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FSS1601 AK3 > AV13: ATC Support > Flashcards

AV13: ATC Support Flashcards

1
Q

Instrument Approach Procedure

A

A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles (from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria apply.)

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2
Q

MEA

A

Minimum En route Altitude

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3
Q

Instrument Approach

A

A series of predetermined manoeuvres for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the inital approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing can be made visually.

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4
Q

DH

A

Decision height: The height at which a crew doing a precision approach must decide whether to land or to conduct a missed approach. This decision must be based on whether or not the crew has visual reference to the ground.

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5
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Descent Altitude: The minimum altitude ASL a crew can descend to during a non precision approach. If the crew can not gain visual reference to the ground, they must conduct a missed approach.

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6
Q

Why is it important that a missed approach be initiated by a specific point?

A

If it is initiated beyond the MAP (missed approach point), obstacle clearance can not be assured.

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7
Q

What are the items that the pilot must see at least one of to have visual reference to the ground?

A
  • RWY or RWY markings
  • RWY threshold or threshold markings
  • the TDZ or TDZ markings
  • the approach lights
  • the approach slope indicator
  • RWY identification lights
  • threshold and RWY end lights
  • TDZ lights
  • RWY edge lights
  • RWY centreline lights
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8
Q

What are the four segments of an approach?

A
  • Initial approach
  • Intermediate approach
  • Final approach
  • Missed approach
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9
Q

Initial approach segment

A

The part of an instrument approach procedure between the initial approach fix or waypoint or the intermediate approach fix or waypoint during which the aircraft departs the en route phase of flight and manoeuvres to enter the intermediate segment.

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10
Q

Intermediate approach segment

A

The segment of an instrument approach between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix or point, wherein aircraft configuration, speed and positioning adjustments are made in preparation for the final approach.

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11
Q

Procedure turn

A

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track and followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track. Designated left (preferably) or right.

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12
Q

Which segment includes the procedure turn?

A

The intermediate segment.

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13
Q

Final Approach Segment

A

The part of an instrument approach procedure from the time that the aircraft
-completes the last procedure turn or base turn OR
-crosses the final approach fix or waypoint OR
-intercepts the last track specified for the procedure
until it reaches the missed approach point. The part in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.

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14
Q

Missed approach procedure

A

The procedure that is to be followed after and instrument approach procedure if, for any reason, a lading is not effected and that occurs normally. This occurs when the AC has descended to the DH or MDA and has not established the visual reference to the runway or when ATC directs the AC to pull up or go around.

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15
Q

Missed approach track

A

Generally a continuation of the final approach course. Upon reaching a specified altitude or distance on that track, the procedure states a point to which the AC must return.

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16
Q

What are the two types of instrument approaches?

A

Precision and non-precision.

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17
Q

What is a precision approach?

A

An instrument approach procedure using GP and azimuth information provided from an ILS. Provide both lateral and horizontal guidance.

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18
Q

What is a non-precision approach?

A

An instrument approach procedure in which only electronic azimuth information is provided. Only lateral guidance. Used to guide the AC down to the overall airport environment.

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19
Q

What are the two types of precision approaches that use a glide slope?

A

ILS and PAR (precision approach radar

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20
Q

What is PAR?

A

Precision Approach Radar: A type of precision approach consisting of a high definition, short-range radar that provides the controller with altitude, azimuth, and range information of high accuracy. Not published in the CAP as they are provided at aerodromes with military PAR units.

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21
Q

ILS Cat II

A

An approach that can be made in as low as 100ft DH with an RVR of 1200ft

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22
Q

ILS Cat III

A

An approach that can be made in lower than 100ft DH with an RVR of 600ft

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23
Q

What types of approaches do non-precision approaches usually consist of?

A
  • Localizer
  • Backcourse
  • VOR
  • NDB
  • GPS
  • Circling
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24
Q

GPS overlay approach

A

An approach based on existing approaches in the CAP which use navaids (VOR/DME, NDB) but can be flown using GPS guidance by selecting the appropriate approach procedure from the airborne navigation database. Pilots may also use an overlay approach when the underlying approach navaid is temporarily U/S.

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25
Q

GPS Standalone approach

A

Often provided for runways that currently have no approach, runways served by circling approaches or runways that have straight in approaches where a GPS will provide an operational advantage. GPS will be in the procedure name on the plate.

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26
Q

What is a risk associated with using GPS?

A

Two aircraft are more likely to be flying the exact same track because of the accuracy of GPS. This could be a factor in mid-air collision.

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27
Q

What happens when pilots are alerted to a potential conflict?

A

They are 7 times more likely to spot the conflicting AC than if they are unaware of its presence.

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28
Q

What is a straight in approach for VFR?

A

When the AC enters the aerodrome traffic circuit on the final leg without having executed any other part of the circuit.

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29
Q

What is a straight in approach for IFR?

A

When the AC begins the final approach without first having executed a procedure turn.

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30
Q

What is the main reason that straight in approaches are designed?

A

To improve fuel economy.

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31
Q

List the ten types of instrument approaches.

A
  • ILS
  • VOR
  • NDB
  • GPS
  • Straight in
  • Visual
  • Contact
  • TACAN
  • Restricted Instrument Procedure (RIP)
  • Simulated approach
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32
Q

What is a contact approach?

A

When an AC on an IFR flight plan, having an ATC authorization and operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination in those conditions, may deviate from IAP and proceed to the destination by visual reference to the surface of the earth.

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33
Q

What are the conditions of a contact approach?

A
  • Must be clear of cloud
  • 1 mile flight visibility
  • Reasonable expectation that the above conditions will continue
  • Visual reference to the earth
  • That there is an approved, functioning IAP or GPS approach to the airport
  • ATC authorizes
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34
Q

Visual approach

A

When AC on an IFR flight plan operating in VMC under the control of ATC and having ATC authorization may proceed to the destination while the pilot maintains separation from traffic.

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35
Q

Simulated approach

A

An instrument approach procedure conducted in VMC by an aircraft not on an IFR clearance.

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36
Q

RIP

A

Restricted Instrument Procedure: An instrument approach, departure, or transition procedure that is not authorized for public use, but that has been approved by TC for restricted use by one or more operators an by the military provided that operational requirements are met. Also known as Company procedures.

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37
Q

Radar arrivals

A

ATC provides radar vectors to AC at larger airports. They are given specific, turns, speed, and altitude assignments that guide the pilot to a position where they can intercept final approach. This will occur no less than 2NM from their final descent and at an angle no greater than 30 degrees to final.

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38
Q

Circling procedure

A

A manoeuvre initiated by the pilot to align the AC with a runway for landing when a straight in approach is not possible or desirable.

  • ATC authorization must be obtained
  • Runway must be kept in sight
  • Must maintain MDA until landing is assured.
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39
Q

What are the requirements for an IFR AC reporting intentions at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  • 5 minutes before estimated time of commencing the approach procedure
  • When commencing a circling manoeuvre
  • As soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure.
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40
Q

What are the requirements for an IFR AC reporting position at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A
  • When passing the fix outbound if there is a procedure turn, or when the AC intercepts the final approach course
  • When passing the final approach fix or three minutes before ETA when there is no final approach fix
  • On final.
41
Q

How many CAPs are there?

A

7 + GEN

42
Q

What are the 7 CAPs?

A 
CAP 1: Nunavut, NWT, Yukon
CAP 2: BC
CAP 3: AB, SK, MB
CAP 4: ON
CAP 5: Quebec English
CAP 6: Quebec French
CAP 7: NB, NS, PEI, NFLD
43
Q

Review AV13 pages 38-52

A

These are about the CAP plate and chart pages. I did not think I could easily put the information into cards, but it may require some review.

44
Q

ATC Clearance

A

An authorization issued by an ATC unit for an AC to proceed within controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions specified by that unit.

45
Q

ATC Instruction

A

A directive issued by an ATC unit for ATC purposes.

46
Q

When shall ATC clearance be obtained?

A
  • Before takeoff from any point within controlled airspace

- Before entering controlled airspace for IFR flight or during IMC.

47
Q

Can deviations from an accepted clearance be made?

A

Only in an emergency of when responding to ACAS/TCAS

48
Q

What are the six ATC message prefixes?

A
  • ATC clears
  • ATC instructs
  • ATC advises
  • ATC suggests
  • ATC requests
  • ATC approves
49
Q

When should clearances or instructions be given to a departing AC?

A

Before the AC begins to taxi

50
Q

When should clearances or instructions be given to an AC in flight?

A

As soon as practicable.

51
Q

Who can translate an ATC clearance into another language?

A

Only an IFR controller.

52
Q

How may you omit reading back traffic information?

A

By saying TRAFFIC RECEIVED

53
Q

In regards to VFR flight requests made by IFR AC, when must you advise the appropriate ACC?

A
  • When the IFR flight indicates its intention to depart and maintain VFR until an IFR clearance is received
  • When the IFR flight requests permission to depart and maintain VFR until an IFR clearance is received
  • When the IFR flight requests an IFR clearance to maintain VFR until a specific time, altitude, or location.
54
Q

APREQ

A

Stands for APproval REQuest, also known as flow control: Measures designed to adjust the flow of traffic into a given airspace, along a given route, or bound for a given aerodrome, so as to ensure the most effective utilization of the airspace.

55
Q

What should be done when APREQ is in effect?

A
  • Inform pilots
  • Request ETD
  • Advise ATC and get assigned departure time
  • Relay assigned departure time to pilot
  • Suggest AC request clearance prior to engine start up
56
Q

What are the six types of ATC clearances that may be relayed through FSS?

A
  • Initial/departure clearance
  • En route clearance
  • Approach clearance
  • Missed approach clearance
  • Controlled VFR clearance
  • Holding clearance
57
Q

Initial/departure clearance

A

Usually obtained by the pilot prior to departure and relates to the departure and en route portions of the flight

58
Q

En route clearance

A

Provides for changes that may be required to the initial clearance or a clearance that needs to be obtained prior to entering controlled airspace

59
Q

Approach clearance

A

Authorizes and often specifies the type of approach to be flown at the destination aerodrome.

60
Q

Missed approach clearance

A

Specifies a new clearance in the event that the aircraft is unable to effect a landing at the destination aerodrome.

61
Q

When is a missed approach clearance given?

A

When a missed approach is conducted, or, in anticipation of a missed approach.

62
Q

Controlled VFR clearance

A

Provided to aircraft operating VFR in class B airspace.

63
Q

Holding clearance

A

Provides for an aircraft to maintain its position and altitude relative to a ‘holding fix’.

64
Q

If an aircraft is on a clearance and changes their intentions in any way, what must you do?

A

Notify ATC of the changes immediately.

65
Q

Order of priority for the ATC interphone:

A
  • Distress (including ESCAT)
  • Urgency messages
  • IFR, CVFR, SVFR movement and control messages
  • CIRVIS messages
  • Search and rescue messages
  • Communications search messages
  • DVFR and VFR movement messages including flight itinerary messages
  • Approval request messages concerning long range IFR flight and altitude reservation messages
  • ESCAT test messages
  • Messages concerning the malfunctioning of NAVAIDS
66
Q

What is the phraseology used for breaking a transmission of lower priority on the interphone?

A

BREAK FOR EMERGENCY/BREAK FOR CONTROL

67
Q

When should radio identification procedures be used when during telephone procedures?

A

-If necessary to communicate clearly or when handling IFR ATC messages

68
Q

When shall you transmit ATC messages ‘blind’?

A

If there is a communication failure and ATC instructs you to do so.

69
Q

If there is a communication failure and the pilot contacts you using a cell phone, what is the procedure?

A
  • Obtain essential information
  • Advise pilot to keep the line open
  • Inform ACC
70
Q

What is essential information (in regards to a communication failure)?

A
  • Ident and type of AC
  • ACC and frequency assigned
  • Position and time
  • Altitude or flight level
  • Nature of the problem
  • Intentions
  • Phone number including area code
71
Q

Order of items in a clearance

A
  • Prefix
  • Ident
  • Clearance limit
  • SID
  • Route
  • Altitude
  • Mach number
  • Departure, en route, approach, or holding instructions
  • Special instructions or information
  • Traffic information
72
Q

Information that MUST be included in a departure clearance:

A
  • Clearance limit
  • Some sort of route
  • Altitude
  • Departure runway
  • Squawk code
73
Q

Clearance limit

A

The point to which an AC is cleared. Further clearance is delivered to a flight prior to arrival at the clearance limit.

74
Q

When does the name of the departure airport not need to be included in a clearance relayed through FSS?

A

When the pilot is using a SID.

75
Q

When may you use the phrase ‘via flight planned route’?

A

When:
-The flight plan is not an airfile,
-The AC is radar monitored until established on the cleared route or sufficient routing is included in the clearance to ensure the AC is established, and
-The previously filed route has not been changed.
If the previously filed route has been changed,
-the changed route portion must be clearly identifiable on the FDS,
-the AC is advised that the clearance contains changes to the originally filed route
-the changed route is specified on the clearance.
Ref pg86/131

76
Q

When may you use the phrase ‘via centre stored flight planned route’?

A

When:

  • The flight plan has been filed in accordance with a stored-flight plan agreement and
  • No changes have been made to the route.
77
Q

What are the five requirements for completing a clearance form?

A 
Legibility-neat and readable
Content-copied verbatim
Format-components easily identified
Endorsement-Initials and time
Read back-read back and acknowledged.
78
Q

Where may you record clearances?

A

On a clearance pad or on FDS if it is copied verbatim using approved abbreviations and symbols.

79
Q

When must you obtain a readback?

A
  • When relaying an ATC clearance or instruction, or

- When relaying an amendment to an ATC clearance or instruction.

80
Q

When should a time check be included after a readback?

A

Only when there is a time included in the clearance

81
Q

When must you advise ATC about a clearance that could not be delivered?

A
  • Within three minutes or receipt or

- within three minutes of the ‘attempt-delivery time’ if specified.

82
Q

Can you relay a clearance through another FSS or another AC?

A

Only if the ACC instructs you to do so. The relaying agency must readback the clearance and have the clearance read back from the pilot.

83
Q

If an aircraft and ATC call at the same time, to whom do you respond to first?

A

The AC unless:

  • the ATC indicates that the call is urgent
  • the ATC uses a communication circuit with an alarm type of call in lieu of voice calling.
84
Q

When shall ACC give the FSS information about an inbound AC?

A

At least 15 minutes before the AC is expected to establish communications with the FSS.

85
Q

What information shall the ACC give to the FSS about an inbound AC?

A
  • AC ident
  • AC type
  • AC point of departure
  • AC estimate over a fix
  • Any revisions to previously passed information
  • Revised estimate over a fix if it differs by three minutes or more.
86
Q

Estimate

A

The time in UTC at which an IFR AC is calculated, by either the controller, the pilot or through automated means, to arrive over a significant point.

87
Q

What shall ACC instruct AC approaching an MF area to do?

A
  • Make all reports required by the CARs on the MF

- Change to MF before entering the MF area

88
Q

What is the phraseology used when the ACC requests a runway clear time?

A

GRJU OFF RUNWAY AT 27 AT MARCH AT 1322.

89
Q

What shall you do if an AC cancels IFR but does not close its IFR flight plan?

A
  • Acknowledge the cancellation
  • Advise the AC that an arrival report is required after landing unless there is an ATC or FSS unit
  • Provide weather information if applicable
  • Advise the appropriate ACC
90
Q

What shall you do if an AC cancels IFR and closes its IFR flight plan?

A
  • Acknowledge the cancellation and closure
  • Inform the AC that FP is closed and IFR alerting services are terminated
  • Provide weather information if applicable
  • Advise the appropriate ACC
91
Q

Position report

A

A report over a known location as transmitted by an aircraft.

92
Q

Phraseology for advising ACC about a missed approach

A

FHJK ON MISSED APPROACH RUNWAY 09 AT 1546

93
Q

What information SHALL (ha, yeah right) be provided by an AC for a position report?

A
  • Ident
  • Position
  • Time over reporting point
  • Altitude
  • Type of flight plan
  • Next reporting point and ETA (if differs by 3min or more)
  • Name of the next succeeding reporting point
  • Remarks
94
Q

What shall the FSS do if an IFR or CVFR AC gives them a position report when transiting the zone?

A
  • Record on FDS
  • Acknowledge by saying ROGER
  • Pass altimeter
  • Relay info to ACC (usually over the interphone)
  • Advise AC to contact the FIC for weather info.
95
Q

What shall FSS do when a VFR AC airfiles an IFR flight plan flight itinerary?

A
  • Pass the flight plan to the appropriate ACC
  • Relay ATC messages to the aircraft
  • Obtain the details of the VFR flight plan from the AC
  • Forward an arrival message to the responsible unit for the VFR destination if appropriate.
96
Q

What shall be done if an IFR inbound has not made contact 5 minutes prior to ETA?

A

Try to establish radio communications and if unable, contact the ACC for a position report and revised ETA.

97
Q

When should you request a report off runway?

A

When:

  • intended runway and taxiway are not visible from the position
  • you’re not in a position to see the AC leave the runway
  • if a touch and go and this is the final landing
98
Q

When shall IFR flight strips be moved from the enroute section to the active section?

A

At least five minutes prior to their ETA. (Or when they’re in direct contact with the FSS)

FSS1601 AK3 (16 decks)

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