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Year 2 Gastrointestinal > Bacterial infections of the GI tract > Flashcards

Bacterial infections of the GI tract Flashcards

1
Q

when do botulism symptoms arise?

A

12 to 26 hours

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2
Q

what are the symptoms of botulism toxicity?

A

dizziness, dry mouth, blurred or double vision

abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea

progressive paralysis

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3
Q

what is the most common cause of death in botulism toxicity?

A

respiratory arrest

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4
Q

is there fever in botulism? why or why not?

A

no

nothing for immune system to respond to - ingestion of toxin

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5
Q

what is the shape of c. botulinum?

A

rod

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6
Q

does c. botulinum form spores?

A

yes

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7
Q

is c. botulinum aerobic or anaerobic?

A

strict anaerobe

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8
Q

what is the pathogenesis of botulism toxin?

A

A-B toxin

B attaches to specific receptors on motor nerve endings
A portion enters nerve cell

toxin blocks release of Ach, preventing discharge of NT by exocytosis

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9
Q

floppy baby is infection with what organism?

A

c. botulinum

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10
Q

what is the treatment for c. botulinum?

A

IV antitoxin

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11
Q

is c. difficile aerobic or anaerobic?

A

strict anaerobe

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12
Q

is c. difficile gram negative or positive?

A

positive

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13
Q

does c. difficile form spores?

A

yes

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14
Q

what is the shape of c. difficile?

A

rod

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15
Q

is c. botulinum gram negative or positive?

A

positive

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16
Q

what organism causes antibiotic associated pseudomembrane colitis?

A

c. difficile

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17
Q

what is the transmission for c. difficile?

A

GI tract (fecal oral)

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18
Q

what is the pathogenesis of c. difficile?

A

antibiotics cause disruption of normal flora

c. difficile colonizes and takes over in GI tract

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19
Q

what are the clinical findings of c. difficile?

A

pseudomembranes
neutrophils found in non-bloody stool
toxic megacolon

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20
Q

how can pseudomembranous colitis be distinguished from antibiotic associated diarrhea?

A

presence of toxin in stool

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21
Q

what is the treatment for c. difficile?

A

oral metronidazol or vancomycin

fluid replacement

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22
Q

is shigella dysenteriae gram negative or positive?

A

gram negative

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23
Q

what is the shape of shigella dysenteriae?

A

rod

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24
Q

what is the color of shigella on MacConkey agar? why?

A

colorless

non-lactose fermenting

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25
Q

how can shigella be distinguised from salmonella?

A

shigella does not produce gas from glucose fermentation
shigella does not produce H2S
shigella are not motile

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26
Q

shigella has what antigens in their cell walls?

A

O antigens (polysaccharide, LPS)

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27
Q

what is the pathogenesis of shigellosis?

A

invades mucosa in distal ileum and colon, but do not penetrate further than GI tract (nor do they enter the bloodstream)

28
Q

what is the incubation period of shigella?

29
Q

what is the drug of choice for severe cases of shigella in adults?

A

a fluoroquinilone (ciprofloxacin)

30
Q

what is the drug of choice for shigella in pediatric patients?

A

trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole or azithromycin

31
Q

why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in pediatric patients?

A

tendinitis and tendon rupture (cartilage and joint damage)

32
Q

salmonella spp. cause what conditions?

A

enterocolitis
enteric fevers
septicemia

33
Q

salmonella is gram negative or positive?

34
Q

what is the shape of salmonella?

35
Q

does salmonella ferment lactose?

36
Q

does salmonella produce H2S?

37
Q

what is the pathogenesis of eterocolitis salmonella typhimurium and most salmonella?

A

invasion into epithelium and subepithelial tissues of small and large intestines

penetration into lamina propria

38
Q

what is the best host defense for eterocolitis salmonella typhimurium and most salmonella?

A

gastric acid

39
Q

what is the pathogenesis of salmonella typhi?

A

multiply on mononuclear phagocytes of peyers patches

spread to phagocytes of liver, gall bladder, spleen - bacteremia

40
Q

what is the incubation for salmonellosis?

A

12-48 hours

41
Q

rose spots are indicative of what disease?

A

s. typhi salmonellosis

42
Q

what procedure could be done to reduce the carrier state of salmonellosis?

A

cholecystectomy

43
Q

e. coli is gram negative or positive?

44
Q

does e. coli ferment lactose?

45
Q

what is the shape of e. coli?

46
Q

how is e. coli distinguished from salmonella and shigella?

A

e. coli ferments lactose

47
Q

what is characteristic of ETEC infection?

48
Q

what is the pathogenesis of ETEC?

A

one or more adhesins - adheres to intestinal mucosa

49
Q

what is the pathogenesis of EIEC (enteroinvasive)?

A

enters and grows in intestinal epithelium, resulting in cell destruction

large intestine involvement

50
Q

what are the characteristics of stool in EIEC?

A

blood and pus

51
Q

where is EPEC usually seen?

A

hospital nurseries, bottle fed infants in developing countries

52
Q

what is the pathogenesis of EPEC?

A

plasmid dependent adhesins cause loss of microvilli at site of attachment

53
Q

does EHEC penetrate intestinal epithelium?

54
Q

many individuals with EHEC also develop what other condition?

A

hemolytic uremic system

55
Q

what is the main clinical feature of hemolytic uremic system?

A

lysis of RBCs and kidney failure

56
Q

are PMNs present in the stool of cholera patients?

57
Q

what is the shape of vibrio cholerae?

58
Q

is vibrio cholerae gram negative or positive?

A

gram negative

59
Q

vibrio cholerae can tolerate what types of extreme conditions?

A

strong alkaline

high salt

60
Q

what is the pathogenesis of cholera?

A

AB cholera toxin

B binds host cell on microvilli of epithelial cells
A causes activation of adenylate cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP

61
Q

what is the shape of c. jejuni?

A

motile, curved

62
Q

is c. jejuni gram negative or positive?

63
Q

severe cases of c. jejuni are treated with what abx?

A

erythromycin or cipro

64
Q

is h. pylori gram negative or positive?

65
Q

what is the shape of h. pylori?

A

short spiral, flagellated

66
Q

what is the pathogenesis of h. pylori?

A

produces urease which creates an alkaline microenvironment by hydrolyzing urea to ammonia

67
Q

is c. jejuni urease positive or negative?

Year 2 Gastrointestinal (38 decks)

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