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BLOCK 1-3 EXAM > B2M4 > Flashcards

B2M4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the site for development of T lymphocytes?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes
C. Spleen
D. Thymus

A

D. Thymus

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2
Q

The color of the red bone marrow is due to the presence of what type of cells?
A. Blood and hematopoietic cells
B. Adipocytes
C. White blood cells
D. Mesenchymal stem cells

A

A. Blood and hematopoietic cells

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3
Q

Which of the following is the most predominant antibody type found in mucosa-
associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

A

B. IgA

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4
Q

Which of the following is referred as the aggregation of mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissue specifically found in the ileum?
A. Palatine tonsils
B. Appendix
C. Peyer’s patches
D. Pharyngeal tonsils

A

C. Peyer’s patches

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5
Q

In the spleen, the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) is composed of lymphocytes
surrounding which blood vessel?
A. Splenic artery
B. Central artery
C. Sheathed artery
D. Marginal artery

A

B. Central artery

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6
Q

While examining a lymph node under the microscope, you notice lymphoid nodules
without germinal centers. Which of the following best explains this observation?
A. The lymph node has not received antigens from macrophages.
B. The lymph node is not undergoing an active immune response.
C. The lymphocytes are not proliferating within the lymph node.
D. The T lymphocytes are more abundant than the B lymphocytes.

A

B. The lymph node is not undergoing an active immune response.

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7
Q

Which parameter in the complete blood count (CBC) is elevated in parasitic
infections?
A. Neutrophil count
B. Basophil count
C. Eosinophil count
D. Lymphocyte count

A

C. Eosinophil count

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8
Q

Which substance causes local vascular and tissue reactions that mediate most of the
manifestations seen in allergic reactions?
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Histamine
C. Lysozymes
D. Cathepsin B

A

B. Histamine

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of cytokines in the innate immune
response to inflammation?
A. They directly kill pathogens.
B. They serve as signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity and
inflammation.
C. They form physical barriers to prevent pathogen entry.
D. They are responsible for the production of antibodies

A

B. They serve as signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity and
inflammation.

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10
Q

In a clinical scenario, a patient has a weakened immune system and is more
susceptible to viral infections. Which of the following treatments could potentially
enhance the activity of natural killer (NK) cells in this patient?
A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Use of immunomodulatory agents that stimulate NK cell activity
C. Increased intake of dietary fats
D. Prolonged exposure to sunlight

A

B. Use of immunomodulatory agents that stimulate NK cell activity

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11
Q

Which of these steps in phagocytosis results in the formation of a phagocytic
vacuole?
A. Attachment
B. Digestion
C. Recognition
D. Engulfment

A

D. Engulfment

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12
Q

In the first steps of phagocytosis, macrophages are able to recognize and identify
particles or microbes with certain glycosylation patterns. What receptor in
macrophages allows this?
A. Galactosyl transferase receptor
B. Macrophage integrins
C. Mannose receptor
D. Protein kinase receptor

A

C. Mannose receptor

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13
Q

Which of the following best explains the transition from monocytes to macrophages?
A. Monocytes undergo division and become neutrophils.
B. Monocytes remain the same size and become more efficient in the blood.
C. Monocytes swell significantly after migrating into tissues, increasing their
phagocytic capacity.
D. Monocytes transform into antibodies once they enter the tissues.

A

C. Monocytes swell significantly after migrating into tissues, increasing their
phagocytic capacity.

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14
Q

What is the primary process by which white blood cells enter tissue spaces?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Diapedesis
C. Chemotaxis
D. Apoptosis

A

B. Diapedesis

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15
Q

How does opsonization facilitate the process of phagocytosis?
A. By reducing the size of pathogens for easier engulfment
B. By enhancing the smoothness of pathogen surfaces
C. By coating pathogens with antibodies and complement proteins
D. By attracting phagocytes away from the site of infection

A

C. By coating pathogens with antibodies and complement proteins

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16
Q

The protein which catalyzes the proteolytic cleavage of the complement proteins is
called:
A. Convertase
B. Protease
C. Complement enzyme
D. Complement cleavage

A

A. Convertase

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17
Q

Which of the following is the least likely function of the complement system?
A. Forms a membrane attack complex
B. Intensifies chemotaxis
C. Aids pathogens
D. Enhances phagocytosis

A

C. Aids pathogens

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18
Q

Pathogenic bacteria invading the human body were swarmed with activated
macrophages which in turn began to engulf and phagocytize them. It is a result of
this product of the complement cascade:
A. C4a
B. C3b
C. C1q
D. C2

A

B. C3b

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19
Q

When there is formation of a membrane attack complex in an immune response,
how will this trigger the destruction of the pathogenic organism?
A. Allows the bacteria to be swallowed up by neutrophils
B. Through the recruitment and activation of leukocytes which penetrate the cell
wall
C. Creates pores permeable to ions causing rupture of the bacterial membrane
D. Adheres to bacteria DNA in the nucleus preventing decreasing its infectious
ability

A

C. Creates pores permeable to ions causing rupture of the bacterial membrane

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20
Q

A mother passes on antibodies to a baby through the placenta or through
breastfeeding is an example of ______________.
A. natural passive immunity
B. artificial passive immunity
C. natural active immunity
D. artificial passive immunity

A

A. natural passive immunity

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is an example of natural active immunity?
A. Preformed antibodies in immune serum are introduced by injection
B. Antigens are introduced into the body through vaccines
C. Placental transfer of antibodies from mother to child
D. Antibodies developed through illness and recovery

A

D. Antibodies developed through illness and recovery

22
Q

Which of the following cells are involved in both innate and adaptive immunity
A. Segmenters
B. Natural Killer (NK) cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Hepatocytes

A

B. Natural Killer (NK) cells

23
Q

What type of receptors do T and B lymphocytes use to recognize antigens?
A. Hormone receptors
B. Antigen receptors
C. Cytokine receptors
D. Enzyme receptors

A

B. Antigen receptors

24
Q

Considering the role of CD4 and CD8 coreceptors, why is it important that CD4+ T
cells recognize antigens presented by class II MHC molecules while CD8+ T cells
recognize antigens presented by class I MHC molecules?
A. It allows for a broader immune response to various pathogens.
B. It ensures that helper T cells can activate all T cells effectively.
C. It helps in distinguishing between intracellular and extracellular infections.
D. It prevents cross-reactivity between different types of lymphocytes

A

C. It helps in distinguishing between intracellular and extracellular infections.

25
Q

What is the primary function of B lymphocytes?
A. Produce antibodies
B. Engulf pathogens
C. Destroy infected cells
D. Synthesize hormones

A

A. Produce antibodies

26
Q

Where can you find dendritic cells?
A. Bone marrow
B. Bloodstream
C. Skin
D. Heart

A

C. Skin

27
Q

What type of antibody destroys parasitic worms and participates in allergies?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

A

D. IgE

28
Q

Which of the following statements best describe an IgA antibody?
A. It has a pentamer structure.
B. It activates phagocytosis and neutralizes antigens.
C. It contains a dimer with J chain.
D. This is seen in the fetal circulation of pregnant women

A

C. It contains a dimer with J chain.

29
Q

Which of the following is true of the function of Major Histocompatibility Complex
(MHC) molecules?
A. They display peptide fragments of protein antigens for recognition by antigen-
specific T cells.
B. They directly kill foreign substances.
C. They are not fundamental for the immune system, particularly adaptive immunity.
D. They are directly and the only one responsible for producing B cells.

A

A. They display peptide fragments of protein antigens for recognition by antigen-
specific T cells.

30
Q

AM, 45 years old, male, was diagnosed with kidney failure and the attending
physician recommended for him to have a kidney transplant. He has his parents
and 3 other siblings in the family. Which of the following would be easily screened
first as a potential donor?
A. Sibling
B. Mother
C. Grandfather
D. Guardian

A

A. Sibling

31
Q

Recognition of CD4+ receptor of helper T cell produces which of the following
functional effects?
A. Presence of abundant antigens targets the cell for destruction.
B. Induces intravascular hemolysis.
C. Presence of foreign antigens induces the production of antibodies.
D. Activates phagocytosis.

A

C. Presence of foreign antigens induces the production of antibodies.

32
Q

How long do antibodies from passive immunity typically last in the recipient’s body?
A. 1-7 days
B. 7-14 days
C. 14-21 days
D. A lifetime

A

C. 14-21 days

33
Q

Which of the following is a reason why an artificial passive immunity is to be
administered to a patient?
A. To provide immediate, temporary protection against an infection
B. To stimulate the patient’s immune system to produce its own antibodies
C. To provide permanent immunity against a specific disease
D. To prevent the immune system from overreacting to a pathogen

A

A. To provide immediate, temporary protection against an infection

34
Q

Why do immune responses decline after the elimination of an antigen?
A. Activated lymphocytes undergo apoptosis.
B. Memory cells are deactivated.
C. Plasma cells stop producing antibodies.
D. The body forgets the antigen.

A

A. Activated lymphocytes undergo apoptosis.

35
Q

A patient receives a booster vaccine 5 years after the initial vaccination. Which
immune mechanism is primarily responsible for the rapid production of antibodies in
response to the booster?
A. Activation of naive B cells
B. Activation of memory B cells
C. Activation of regulatory T cells
D. Activation of natural killer cells

A

B. Activation of memory B cells

36
Q

In the Innate immune response, cytokine action results to which of the following?
A. Induces inflammation and inhibits viral replication
B. Promotes lymphocyte proliferation
C. Activates effector cells
D. Limits and terminates the immune response

A

A. Induces inflammation and inhibits viral replication

37
Q

If an infection occurs in the lungs, which of the following tissue-resident phagocytes
would most likely play a role in defending against the pathogen?
A. Kupffer cells
B. Microglia
C. Alveolar macrophages
D. Dendritic cells

A

C. Alveolar macrophages

38
Q

Which feature distinguishes innate lymphoid cells (ILCs) from T lymphocytes in the
immune response process?
A. ILCs produce cytokines that are identical to those produced by T cells.
B. ILCs respond to cytokines and mediators at tissue damage sites, while T
lymphocytes respond to antigens.
C. ILCs are specialized in antigen presentation, whereas T lymphocytes produce
cytokines.
D. ILCs function primarily in the adaptive immune response, unlike T lymphocytes.

A

B. ILCs respond to cytokines and mediators at tissue damage sites, while T
lymphocytes respond to antigens.

39
Q

Which statement best describes the characteristics of mature T lymphocytes?
A. They are fixed in specific tissues and do not circulate.
B. They recognize antigens only in the presence of other immune cells.
C. They develop from hematopoietic stem cells and can recognize specific cell-
bound antigens.
D. They are unable to differentiate into effector or memory cells.

A

C. They develop from hematopoietic stem cells and can recognize specific cell-
bound antigens.

40
Q

How might a defect in the RAG-1 and RAG-2 genes impact the adaptive immune
system?
A. It would enhance the production of diverse antigen receptors.
B. It would prevent the maturation of T and B lymphocytes.
C. It would lead to an overproduction of lymphocytes.
D. It would increase the effectiveness of memory cells

A

B. It would prevent the maturation of T and B lymphocytes.

41
Q

Which of the following sites do B cells develop and mature?
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph nodes

A

C. Bone marrow

42
Q

What is the primary function of dendritic cells?
A. Produce antibodies
B. Present antigens to T cells
C. Form cell mediated immunity
D. Produce memory cells

A

B. Present antigens to T cells

43
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. Class II MHC molecules are encoded in a region called HLA-Q
B. Class I MHC molecules display molecules that are derived from cytoplasmic fats.
C. The genes encoding HLA molecules are found in Chromosome 21.
D. The combination of HLA alleles in each individual is called the HLA haplotype.

A

D. The combination of HLA alleles in each individual is called the HLA haplotype.

44
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is also known as:
A. Phagocytic cells
B. Complement System
C. Human Leukocyte Antigens
D. Interleukins

A

C. Human Leukocyte Antigens

45
Q

Class II MHC: CD4+ T cells; Class I MHC: ___________
A. Natural Killer cells
B. HLA-B
C. CD8+ T cells
D. Neutrophils

A

C. CD8+ T cells

46
Q

What role do plasma proteins such as complement proteins play in innate immunity?
A. They produce antibodies that neutralize pathogens.
B. They activate macrophages to destroy microbes.
C. They are activated by microbes to promote phagocytosis and inflammation.
D. They help epithelial cells form a physical barrier against pathogens.

A

C. They are activated by microbes to promote phagocytosis and inflammation.

47
Q

Opsonins are useful in what way?
A. Mediation of acute inflammatory reactions
B. Production of chemoattractants
C. Signal transduction
D. Enhancement of phagocytosis efficiency

A

D. Enhancement of phagocytosis efficiency

48
Q

What is the primary distinction between passive immunity and active immunity?
A. Active immunity involves the production of antibodies, while passive immunity
relies solely on T cells for defense.
B. Passive immunity provides long-term protection against pathogens, while active
immunity is temporary and requires regular boosting.
C. Active immunity results from the body’s own immune response to an antigen,
while passive immunity is provided by the introduction of preformed antibodies or
activated T cells from another source.
D. Passive immunity involves the body producing its own antibodies in response to
an antigen, while active immunity is a temporary measure achieved by
transfusion of external antibodies

A

C. Active immunity results from the body’s own immune response to an antigen,
while passive immunity is provided by the introduction of preformed antibodies or
activated T cells from another source.

49
Q

When a mother of a nine-month-old male infant arrives at his routine clinic
appointment, she asks the pediatrician about aluminum in vaccines. Which of the
following statements is most consistent with a strong vaccine recommendation?
A. “Please read about aluminum in vaccines and discuss it with your family.”
B. “You have had adverse reactions to other vaccines, so why don’t we wait to
vaccinate.”
C. “Clarify and explain that aluminum is used in some vaccines to help the immune
system respond.”
D. “We can postpone vaccination today since you have mild nasal congestion.”

A

C. “Clarify and explain that aluminum is used in some vaccines to help the immune
system respond.”

50
Q

Which one of the following characteristics is most valuable in engaging vaccine-
hesitant individuals?
A. Financial status of the patient
B. Confidence of the physician
C. Socio-economic demographic of the patient
D. Number of patient visits at physician’s office

A

B. Confidence of the physician

BLOCK 1-3 EXAM (11 decks)

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