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Year 2 Gastrointestinal > Bacterial infections of the GI tract > Flashcards

Bacterial infections of the GI tract Flashcards

1
Q

when do botulism symptoms arise?

A

12 to 26 hours

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2
Q

what are the symptoms of botulism toxicity?

A

dizziness, dry mouth, blurred or double vision

abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea

progressive paralysis

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3
Q

what is the most common cause of death in botulism toxicity?

A

respiratory arrest

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4
Q

is there fever in botulism? why or why not?

A

no

nothing for immune system to respond to - ingestion of toxin

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5
Q

what is the shape of c. botulinum?

A

rod

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6
Q

does c. botulinum form spores?

A

yes

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7
Q

is c. botulinum aerobic or anaerobic?

A

strict anaerobe

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8
Q

what is the pathogenesis of botulism toxin?

A

A-B toxin

B attaches to specific receptors on motor nerve endings
A portion enters nerve cell

toxin blocks release of Ach, preventing discharge of NT by exocytosis

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9
Q

floppy baby is infection with what organism?

A

c. botulinum

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10
Q

what is the treatment for c. botulinum?

A

IV antitoxin

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11
Q

is c. difficile aerobic or anaerobic?

A

strict anaerobe

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12
Q

is c. difficile gram negative or positive?

A

positive

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13
Q

does c. difficile form spores?

A

yes

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14
Q

what is the shape of c. difficile?

A

rod

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15
Q

is c. botulinum gram negative or positive?

A

positive

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16
Q

what organism causes antibiotic associated pseudomembrane colitis?

A

c. difficile

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17
Q

what is the transmission for c. difficile?

A

GI tract (fecal oral)

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18
Q

what is the pathogenesis of c. difficile?

A

antibiotics cause disruption of normal flora

c. difficile colonizes and takes over in GI tract

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19
Q

what are the clinical findings of c. difficile?

A

pseudomembranes
neutrophils found in non-bloody stool
toxic megacolon

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20
Q

how can pseudomembranous colitis be distinguished from antibiotic associated diarrhea?

A

presence of toxin in stool

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21
Q

what is the treatment for c. difficile?

A

oral metronidazol or vancomycin

fluid replacement

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22
Q

is shigella dysenteriae gram negative or positive?

A

gram negative

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23
Q

what is the shape of shigella dysenteriae?

A

rod

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24
Q

what is the color of shigella on MacConkey agar? why?

A

colorless

non-lactose fermenting

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25
how can shigella be distinguised from salmonella?
shigella does not produce gas from glucose fermentation shigella does not produce H2S shigella are not motile
26
shigella has what antigens in their cell walls?
O antigens (polysaccharide, LPS)
27
what is the pathogenesis of shigellosis?
invades mucosa in distal ileum and colon, but do not penetrate further than GI tract (nor do they enter the bloodstream)
28
what is the incubation period of shigella?
1-4 days
29
what is the drug of choice for severe cases of shigella in adults?
a fluoroquinilone (ciprofloxacin)
30
what is the drug of choice for shigella in pediatric patients?
trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole or azithromycin
31
why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in pediatric patients?
tendinitis and tendon rupture (cartilage and joint damage)
32
salmonella spp. cause what conditions?
enterocolitis enteric fevers septicemia
33
salmonella is gram negative or positive?
negative
34
what is the shape of salmonella?
rod
35
does salmonella ferment lactose?
no
36
does salmonella produce H2S?
yes
37
what is the pathogenesis of eterocolitis salmonella typhimurium and most salmonella?
invasion into epithelium and subepithelial tissues of small and large intestines penetration into lamina propria
38
what is the best host defense for eterocolitis salmonella typhimurium and most salmonella?
gastric acid
39
what is the pathogenesis of salmonella typhi?
multiply on mononuclear phagocytes of peyers patches spread to phagocytes of liver, gall bladder, spleen - bacteremia
40
what is the incubation for salmonellosis?
12-48 hours
41
rose spots are indicative of what disease?
s. typhi salmonellosis
42
what procedure could be done to reduce the carrier state of salmonellosis?
cholecystectomy
43
e. coli is gram negative or positive?
negative
44
does e. coli ferment lactose?
yes
45
what is the shape of e. coli?
rod
46
how is e. coli distinguished from salmonella and shigella?
e. coli ferments lactose
47
what is characteristic of ETEC infection?
no blood
48
what is the pathogenesis of ETEC?
one or more adhesins - adheres to intestinal mucosa
49
what is the pathogenesis of EIEC (enteroinvasive)?
enters and grows in intestinal epithelium, resulting in cell destruction large intestine involvement
50
what are the characteristics of stool in EIEC?
blood and pus
51
where is EPEC usually seen?
hospital nurseries, bottle fed infants in developing countries
52
what is the pathogenesis of EPEC?
plasmid dependent adhesins cause loss of microvilli at site of attachment
53
does EHEC penetrate intestinal epithelium?
no
54
many individuals with EHEC also develop what other condition?
hemolytic uremic system
55
what is the main clinical feature of hemolytic uremic system?
lysis of RBCs and kidney failure
56
are PMNs present in the stool of cholera patients?
no
57
what is the shape of vibrio cholerae?
curved
58
is vibrio cholerae gram negative or positive?
gram negative
59
vibrio cholerae can tolerate what types of extreme conditions?
strong alkaline | high salt
60
what is the pathogenesis of cholera?
AB cholera toxin B binds host cell on microvilli of epithelial cells A causes activation of adenylate cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP
61
what is the shape of c. jejuni?
motile, curved
62
is c. jejuni gram negative or positive?
negative
63
severe cases of c. jejuni are treated with what abx?
erythromycin or cipro
64
is h. pylori gram negative or positive?
negative
65
what is the shape of h. pylori?
short spiral, flagellated
66
what is the pathogenesis of h. pylori?
produces urease which creates an alkaline microenvironment by hydrolyzing urea to ammonia
67
is c. jejuni urease positive or negative?
negative

Year 2 Gastrointestinal (38 decks)

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