPR and VDRL are these tests. VDRL is only 30% sensitive but 99% specific.

171
Q

What is the prozone effect?

A

This is high concentrations of RPR leading to a false negative. Asking the lab to dilute the specimen can overcome this.

172
Q

What can cause false positive RPR?

A

Pertenue [causative agent of yaws], T. carateum [cause of pinta], rickettsial disease, TB

173
Q

What are the treponemal tests?

A

These are specific to Treponema and cross react with other species.
TP-PA: T. pallidum particle agglutination
FTA-ABS: Fluorescent treponemal antibody - absorption

174
Q

How is Tropheryme whipplei diagnosed?

A

Histopathology of intestinal biopsy.
Periodic acid-Schiff [PAS] stain for foamy macrophages
PCR/NAAT

175
Q

What leads to false positive PPD [3]

A

Previous BCG vaccine or BCG cancer therapy, hyper-reactive skin, NTM/MOTT infection.

176
Q

What can cause false negative PPD [6]

A

Recent TB infection [8-10 weeks of exposure], <6 months of age, very old infection, recent live-virus vaccination, overwhelming TB disease, measles and varicella infection

177
Q

How does IGRA work?

A

Patient’s blood is incubated with MTB antigens, if infected T-cells will recognize antigens and release interferon gamma.

178
Q

What is the difference between quantiferon gold and TSPOT?

A

Quantiferon: Amount of interferon released
TSPOT: looks at number of interferon producing T-cells

179
Q

What can cause false positives with IGRA? [1]

A

Infection with NTM/MOOT [kansaii, marinum, szulgai]

180
Q

What can cause false negative IGRA? [3]

A

> 65, immunodef, disseminated TB, extrapulmonary TB

181
Q

What is Cepheid Xpert?

A

PCR detection of MTB and rifampin resistance from sputum collection. Must be used in conjunction with culture.

182
Q

What is acid fast?

A

Mycolic acids stain with carbol fuchsin and are not readily decolorized by acids after staining.

183
Q

What is rapid growing MB?

A

Growth within 7 days

184
Q

What can cause a false positive rapid growing MB?

A

Sample from high burden specimen that can grow in as little as 3-4 days.

185
Q

What can cause a false positive slow growing MB?

A

Sample from a low-burden specimen

186
Q

Which mycobacterium have DNA probes?

A

MTB, MAC, kansasii, gordonae

187
Q

How is MTB resistance testing done?

A

Two plates; one with Rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutol, pyrazinamide. This is compared to a control. If there is 1% or more growth on antimicrobial plate compared to control it is considered resistant to that drug.

188
Q

What are the slow growing mycobacteria? [11]

A

TB, MAC, chimaera, gordonae, heamophilum, kansasii, leprae, marinum, szulgai, ulcerans, xenopi.

189
Q

What are the rapid growing mycobacteria? [3]

A

Abscessus, chrlonae, fortuitum

190
Q

What causes Lady Windermere syndrome?

A

MAC

191
Q

What causes hot tub lung?

A

MAX

192
Q

What causes infection during open-heart surgery due to contaminated heater cooler units?

A

Chimaera

193
Q

What will be misidentified as MAC by MALDI, MPLC?

A

Chimaera

194
Q

Which slow growing mycobacteria is a likely contaminate?

A

Gordonae

195
Q

What does mycobacterium haemophilum require for growth?

A

Incubation at 30-32 degrees and hemin

196
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of non-TB lung disease in the USA?

A

Kansasii

197
Q

How is mycobacterium leprae diagnosed?

A

Slit-skin smears or skin scrapings. Does not grow on culture.

198
Q

Is Staph aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

199
Q

Is Strep aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

200
Q

Is Enterococcus aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

201
Q

Is Granulicatella/Abiotrophia aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

202
Q

Is Bacillus aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

203
Q

Is Corynebacterium aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

204
Q

Is Listeria aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

205
Q

Is Erysipelothrix aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

206
Q

Is Neisseria aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

207
Q

Is Moraxella aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

208
Q

Is Enterobacteriacaeae aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

209
Q

Are Nonfermentors [Aceinetobacter, Pseudomonas] aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

210
Q

Is Pasteurella aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

211
Q

Are HACEK organisms aerobic or anaerobic

A

Aerobic

212
Q

At what temp does marinum grow?

A

28-30 degrees celsius

213
Q

What organism causes Buruli ulcer?

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

214
Q

At what temp does mycobacterium ulcerans grow?

A

29-33 degrees celsius

215
Q

What disease disease does mycobacterium xenopi cause?

A

Pulmonary infection in those with chronic lung disease

216
Q

At what temp does xenopi grow?

A

42-43 degrees celsius

217
Q

What is the most common rapidly growing mycobacterium

A

Abscessus

218
Q

What type of disease dose abscessus cause?

A

Pulmonary infections, esp in those with CF. Disseminated disease in immunocompromised. Otitis media, soft tissue infections.

219
Q

What is the erm gene

A

This is an inducible gene that allows abscessus to have resistance to macrolides.

220
Q

Which subspecies have the erm gene?

A

Abscessus may contain this. Bolletii 100% has this. Massiliense does not.

221
Q

What type of infections does mycobacterium chelonae cause?

A

Localized and disseminated cutaneous infections. Can be disseminated in immunosuppressed esp those on systemic steroids.

222
Q

What is chelonae’s preferred temperature for growth?

A

28-32 degrees celsius

223
Q

What is molecular detection of drug resistance assay?

A

Uses PCR cobined with sequencing. It detects genetic loci associated with drug resistance to the following: RIPE drugs, fluoroquinolones, amikacin, capreomycin. Used only for MTB

224
Q

Define multidrug resistant TB

A

Resistant to at least 2 primary first line drugs [isoniazid and rifampin]

225
Q

Define Extensively or Extreme drug resistant TB

A

MDR TB that is resistant to 3 or more 2nd line drugs.

226
Q

What is a giemsa stain?

A

This is used to diagnose H. pylori and H. heilmannii infections. Tough to interpret. Enhanced H and E stain

227
Q

What is a H. pylori immunostain

A

More sensitive and specific giemsa stain but it is slow and expensive.

228
Q

What is a PAS stain?

A

Detects polysaccharides including mucopolysaccharides.

229
Q

What is a Warthin-Starry stain?

A

Silver nitrate stain for dection of Spirochetes [treponema, borrelia, leptospira], H. pylori, Bartonella henselae

230
Q

What is the Fite stain used for?

A

Looking at M. leprae and Nocardia

231
Q

What are the acid fast stains? [3]

A

Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, Fite

232
Q

Are E. coli and shigella separated on MALDI?

A

No

233
Q

What are the nutritionally variant strep?

A

Abiotrophia

Granulicatella

234
Q

Describe the agar brucella grows on

A

Grows on sheep blood and chocolate agar slowly

MAY take 5-6 days to grow.

235
Q

Describe the agar Burkholderia pseudomallei grows on

A

Grows on Grows on sheep blood, MacConkey and chocolate agar

  • -> Difficult to isolate because in resp. secretions there are a lot of other flora that may crowd it out.
  • -> Ashdown agar can be used
  • -> CF media can be used
236
Q

Describe the conditions which campylobacter grows

A

Nutritional enrichment

LOWER concentrations of O2

237
Q

Describe the conditions which tularensis grows

A

CAN grow on blood and chocolate agar but not well.

Prefers buffered charcoal yeast extract

238
Q

Examples of acid fast organisms

A

Mycobacterium

239
Q

Examples of modified acid fast organisms [5]

A 
Nocardia species
Rhodococcus species
Gordonia species
Tsukamurella species
Dietzia species
240
Q

Describe when PEP is needed for Burkholdheria

pseudomallei [2]

A

IF low risk - none
IF high risk - Bactrim [doxy or augmentin alt]

NOTE: May be resistant to all 3 above drugs so resistance testing is a must.

241
Q

Describe LOW risk Burkholdheria exposure [5]

A
  1. Inadvertent opening of the lid of an agar plate growing B. pseudomallei outside a biologic safety cabinet
  2. Inadvertent sniffing of agar plate growing B. pseudomallei in the absence of contact between worker and bacterium
  3. Splash event leading to visible contact of B. pseudomallei with gloved hand or protected body, in the absence of any evidence of aerosol
  4. Spillage of small volume of liquid culture (<1mL) within a functioning biologic safety cabinet
  5. Contamination of intact skin with culture
242
Q

Describe HIGH risk Burkholdheria exposure [5]

A
  1. The presence of any predisposing condition without proper personal protective equipment (PPE): diabetes mellitus; chronic liver or kidney disease; alcohol abuse; long-term steroid use; hematologic malignancy; neutropenia or neutrophil dysfunction; chronic lung
    disease (including cystic fibrosis); thalassemia; any other form of immunosuppression
  2. Needlestick or other penetrating injury
  3. Bite or scratch by experimental animal infected with B. pseudomallei
  4. Splash event leading to contamination of mouth or eyes
    Generation of aerosol outside biologic safety cabinet (e.g., sonication, centrifuge incident)
243
Q

What is the most common cause of lab transmitted infections?

A

Brucella

–> Just opening the plate is enough to cause infection

244
Q

Describe how lab works should be keeps safe from N. meaningitidis?

A

They should all be vaccinated with BOTH vaccines.
AND
PEP if exposed

245
Q

What organisms should the lab be notified of if they are in your differential due to infectivity? [17]

A 
Avian influenza
 Bacillus anthracis
 Brucella species
 Burkholdheria pseudomallei
 Burkholdheria mallei
 Clostridium botulinum
 Coxiella burnetii
 Coccidioides immitis/posadasii
 Hemorrhagic fever viruses
(e.g., Ebola, Marburg, Chapare, Crimean-Congo,
Guanarito, Hanta, Junin, Kayasnur Forest Disease, Lassa
fever, Lujo, Machupo, Omsk Hemorrhagic Fever, Sabia)
 Francisella tularensis
 Measles
 MERS, SARS-associated coronavirus
 Nipah virus, Hendra virus
 Smallpox
 Yersinia pestis
246
Q

How is bla KPC different from New Delhi KPC?

A

New Delhi KPC is resistant to ceftolazane/avibactam

247
Q

What test detects carbapenemase production?

A

Carba NP test

248
Q

How does the carba NP test work?

A
  1. Take organism and intubate with imipenem
  2. If the organism has a carbapenemase, it will hydrolyze it creating CO2, reducing pH
  3. Change in pH will turn media from red to yellow
249
Q

What is VanC?

A

Found in genome of E. gallinarum or E. casseliflavus/flavescens
Leads to intermediate vanco MICs
NOT transmittable.

250
Q

Describe the role of tigecycline in the treatment of acinetobacter

A

Has failed clinically even when active in vitro

251
Q

What type of infection does metamycoplasma hominis cause?

A

Post-cardiothoracic transplant, Pleuritis [pleural effusion], surgical site infection and/or mediastinitis.

252
Q

Treatment of metamycoplasma hominis?

A

Doxy preferred
Clinda or fluroquinolones alternative.
–> NOTE: Unlike other mycoplasma it is intrinsically resistant to macrocodes

253
Q

Why is metamycoplasma hominis difficult to isolate?

A

Requires special media to grow

Does not have a cell wall so does not gram stain.

ID Review (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions