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BLOCK 1-3 EXAM > B3M2 > Flashcards

B3M2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the origin of mesenchyme?
A. Ectodermal cells
B. Endodermal cells
C. Mesodermal cells
D. BMP-5 and BMP-7

A

C. Mesodermal cells

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2
Q

In bone formation, which of the following marks the beginning of selective gene
activity?
A. Condensation
B. Epithelial-mesenchymal interactions
C. Differentiation
D. Deposition

A

A. Condensation

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3
Q

Which of the following is the initial stage of intramembranous ossification?
A. Formation of a cartilaginous model.
B. Differentiation of mesenchymal cells into osteoblasts.
C. Deposition of calcium phosphate in the osteoid matrix.
D. Remodeling of bone by osteoclasts and osteoblasts.

A

B. Differentiation of mesenchymal cells into osteoblasts.

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4
Q

Which of the following cells are responsible for breaking down bone tissue during
intramembranous ossification and bone remodeling?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteoclasts
D. Chondrocytes

A

C. Osteoclasts

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5
Q

Which is the initial stage of endochondral ossification?
A. Formation of bone collar around the cartilage model
B. Calcification of the cartilage matrix
C. Invasion of blood vessels into the cartilage
D. Differentiation of mesenchymal cells into osteoblasts

A

A. Formation of bone collar around the cartilage model

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6
Q

. Which of the following is the primary growth site for the lengthening of long bones?
A. Diaphysis
B. Periosteum
C. Epiphyseal plate
D. Medullary cavity

A

C. Epiphyseal plate

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7
Q

Which of the following give rise to a meshwork of loosely organized embryonic
connective tissue?
A. Ectodermal cells
B. Endodermal cells
C. Mesodermal cells
D. Bone morphogenetic proteins

A

C. Mesodermal cells

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8
Q

Which of the following explains why it is important for pregnant women to maintain
adequate calcium and phosphorus intake?
A. To support the development of the baby’s nervous system.
B. To ensure proper fetal brain development.
C. To facilitate the ossification process in the fetal skeleton.
D. To prevent maternal bone loss during pregnancy.

A

C. To facilitate the ossification process in the fetal skeleton.

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9
Q

Given the role of chondrocytes in endochondral ossification and the subsequent
ossification, which of the following statements best explains the significance of the
hypertrophic zone in the epiphyseal plate?
A. It provides a scaffold for the deposition of new bone matrix.
B. It secretes enzymes that break down the calcified cartilage matrix.
C. It is the primary site of chondrocyte proliferation, ensuring continuous growth.
D. It marks the transition zone where cartilage is replaced by bone tissue.

A

D. It marks the transition zone where cartilage is replaced by bone tissue.

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10
Q

During early development, what is the epiphysis primarily composed of?
A. Fetal articular cartilage
B. Fetal elastic cartilage
C. Fetal hyaline cartilage
D. Fetal fibrocartilage

A

C. Fetal hyaline cartilage

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11
Q

Which layer of the periosteum contains bone-forming cells?
A. Outer fibrous layer
B. Endosteal layer
C. Osteogenic layer
D. Cementing layer

A

C. Osteogenic layer

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12
Q

What is the most common form of degenerative change in cartilage?
A. Fatty degeneration
B. Calcification
C. Asbestos formation
D. Hyaline degeneration

A

B. Calcification

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13
Q

Fibrocartilage occurs in which parts or organs of the body?
A. Larynx
B. External Ear
C. Symphysis pubis
D. Joints

A

C. Symphysis pubis

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14
Q

Which layer of the perichondrium contains blood vessels?
A. Chondrogenic layer
B. Outer Fibrous layer
C. Appositional layer
D. Matrix

A

B. Outer Fibrous layer

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15
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the structural and functional
characteristics of bone tissue?
A. Bone tissue is solely composed of inorganic materials, which make it rigid and
inflexible
B. The periosteum is a thick vascular layer covering the articulating surfaces of
bones and lacks any osteogenic potential
C. Bone serves multiple roles, including protection of vital organs and housing
blood-forming bone marrow
D. Compact bone is characterized by a network of trabeculae, whereas cancellous
bone appears as a solid mass resistant to mechanical stress

A

C. Bone serves multiple roles, including protection of vital organs and housing
blood-forming bone marrow

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16
Q

Which type of cartilage forms tendons and ligaments?
A. Elastic cartilage
B. Adult hyaline cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Articular cartilage

A

C. Fibrocartilage

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17
Q

Which of the following is a thin layer of connective tissue with osteogenic and
hemopoietic potencies, that line the bone marrow cavities and extends as a lining
into the canal system of compact bone:
A. Periosteum
B. Osteon
C. Endosteum
D. Volkmann’s canal

A

C. Endosteum

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18
Q

What type of bone the Skull, sternum and ribs belongs to?
A. long bones
B. short bones
C. Irregular Bones
D. Flat Bone

A

D. Flat Bone

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19
Q

Which of the following substances is responsible for the strength and resilience of
bone?
A. Glucosamine sulfate
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium and phosphate

A

B. Chondroitin sulfate

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20
Q

Which of the following composition of the cartilage is made up of proteoglycans and
is relatively abundant, solid but pliable, basophilic, and metachromatic.
A. Cell
B. Cartilage matrix
C. Chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium
D. Outer fibrous layer of the perichondrium

A

B. Cartilage matrix

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21
Q

Which of the following processes wherein the nutrients and oxygen reach the
chondrocytes in as much as the cartilage is avascular.
A. Diffusion through the matrix from the blood vessels in the perichondrium
B. through the lymphatic system
C. By way of the canalicular system
D. Through the haversian system

A

A. Diffusion through the matrix from the blood vessels in the perichondrium

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22
Q

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of the hyaline type of cartilage.
A. Type II collagen with a basophilic matrix, its chondrocytes are usually arranged in
groups
B. Its chondrocytes are arranged in parallel rows between bundles of collagen
C. Type II collagen with elastic matrix
D. Type I collagen with acidophilic matrix

A

A. Type II collagen with a basophilic matrix, its chondrocytes are usually arranged in
groups

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23
Q

Which of the following refers to the zone of spongy bone that connects the
epiphyseal cartilage plate to the diaphysis.
A. Shaft
B. Epiphysis
C. Metaphysis
D. Diaphysis

A

C. Metaphysis

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24
Q

Which of the following refers to the structural and functional unit of compact bone.
A. Haversian system or osteon
B. Interstitial lamellae
C. Circumferential lamellae
D. Volkmann’s canal

A

A. Haversian system or osteon

25
Q

Which of the following proteins anchors the acetylcholine vesicles to the cytoskeleton
of the presynaptic terminal.
A. Calmodulin
B. Synapsin
C. Titin
D. Calsequestrin

A

B. Synapsin

26
Q

The number of Ach molecules in one quantum
A. 60
B. 500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000

A

C. 10,000

27
Q

Which of the following structures represents the interface between the nerve fiber and
muscle fiber in the neuromuscular junction
A. external lamina
B. synaptic cleft
C. terminal buttons
D. motor endplate

A

D. motor endplate

28
Q

Which ligand-gated channel allows calcium outflow from the sarcoplastic reticulum
into the sarcoplasm?
A. Ryanodine receptors
B. ACh receptor
C. SERCA
D. DHP receptors

A

A. Ryanodine receptors

29
Q

Accumulation of which ion in intracellular fluid is responsible for the tetanus?
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Cl−
D. Ca2+

A

D. Ca2+

30
Q

Guibaek was training for his upcoming boxing match. He was instructed to have
plenty of carbohydrate-rich food to have enough energy for his training. Which
phenomenon will describe the correlation of energy to his training?
A. Fenn effect
B. Size principle
C. Staircase Effect
D. Walk-along theory

A

A. Fenn effect

31
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the Type IIa muscle fibers
A. They utilize 7 ATP from glucose during glycolysis.
B. They contract fast and highly use oxidative metabolism.
C. They contract slowly and for long durations.
D. They sequester calcium rapidly and contract slowly.

A

B. They contract fast and highly use oxidative metabolism.

32
Q

Which of the following monosaccharides is a ketose?
A. glucose
B. fructose
C. galactose
D. mannose

A

B. fructose

33
Q

Which of the following is the simplest aldotriose?
A. acetone
B. dihydroxyacetone
C. glyceraldehyde
D. threose

A

C. glyceraldehyde

34
Q

Sugars which differ in chirality only around one carbon are most specifically called
A. anomers.
B. diastereoisomers
C. enantiomers
D. epimers.

A

D. epimers.

35
Q

Which is the correct order of compounds in the conversion of glucose to pyruvic
acid, (PEP = phosphoenolpyruvate)
A. Fructose-bisphosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3-
phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
B. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, PEP, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3-
phosphoglyceric acid.
C. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3-
phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.
D. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 3-phosphoglyceric acid, 1,3-
phosphoglyceric acid, PEP

A

C. Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3-
phosphoglyceric acid, PEP.

36
Q

Which enzyme is the key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Enolase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. Aldolase

A

C. Phosphofructokinase

37
Q

The order of compounds and intermediates found in the citric acid cycle is as
follows:
A. IsoCitrate → Aconitate → α-Ketoglutarate → Fumarate → Malate →
Oxaloacetate
B. Aconitate → IsoCitrate → Oxaloacetate → α-Ketoglutarate → Malate →
Fumarate
C. Aconitate → IsoCitrate → α-Ketoglutarate → Fumarate → Malate →
Oxaloacetate
D. Aconitate → IsoCitrate → α-Ketoglutarate → Malate → Fumarate →
Oxaloacetate

A

C. Aconitate → IsoCitrate → α-Ketoglutarate → Fumarate → Malate →
Oxaloacetate

38
Q

In glycogenolysis, Which enzyme cleaves the α(1 →6) bonds in glycogen?
A. glycogen phosphorylase
B. debranching enzyme
C. phosphoglucomutase
D. glycogen synthase

A

B. debranching enzyme

39
Q

Which of the following is the regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis?
A. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase
B. glucose-6-kinase, aldolase, and enolase
C. glucose-6-phosphatase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, and
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
D. pyruvate carboxylase, aldolase, and phosphofructokinase

A

C. glucose-6-phosphatase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, and
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

40
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about the Cori cycle?
A. lactic acid is transported from the liver to muscle by the blood.
B. lactic acid is transported from the liver to the kidneys by the blood.
C. glycolysis takes place in muscle and gluconeogenesis in the liver.
D. glycolysis takes place in the liver and gluconeogenesis in muscle

A

C. glycolysis takes place in muscle and gluconeogenesis in the liver.

41
Q

Which of the following is an example of an activation step in metabolism?
A. the hydrolysis of a triacylglycerol.
B. the cis-trans isomerization of retinal.
C. the formation of an acyl derivative of coenzyme A.
D. the formation of the peptide bond.

A

C. the formation of an acyl derivative of coenzyme A.

42
Q

How many high-energy phosphoester bonds are in ATP?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

B. Two

43
Q

Which of the following are examples of exergonic processes?
A. protein synthesis and active transport
B. protein synthesis and oxidation of carbohydrates
C. oxidation of fats and of carbohydrates
D. active transport and oxidation of carbohydrates

A

C. oxidation of fats and of carbohydrates

44
Q

Which connective tissue layer surrounds an individual muscle fiber?
A. Epimysium
B. Perimysium
C. Endomysium
D. Fascia

A

C. Endomysium

45
Q

Which histological feature gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance?
A. Presence of mitochondria
B. Overlapping endomysium layers
C. Alternating A and I bands in myofibrils
D. Arrangement of muscle fascicles

A

C. Alternating A and I bands in myofibrils

46
Q

What are myofibrils primarily composed of?
A. Mitochondria and glycogen
B. Collagen ans elastin fibers
C. Tubulin and keratin
D. Actin and myosin filaments

A

D. Actin and myosin filaments

47
Q

Which of the following describes the changes in the sarcomere during muscle
contraction?
A. The A band shortens, and the H zone remains unchanged.
B. The H zone and I band shorten, while the A band remains constant.
C. Both the A band and H zone increase in length
D. The I band lenghthens and the H zone shortens

A

B. The H zone and I band shorten, while the A band remains constant.

48
Q

What structural specialization of the motor end plate ensures effective neuromuscular transmission?
A. Presence of abundant synaptic vesicles in the sarcolemma.
B. Junctional folds that increase the surface area for acetylcholine receptors.
C. Mitochondria concentrated near the Z disc.
D. Dense arrangement of desmosomes to strengthen the connection

A

B. Junctional folds that increase the surface area for acetylcholine receptors.

49
Q

Which protein is primarily responsible for muscle contraction within the sarcomere?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Both actin and myosin

A

D. Both actin and myosin

50
Q

What is the effect of acetylcholine on the sarcolemma?
A. It inhibits muscle contraction
B. It causes hyperpolarization
C. It triggers depolarization
D. It has no effect

A

C. It triggers depolarization

51
Q

The perimysium surrounds which of the following structures?
A. Individual muscle fibers
B. Myofibrils
C. Fascicles
D. Sarcomeres

A

C. Fascicles

51
Q

Which of the following statements is true of isotonic system of muscle contraction?
A. The muscle shortens during contraction.
B. Muscle tension is created when it contracts.
C. The muscle overall length does not change.
D. Occurs when the applied load is greater than the force of contraction.

A

A. The muscle shortens during contraction.

52
Q

Which of the following is true of the isometric system of muscle contraction?
A. Muscle overall length does not change.
B. The muscle shortens during contraction
C. The force of contraction is greater than the applied load.
D. Muscle tension remains constant.

A

A. Muscle overall length does not change.

53
Q

Which of the following statements is true of a motor unit?
A. There are more motor units for muscles that react rapidly with precision.
B. There are more motor units for all large muscles.
C. The muscle fibers in each motor unit are bunched together in the muscle
D. The muscle fibers in each motor unit contract independently

A

A. There are more motor units for muscles that react rapidly with precision.

54
Q

Which of these statements is true about myosin?
A. The center of the myosin filament has ATPase activity.
B. A myosin filament is made up of 3-5 individual myosin molecules.
C. The myosin molecule has a double helical appearance
D. It has a strong affinity for calcium ions, a feature important in the process of
contraction.

A

C. The myosin molecule has a double helical appearance

55
Q

What components make up the actin filament?
A. Actin-ATP-Myosin
B. Actin-Tropomyosin-Troponin
C. Actin-Troponin-Calponin
D. Actin-Tropomyosin-Titin

A

B. Actin-Tropomyosin-Troponin

56
Q

Which of the following attached to each G-actin molecule?
A. ATP
B. cAMP
C. GDP
d. ADP

A

d. ADP

57
Q

The bases of the actin filaments are strongly inserted into:
A. Myosin filaments
B. Z discs
C. Sarcomeres
D. T tubules

A

B. Z discs

58
Q

Which of the following is known to be the enzyme responsible for limiting the action
of the neurotransmitter that is vital for skeletal muscle contraction?
A. Adenylylcyclase
B. Acetocholinesterase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Adenylatecyclase

A

C. Acetylcholinesterase

BLOCK 1-3 EXAM (11 decks)

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