B777 SKV Flashcards
1
Q
What is the wingspan of the B777F?
A
212’ 7”
FCOM 1.10.1
2
Q
What is the minimum pavement needed to make a 180 degree turn?
A
157’ 4”
FCOM 1.10.4
3
Q
When are taxi lights not illuminated?
A
When nose ldg gear is not down and locked
FCOM 1.30.6
4
Q
What is controlled through the Master Brightness Control system?
A
- Controls the brightness of all panel lights and displays (dome lights, flood lights, and circuit breakers are NOT controlled by this switch)
- Overrides individual brightness control settings
- Limits adjustment range of individual brightness Controls
- Has full adjustment range of all lights when all individual brightness Controls are set to the center detent
- Display brightness is automatically adjusted based on ambient lighting when the MASTER brightness is on
FCOM 1.30.3
FCOM 1.40.4
5
Q
What turns on the emergency lighting system automatically?
A
DC power fails or is turned off, with system armed
FCOM 1.40.5
6
Q
With the Emergency Lights switch on the flight deck armed, and the 1L door mode select lever in the armed position, what will cause the exterior and interior emergency lights to illuminate?
A
If flight deck switch is armed, and door mode select lever is in armed position, moving door handle to the open position will cause the exterior fuselage light and the interior emergency lights at that door to illuminate
FCOM 1.40.5
7
Q
What lights make up the interior emergency light system?
A
Interior emergency lighting – door, aisle, exit lights, and luminescent exit signs. Additional battery-powered exit identifier lights located at each cabin exit.
FCOM 1.40.6
8
Q
How long will emergency lights last on a fully charged battery?
A
Fully charged battery – at least 15 min of operation
FCOM 1.40.5
9
Q
When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
A
FASTEN SEAT BELTS:
* Landing gear down (“not up and locked”), or
* Flaps down (“Flap lever not up”), or
* Airplane altitude below 10,000, or
* Cabin altitude above 10,000, or
* Supernumary oxygen on
NO SMOKING:
* Permanently illuminated
FCOM 1.40.5
10
Q
When will the supernumerary O2 masks deploy with the switch in NORM?
A
Masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500 ft
FCOM 1.40.7
11
Q
Can the APU provide bleed air in flight?
Up to what altitude?
A
Yes - up to 22,000 ft
FCOM 7.30.1
12
Q
What causes the Equipment Cooling to go into OVRD mode?
A
- Loss of both equipment cooling fans
- Loss of airflow in equipment cooling system
- Smoke detected
- Cargo fire extinguishers ARM’ed
- OVRD switch pushed
FCOM 2.20.6
13
Q
What is the temp range of the flight deck with the selector in Auto?
A
65oF – 85oF
FCOM 2.10.2
14
Q
When would you need to push the AIR COND RESET switch?
A
- Attempt to reset any closed pack valve flow control valve or trim air valve held closed because an overheat, control failure, or valve failure has occurred
- Attempt to reset a failed recirculation fan
- Reset fault protection
FCOM 2.10.2
15
Q
What are the Landing Field limits with the Landing Alt knob pushed in?
A
1000 ft below sea level to 14,000 feet above sea level
FCOM 2.30.2
16
Q
The Center Isolation valve is normally closed except when?
A
During engine start, or single-bleed source operation
FCOM 2.40.2
17
Q
APU bleed air is supplied to which duct?
A
Left duct
FCOM 2.10.7
18
Q
Where is Duct Pressure displayed?
A
- Secondary engine instruments on lower EICAS when at least one Fuel Switch is in CUTOFF and N2 is below idle (FCOM 7.10.6)
- AIR synoptic page
- Upper EICAS on Pressurization System Indications when landing altitude MAN displayed, either OUTFLOW VALVE switch is in MAN, or during any of multiple non-normal conditions
FCOM 2.10.9
19
Q
Under normal conditions, air is vented out through which outflow valve?
A
Aft outflow valve
FCOM 2.30.1
20
Q
Pressurization system indications are displayed when?
A
- Landing altitude MAN is displayed
- Either OUTFLOW VALVE switch is in MAN
- Cabin altitude is abnormal (in amber above normal range or in red excessive range)
- Cabin differential pressure is abnormal
- Duct pressure is abnormal
- AIR synoptic pressed
- EICAS message displayed: Cabin altitude, Cabin altitude AUTO, Landing altitude, OUTFLOW VALVE AFT, OUTFLOW VALVE FWD
FCOM 2.10.9
21
Q
What areas receive anti-ice protection?
A
- Engine cowls
- Wing leading edges
- Forward windows
- Probes
FCOM 3.20.1
22
Q
Under what weather conditions is nacelle anti-ice required to be ON?
A
Must be selected ON immediately after both engines are started and remain on for all ground operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except when temperature is below - 40C (icing = visible moisture and OAT <= 10C)
FCOM SP.16.3
23
Q
Is the TAT probe heated?
When?
A
Yes.
Electrically heated during flight.
FCOM 3.20.4
24
Q
What indications do we have that engine anti-ice is on?
Wing anti-ice?
A
- EAI displayed in green above N1 on EICAS
- WAI displayed in green above EGT on EICAS
FCOM 3.10.2
25
When is automatic WAI operation inhibited?
TAKEOFF mode selected, and less than 10 minutes after liftoff
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.2
26
With TAT> 10 C, WAI selector on. How long after takeoff is WAI inhibited?
Inhibited for 5 minutes after liftoff
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.2
27
Which windows are provided Anti-ice and Anti-fogging protection?
* Forward windows have anti-ice protection (electrically heated on exterior)
* Forward windows and all side windows have anti-fogging protection (electrically heated on interior)
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.3
28
How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault?
Turn off windshield heat, wait 10 seconds, and turn it back on
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.3
29
When does anti-fogging system operate automatically on the forward windows?
Backup anti-fog system operates automatically if primary window heat system fails
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.3
30
When are the AOA and Static ports heated?
Electrically heated for anti-icing protection when either engine is running
## Footnote
FCOM 3.20.4
31
What occurs when CAPT is selected on the OBS Audio Selector on the Aft Aisle stand panel?
Connects all Captain’s audio components (hand mic, headphone, boom mic/headset, oxygen mask mic, speaker, and mic/interphone switches) to the First Observer audio control panel
## Footnote
FCOM 5.10.11
FCOM 5.10.12
32
When illuminated, what does the 'Offside Tuning' light indicate?
* Radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
* Or, radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this panel
## Footnote
FCOM 5.10.3
33
How many VHF radios are installed?
3 total – Left, Center, and Right (both C and R are capable of Data)
## Footnote
FCOM 5.20.2
34
What protection does the 777 have in the event of a stuck mic on the ground?
Any VHF radio that transmits more than 35 seconds is automatically disabled and an intermittent tone is heard through the audio system for that radio
## Footnote
FCOM 5.20.3
35
How can you monitor for an IM signal during a CAT II approach?
* Audio indication – select MKR with knob on lower right corner of Audio Control Panel and push in Volume knob to select audio
* Visual indication – Marker beacon is displayed flashing on upper right corner of the PFD
* (However, not required for CAT II unless approach has “RA Not Authorized” in the minimus box)
## Footnote
FCOM 5.10.1
FCOM 5.10.2
FCOM 10.10.11
FCOM 10.10.12
FCOM A.4.3
36
How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?
* Select default data radio in the MFD COMM page
* Data can be selected on that radio by selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF frequency range, then move that to the active window
## Footnote
FCOM 5.20.2
37
How is the oxygen mask operation verified during preflight?
* Display STATUS page on MFD to view oxygen pressure
* Press RESET/TEST switch – check for yellow cross in Oxygen Flow Indicator
* While holding RESET/TEST, press the EMERGENCY/TEST for 5 seconds – verify yellow cross shows continuously
* Verify that crew oxygen pressure does not decrease more than 50 PSIG
* Release both TEST switches and verify that yellow cross no longer shows
* Check that Normal/100% selector is set to 100%
## Footnote
FCOM NP.21.18
38
In the event the loadmaster is on the main deck during flight and needs to return to their seat, what action would you take?
* Press the MAIN DK ALERT button on Call Panel, on aft aisle stand
* (Activates main deck aural warning and flashes main deck sidewall lights for several seconds)
## Footnote
FCOM 5.10.12
FCOM 5.10.13
39
How many PTT switches are in the cockpit?
Total = 9 (+ optional observer hand mic switches)
* L, C, R Radio Tuning Panels (3)
* L & R Sidewall Panels (2)
* L & R Yoke (2)
* Hand Mics (2 min)
## Footnote
FCOM 5.20.1
40
Selecting the SERV interphone switch to ON does what?
Connects the service and flight interphone systems
## Footnote
FCOM 5.10.9
41
What does IDG stand for?
- Integrated Drive Generator
- (Combined constant speed drive and starter-generator)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.1
42
How many AC power sources are available to the aircraft?
Primary sources:
- Left and right engine IDGs
- APU generator
- Primary and External power
Backup Sources:
- Two Backup Generators
Standby Sources:
- Standby Inverter
- Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.1
43
What turns on an IDG DRIVE light?
Low oil pressure
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.2
44
What would cause the IDG to disconnect automatically?
High oil temperature
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.2
45
What does the AVAIL light on the Primary EXT Power switch represent?
Primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits, and available to be manually selected on
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.2
46
What bus normally powers the ground service bus?
Is there an alternate means to power the bus?
Normal power source:
* Right Main AC bus
Alternate power sources:
* APU
* Primary external power
* (Ground service bus powers: main battery charger, APU battery charger, misc cabin lights and system loads)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.5
47
What is the power source for the ground handling bus?
* Powered only on the ground by Primary External power or the APU
* (Powers ground loads such as cargo handling, fueling/defueling, and other ground-only equipment)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.5
48
What would occur for a Backup Generator to power essential airplane equipment?
Automatically powers one or both Transfer busses when:
* One one AC generator (including APU) is available
* Power is lost on one or both Main AC busses
* APP mode selected for an autoland
* System automatically self-tests after each respective engine start
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.7
49
Within the backup generator are PMs that are used to power what?
PMs supply power to 3 Flight Control DC (FCDC) busses through 3 Power Supply Assemblies (PSA)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.11
50
What altitude is the airplane limited to with the RAT extended?
* 43,100 feet MSL
* (RAT “has no operating time limits, and operates at all airspeeds and altitudes”)
## Footnote
FCOM 6.20.13
51
What are the primary engine indications on the upper EICAS?
* N1
* EGT
## Footnote
FCOM 7.10.1
52
When will you see the EGT Start Limit line displayed?
* Fuel Control Switch in CUTOFF, or
* N2 RPM below idle
## Footnote
FCOM 7.10.4
53
If the EGT limit is exceed on takeoff what is indicated?
What indications remain if any, after EGT returns to the normal range?
* Max continuous limit (amber) is inhibited during takeoff for 5 minutes
* If max takeoff limit exceeded, digital indication, box, pointer and dial all turn red
* When back in normal range, box around the number remains red – can cancel/recall this with cancel/recall switch
## Footnote
FCOM 7.20.3
54
The amber line on the N1 indicator represents what?
Max continuous thrust limit
## Footnote
FCOM 7.20.3
55
What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch with AUTOSTART AUTO?
* RUN - opens spar fuel valve and arms engine fuel valve (opened by EEC when required)
* Arms selected ignitors
* CUTOFF - closes both fuel valves, removes ignitor power, arms engine fire switch
## Footnote
FCOM 7.10.15
56
When will continuous ignition come on automatically?
When a flameout condition is detected, until 3 seconds after it’s cleared, whenever:
* flaps are extended
* engine anti-ice is on
## Footnote
FCOM 7.20.8
57
What protections are provided by the EEC?
* N1 and N2 red line overspeed protection (normal and alternate modes)
* Thrust (max continuous, yellow) protection (normal mode only)
* Thrust control malfunction (uncontrolled high thrust on the ground)
## Footnote
FCOM 7.20.4
FCOM 7.20.5
58
When is approach idle active?
In flight when:
* Engine anti-ice is operating
* Flaps are commanded to 25 or more
* One hydraulic system air-driven demand pump is inop and flaps are extended
* Opposite engine bleed air valve is closed
## Footnote
FCOM 7.20.5
59
What are the APU operating modes?
Attended – either engine running or starting, or in flight
* For fire, automatically shuts down but fire bottle must be discharged manually
* For high EGT, high oil temp, or low oil pressure, shows APU LIMIT on EICAS but must be manually shut down
Unattended
* Any malfunction causes it to automatically shutdown immediately
* For APU fire, bottle extinguishes automatically
## Footnote
FCOM 7.30.2
60
When will the APU be commanded to start automatically?
Loss of power on both AC transfer busses in flight
## Footnote
FCOM 7.30.2
61
How many fire bottles are on the 777F?
Total = 9 bottles:
* Engine fire bottles - 2
* APU fire bottle -1
* Lower cargo fire bottles - 5
* Lavatory fire bottle – 1
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.2
FCOM 8.20.3
FCOM 8.20.4
FCOM 8.20.6
62
What does the fire and overheat detection system testing automatic fault test do?
* Engine and APU - fire/overheat detector loops monitored continuously for faults
* Cargo and wheel well system – monitored continuously for any system faults
* If fault detected, system automatically configures for single loop operation
* Complete system failure indicated by an EICAS advisory message
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.6
63
With the engine fuel switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled?
Pulling an ENGINE FIRE SWITCH does what?
Yes, but override switch must be pushed while pulling switches (unless unlocked automatically for fire warning)
* Closes spar and engine fuel valves
* Trips associated generator offline
* Closes engine bleed air valve
* Shuts off supply of hydraulic fluid to engine driven hydraulic pump
* Depressurizes engine hydraulic pump
* Arms both fire extinguishers
* removes power from the thrust reverser isolation valve
## Footnote
FCOM 8.10.1
64
With a MAIN DECK CARGO FIRE, arming the MAIN DECK FIRE switch does what?
* Configures one pack off and the other to a low flow mode
* Turns off both recirculation fans
* Turns off lav/galley vent fans
* Turns off cargo heat in respective compartment
* Turns off electrical power outlets in respective compartment
* Commands pack to supply air to flight deck and supernumary areas only
* Turns off the Nitrogen Generation System
* Commands EE cooling to provide pack air to flight deck equipment
* Turns off main deck cargo compartment air in-flow
* Turns off aft cargo air conditioning supply and exhaust
* Inhibits lower cargo compartment fire warnings
* (Subsequent discharge initiates controlled depressurization to a cabin altitude of approximately 23,000 with aircraft at 25,000)
## Footnote
FCOM 8.10.3
FCOM 8.20.5
65
With a LOWER FWD CARGO FIRE, pressing the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch does what?
* Two extinguisher bottles discharge immediately into selected compartment
* After a 20 min time delay, remaining three extinguisher bottles discharge at a reduced rate.
* If airplane lands before all bottles discharged, one remaining bottle is discharged at a reduced rate
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.5
66
Are the engine fire loops a AND or an OR logic system?
AND – normally both need to detect fire, unless one is inop
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.1
67
What fire protection do we have in the wheel well?
* None
* (Main wheel detection only with two fire detector loops)
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.4
68
How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?
No overheat loops – fire detection loops only
## Footnote
FCOM 8.20.3
69
Where is the APU ground control panel located?
Aft side of nose wheel well, on nose wheel
## Footnote
FCOM 8.10.5
70
What are the Primary Flight Control System modes?
* Normal
* Secondary
* Direct
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.5
71
What flight envelope protections are provided by the PFC's in the normal mode?
* Stall (reset trim reference speed to min maneuver speed)
* Overspeed (reset trim reference speed to max maneuver speed)
* Bank angle (if bank angle of 35 deg exceeded, provides input to move back to 30)
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.6
72
The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems?
Center and Right hydraulic systems
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.11
73
What protection does the NORM position of the STAB Cutout Switches provide?
* If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, hydraulic power to stab trim control module which caused motion is automatically shut off. STABILIZER L or STABILIZER R advisory message on EICAS. Stab trim still available from remaining controller.
* (STABILIZER warning message on EICAS if full system failure)
* (With full failure, elevators are used to change trim reference speed with the elevators)
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.11
FCOM 9.20.12
74
Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in the normal mode when?
* In flight below 210 kts
* (Controls initial effects of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only. Can deflect rudder up to 8 degrees)
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.15
75
During takeoff at what speed does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?
60 kts
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.3
76
When will the thrust asymmetry compensation system automatically add rudder?
* Thrust differential of 10% or more between engines
* Available above 70 kts on the ground and in flight
* automatically disengages if engine thrust data is lost (i.e. N1)
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.14
77
In which primary flight control modes is thrust asymmetry compensation available?
Normal only
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.7
78
In the alternate mode flap and slat extension is sequenced how?
Flaps and slats extend simultaneously
* Slat retraction is inhibited until flaps are up
* Limited to flaps 20 and slats midrange
* No protections or load relief available
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.18
79
Flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited when?
* Above 20,000 feet
* Speed more than 275 kts
## Footnote
FCOM 9.20.17
80
When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD?
Flaps are extended (out of up) or at low speeds with flaps up
## Footnote
FCOM 10.10.6
81
The selected speed on the PFD displays what?
* With MCP speed window open, displays MCP selected speed
* With MCP speed window closed, displays FMC-computed speed for that phase of flight (i.e. ECON speed)
## Footnote
FCOM 10.10.2
FCOM 10.10.3
82
What identifies the active waypoint on the ND?
* Waypoint shown in magenta on the map displayed
* Active waypoint text in upper right corner, displayed in magenta along with ETA (as computed using current speed and distance, not FMC calculated) and distance
## Footnote
FCOM 10.40.3
83
The altitude range arc displays what information?
Shows approximate map position where MCP altitude will be reached, based on present vertical speed and groundspeed
## Footnote
FCOM 10.40.12
84
What is displayed when the DATA switch on the EFIS control panel is pushed?
Displays FMC-computed ETA, altitude, and altitude constraints at each waypoint on map display
## Footnote
FCOM 10.10.32
85
The display select panel can still display which synoptics on the lower center display if the EICAS display has automatically moved to the lower center display?
Only ENG, AIR and FUEL - pressing one of those will display a compacted block of info on the EICAS display.
## Footnote
FCOM 10.20.3
86
In what ND modes will weather radar be displayed?
In all modes except:
* Plan
* VOR Center
* Approach Center
Displays in:
* MAP
* MAP CTR
* VOR
* APP
## Footnote
FCOM 11.20.11
FCOM 10.40.14
87
What indicates an active route modification on the ND?
Short dashes in white along the modified route line between waypoints
## Footnote
FCOM 10.40.12
88
Where will the source of navigation performance for the navigation scales be displayed?
Near the top left corner of the ATT display on the PFD.
Possible combinations are:
* ILS
* LOC/VNAV
* LNAV/ G/S
* LNAV/VNAV
## Footnote
FCOM 10.10.9
89
When will the localizer and glideslope pointers and scales display and when will they fill in solid?
* In view when localizer or glideslope are received, respectively
* Fills in solid when respective within 2-1/2 dots from the center, for each
## Footnote
FCOM 10.10.11
90
What is the maximum amount of usable fuel we can carry in pounds with a fuel density of 6.7 pounds per gallon?
69.0 + 69.0 + 182.8 = 320.8 (1000xlb)
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.1
91
When will the center tank pumps shutoff automatically?
After 15 seconds of continuous low pressure
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.2
92
On the ground with both center fuel pump switches on, when will both pumps operate?
When 2 electrical power sources are available
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.2
93
When will the DC fuel pump operate automatically?
On the ground with APU selected on and no AC power available
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.4
94
Where is the DC fuel pump located?
Left main tank
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.3
95
What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System?
* Converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air to reduce flammability of the center wing tank fuel during all phases of flight and for a brief period after landing.
* (Shut down if: engine out, equipment cooling switch off, or cargo fire arm switch armed)
## Footnote
FCOM 12.20.2
96
Where is the fuel temp displayed?
Fuel temperature is displayed on the primary EICAS displayed
* Normally displayed in white
* Displayed in amber when fuel temp approaches the fuel freeze temp
Lower left corner of the FUEL synoptic page
## Footnote
FCOM 12.10.3
FCOM 12.10.6
FCOM 12.10.7
FCOM 12.20.2
97
What is the significance of the fuel imbalance pointer on the EICAS?
* Points to main fuel tank with lowest quantity
* Solid white pointer if:
1. Main tank fuel differs by more than 10,000 lbs, or
2. Main tank fuel differs by more than 200 lbs and X-feed valve is open
* Pointer flashes if fuel balancing is going the wrong direction
* When fuel is back within 200 lbs, indication FUEL BALANCED shows and flashes for 5 seconds
* IMBALANCE message on fuel quantity display* varies with total main tank quantity
## Footnote
FCOM 12.10.4
98
Where do you read the fuel "TO REMAIN" when the Fuel Jettison ARM switch is ARMED?
* Shown on lower right corner of EICAS
* Replaces Fuel Temperature display
* Also shown on fuel synoptic display
## Footnote
FCOM 12.10.5
99
Will center tank fuel be jettisoned with the center tank pumps off?
No
## Footnote
FCOM 12.10.2
100
What would cause a Demand Pump FAULT light to illuminate?
* Low demand pump output pressure
* Excessive fluid temperature
* Pump selected OFF
* Normal to see FAULT light on when load shedding
## Footnote
FCOM 13.10.2
101
What will activate a hydraulic demand pump if the selector is in AUTO?
System and/or primary pump(s) pressure is low, or when control logic anticipates a large system demand
## Footnote
FCOM 13.10.2
102
What components are powered by the right hydraulic system?
* Primary flight controls
* Normal brakes
* Right thrust reverser
* Right stabilizer trim
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.1
103
What components will be affected by the loss of center hydraulic system?
* Flaps/slats
* Landing gear actuation
* Alternate brakes
* Main gear steering
* Nosegear steering & reserve brakes – isolated above 60 kts
* Flight controls still powered by left and right hydraulic systems
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.2
104
How will having a single ground power source affect the center PRIMARY pumps?
On ground:
* C2 pump will not run if C1 is selected on
* Will run if one engine generator is running, or two power sources
In flight:
* May be load shed if:
* All other electric pumps running
* Single source of electrical power
* generator capacity is exceeded
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.2
105
In flight, what does RF indicate on the STATUS display?
* RF = hydraulic reservoir requires refilling
* (both RF and OF inhibited in flight on hydraulic display)
## Footnote
FCOM 13.10.3
106
How are the hydraulic demand pumps driven?
* Left and right hydraulic demand pumps – electric
* Center hydraulic demand pumps – pneumatic (bleed air)
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.1
107
What hydraulic components does the RAT provide power to?
Only primary flight controls on the Center hydraulic system
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.3
108
What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?
* Failure of both engines with loss of center hydraulic pressure
* Loss of hydraulic power in all three systems
* Loss of power on both transfer busses
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.3
109
How can the RAT be stowed if it has been deployed in flight?
It can't
## Footnote
FCOM 13.20.3
110
How many tires does the B-777 have?
14
## Footnote
FCOM 14.10.6
111
After landing, autobrake application begins when?
* Wheels spin up
* Both thrust levers at idle
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.5
112
What does the EICAS message BRAKE SOURCE indicate?
Both right and center/reserve hydraulic system pressures are low
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.3
113
How does the alternate landing gear extension system extend the landing gear?
* Uses dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump and center hydraulic system fluid to release all door and gear uplocks
* Gear free-fall to down and locked
* Gear doors remain open
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.2
114
What is the maximum speed at which the gear can be operated?
* Vmo = 270 kts
* Mmo = 0.73
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.11
115
When does RTO autobrake setting command maximum braking pressure?
RTO commands max braking pressure if:
* airplane on the ground
* groundspeed greater than 85 kts
* both thrust levers retarded to idle
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.5
116
What does a white hashed box displayed on the EICAS gear position indicator mean?
* One or more landing gear are in transit
* Display changes to an Expanded Gear Position Indication if non-normal, and shows in-transit for individual gear
## Footnote
FCOM 14.10.5
117
How long does the gear UP indication remain displayed on the EICAS?
10 seconds
## Footnote
FCOM 14.10.5
118
Main gear steering automatically operates when?
Nosewheel steering greater than 13 degrees
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.3
119
What does the Taxi Brake Release system do?
* Alternately releases pressure in wheel pairs to reduce brake wear and temperatures
* Inhibited above 45 kts
## Footnote
FCOM 14.20.3
120
What are the different EICAS alert message priority levels?
* Advisory
* Caution
* Warning
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.1
121
Can EICAS warning messages be canceled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch?
No
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.2
122
What is indicated by [ ] preceding an EICAS message?
* Procedural steps, notes, or other information of which the crew must be made aware exists for that message
* “Annunciated” non-normal checklist
## Footnote
FCOM 15.10.1
123
What are the different CONFIG warning messages?
1. CONFIG DOORS – at TO thrust set
2. CONFIG FLAPS – at TO thrust set
3. CONFIG GEAR – thrust lever closed below 800 ft RA or when flaps in landing position
4. CONFIG GEAR STEERING – at TO thrust set
5. CONFIG PARKING BRAKE – at TO thrust set
6. CONFIG RUDDER – not centered, at TO thrust set
7. CONFIG STABILIZER – stab no in greenband at TO thrust set
8. CONFIG WARNING SYS – fault in the configuration warning system
9. CONFIG SPOILERS:
* speedbrake not down at TO thrust set
* speedbrake lever extended beyond ARMED in flight with climb thrust or greater
## Footnote
FCOM 15.30.1
124
When is PWS enabled to provide windshear alerts?
Takeoff – begins scanning with TO thrust on either engine, up to 1,200 feet
* Cautions inhibited from 80 kts until 400 feet radio altitude
* Warnings inhibited from 100 kts until 50 feet radio altitude
Landing – starts scanning at 2,300 feet, enabled below 1,200 feet
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.26
125
What conditions exist if a DON'T SINK Voice Annunciation is heard?
Altitude loss with flaps and/or gear up after takeoff or go-around
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.28
126
Pushing the EICAS EVENT Record switch does what and how many times?
* Records currently displayed engine indications and additional EICAS maintenance information
* Records up to 5 events, with the first five pushes
* (Also records out of limit parameters and related conditions automatically when a system parameter is exceeded)
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.38
127
What does a Status message indicate?
Indicate equipment faults which may affect airplane dispatch capability
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.2
128
What does the TCAS Voice Annunciation TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC indicate?
* New Traffic Advistory (TA) voice annunciation
* Prediction that another aircraft will enter the conflict airspace in 25 to 45 seconds
## Footnote
FCOM 15.20.12
FCOM 15.20.15
129
What switch displays TCAS traffic on the ND?
TFC on EFIS Control Panel
## Footnote
FCOM 15.10.7
130
What is the max ZFW?
547,000 lbs
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
131
What is the MTOW?
766,000 lbs
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
132
What is Max Taxi Weight?
768,000 lbs
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
133
What is MLW?
575,000 lbs
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
134
What is the maximum tailwind speed for takeoff and landing?
15 kts
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
135
Max Operating Altitude?
43,100 ft (MSL)
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.2
136
What is the maximum tailwind speed for an Autoland?
15 kts
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
137
What is the Max Altitude for Flap extension?
20,000 ft (MSL)
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.8
138
Without LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated, when must the autopilot be disengaged?
200 ft (AGL)
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
139
Minimum autopilot engagement altitude after takeoff is?
200 ft (AGL)
## Footnote
FCOM L.10.6
