Back Flashcards
1
Q
The function of the spinous and transverse processes is to:
A
Act as muscle attachment sites to allow movement of the vertebral column
2
Q
Primary curvatures of the spine are also called:
A
kyphoses
3
Q
An anterior arch with an anterior tubercle is a feature of which vertebra
A
C1
4
Q
What is true about ALL thoracic vertebrae?
A
They all have at least one costal facet
5
Q
Which vertebra has two lateral masses?
A
C1
6
Q
Which part of the vertebra is referred to as “pars interarticularis”?
A
Part of the lamina between the superior and inferior articular processes
7
Q
The spinous process of T12 in a living subject can be identified as follows:
A
The midway between the iliac crest and inferior angle of the scapula
8
Q
The bodies of lumbar vertebrae are what shape
A
kidney shaped
9
Q
Failure of the neural tube to close is known as:
A
spina bifida
10
Q
Where can the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae be palpated
A
laterally in the neck
11
Q
The transverse processes of which region of the vertebral column have anterior and posterior tubercles?
A
Cervical
12
Q
Lordosis refers to a curvature of the vertebral column that is:
A
Concave posteriorly
13
Q
Typical cervical vertebrae include:
A
C3-C6
14
Q
Which of the following will aid palpation and identification of spinous processes?
A
Flexion of the vertebral column
15
Q
The annular epiphysis fuses with the body of the vertebra around what age?
A
18 years of age
16
Q
The promontory is found on which aspect of the sacrum?
A
Superior
17
Q
Lifetime risk of back problems is around:
A
80%
18
Q
The typical lumbar vertebrae include:
A
L1-L5 (all of them are typical)
19
Q
What are two distinguishing features of the thoracic vertebrae?
A
Costal facets and heart shaped body
20
Q
Scoliosis is:
A
lateral deviation of the vertebral column
21
Q
A spinous process is a feature of which of the following cervical vertebrae?
A
C2-C7
22
Q
How many ossification centres does each vertebra have in foetal life?
A
3
23
Q
How many ossification centres does each developing vertebra have?
A
3
24
Q
When do the secondary curvatures of the vertebral column develop:
A
as weight bearing in those regions begins
25
Does T1 have a long inferiorly directed spinous process which overlaps with T2?
no. looks very similar to cerviacle vertebra C7, however T1 has costal facets.
26
What are Secondary curvatures:
cervical and lumbar curvatures
27
The vertebral foramen of typical cervical vertebrae are:
Large and triangular
28
Which vertebra has no body?
C1
29
Which thoracic vertebrae have no costal facet on their transverse processes?
11 and 12
30
The bodies of typical cervical vertebra are what shape?
rectangular
31
Fractures of pars interarticularis are most commonly seen in which vertebral region?
lumbar
32
Which of the following is true of anencephaly?
It is always fatal
33
Bone spurs are known as:
Osteophytes
34
How many sacral crests are there?
3
35
The inferior opening of the sacral canal is known as the:
sacral hiatus
36
The number of vertebrae in each region of the vertebral column from superior to inferior would be:
7, 12, 5, 5, 4
37
Which ribs articulate with T1?
1 and 2
38
The inferior angle of the scapula can be used as a landmark for the spinous process of the following
T7
39
How can you distinguish between T11 and T12
T12 can be distinguished from T11 because the orientation of T12 inferior articular facets resembles those of lumbar vertebrae
40
The spinous process of which of the following vertebra can be palpated at the base of the neck
C7
41
Which is a distinguishing features of lumbar vertebra
Their superior articular processes have mammillary processes
42
what shape are lumbar vertebral foramina
Triangular
43
The superior and inferior articular facets of lumbar vertebrae face:
Medial/lateral
44
Typical thoracic vertebrae inlcude:
T2-T9
45
Which part of a vertebra has the thinnest layer of compact bone?
the body
46
The spine of the scapula can be used as a landmark for the spinous process of which of the following vertebrae?
T3
47
Because of trabecular arrangement of the vertebrae, parts of the vertebra are referred to as areas of relative weakness. These areas are located on:
Anterior vertebral body
48
Which bones often have cornua?
Sacrum and coccyx
49
A bilateral, displaced fracture of the pars interarticularis is known as:
Spondylolisthesis
50
Kyphosis refers to a curvature of the vertebral column that is:
Concave anteriorly
51
The spinous process of which of the following vertebra can be usually palpated at the base of the skull?
C2
52
The atypical featurte of C7 is:
Long, non-bifid spinous process
53
Disc herniation most frequently occurs:
At L4/L5 level
54
The lamellae of the annulus fibrosus are arranged at what angle?
30º
55
Where does the anterior longitudinal ligament extend from?
It extends from C1 to sacrum
56
Where does the human ligamentum nuchae run?
It runs from C7 up to the external occipital protuberance
57
Where in the vertebral column is a proteoglycan gel found?
The nucleus pulposus
58
Which part of the annulus fibrosus is innervated by pain receptors?
The outer ⅓
59
Bilateral action of the splenii muscles would cause:
Extension of the head and neck
60
The extrinsic back muscles include:
Latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior and rhomboids but not splenius capitis
61
Which is more superficial, the splenii muscle group or erector spinae?
Splenii is more superficial
62
Intervertebra discs can reduce in thickness to respond to ____
load
63
The brachial plexus and subclavian artery emerge from between which muscles?
Anterior and middle scalenes
64
What is a list of the parts of the cruciform ligament?
Superior ligament, inferior ligament and transverse ligament of the atlas
65
at what age is the end plate of the vertebral column is avascular:
10 years
66
Which muscles attaches to the iliac crest and 12th rib?
Quadratus lumborum
67
Which muscles is able to extend the vertebral column?
Longissimus
68
What is is true about the zygapophyseal joints:
The height of the intervertebral disc affects the distribution of the load on the zygapophyseal joints
69
Rotatores belongs to which of group of muscles?
Transversospinalis
70
What percentage of the ligamenta flava is elastin?
80%
71
Which muscles are able to produce lateral flexion of the vertebral column?
Iliocostalis, longissimus and spinalis
72
Intervertebral discs and bodies of vertebrae together form:
Secondary cartilaginous joints
73
How much taller would you be in zero gravity?
5cm
74
What does ligamenta flava try and resist?
They act to resist excessive flexion of the back
75
Where do erector spinae muscles attache
sacrum and thoracolumbar fascia
76
In a healthy young adult what percentage of the nucleus pulposus is water?
80-90
77
The ligament that is most susceptible to sprains due to hyperflexion is:
Supraspinous
78
The main function of the cruciform ligament is:
To prevent displacement of the dens
79
During load transfer at vertebral joints which of the three articulations move together?
```
All three
The zygapohyseal (facet) joints
The intervertebral joint
```
80
Which muscle attaches to adjacent spinous processes?
Interspinales
81
Which part of the cruciform ligament is the strongest?
The transverse ligament of the atlas
82
Which of the following are both extrinsic back muscles?
Trapezius and serratus posterior
83
Which ligaments are not very strong?
Intertransverse ligaments
84
What part of the vertebra the most weight
Intervertebral discs and bodies
85
The sacrococcygeal joint is a:
Secondary cartilaginous joint
86
uncovertebral joints do NOT have a complete _____ lined with a ________ ________
uncovertebral joints do not have a complete capsule lined with a synovial membrane
87
Maintaining lumbar lordosis during lifting does what?
Decreases load on spine
88
Which of the following muscles acts to stabilise the lumbar region of the vertebral column during rotation?
Multifidus
89
Open mouth X-ray allows imaging of which of the following:
Atlanto-axial and atlanto-occipital joints
90
Which of the following muscles does not attach to the skull?
Obliquus capitis inferior
91
What two factors affect the range of motion at articulations between motion segments of the vertebral column?
Relative thickness of intervertebral disc and vertebral body
Orientation of zygapophyseal (facet) joints
92
Does the posterior longitudinal ligament extend from C1 to the sacrum?
No
93
What two factors affect the range of motion at articulations between motion segments of the vertebral column?
Relative thickness of intervertebral disc and vertebral body
Orientation of zygapophyseal (facet) joints
94
Posterior longitudinal ligament extends from _____ to ______
C2 to sacrum
95
Atlanto-occipital joints permit ______, ______, and _______ ________
flexion, extension, and lateral flexion
96
Transversospinalis muscles do not perform which type of movement?
flexion
97
The joint capsule of zygapophyseal joints is:
thin and loose
98
Early in life vertebral endplates contain what?
blood vessels
99
annulus fibrosus inner 2/3 is ________
avascular
100
When motion segments of the vertebral column move which of the following properties of the nucleus pulposus should change?
shape
101
Which muscle attaches from the lamina to the transverse process of the vertebra below?
rotatores
102
"Hangman's fracture" is a fracture of which vertebra
C2
103
The anterior tubercles of the transverse processes of cervical vertebrae are the site of attachment of which muscles?
longus capitis
104
Intervertebral discs make up what percentage of the height of the vertebral column?
20-25
105
Which ligament tightens when traction is applied to the head?
Apical
106
Weakness of which of the following ligaments should be considered as contra-indication for mobilisation of the cervical spine?
Transverse ligament of the atlas
