auditory nerve Flashcards

1
Q

Arises in the inner and goes to the pons
two anatomically and functional parts:
-chochlear nerve
-vestibular nerve

A

Cranial nerve VIII auditory nerve

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2
Q

nerves that carry impulses from te periphery toward the brain

A

afferent fibers

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3
Q

arranged anatomically according to best frequency of stimulation

A

tonotopic

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4
Q

nerves that carry impulses from the brain toward the periphery

A

efferent fibers

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5
Q

a channel from the inner ear to the brainstem allowing passage of the auditory and vestibular branches of the VIIIth nerve and the internal auditory artery.

A

Internal Auditory meatus/internal auditory canal

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6
Q

The lower part of the brain above the medulla and the pons and behind the brain stem. It is the seat of posture and integrated movements.

A

cerebellum

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7
Q

Higher frequencies are in _______ part of brain.

A

outer

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8
Q

Low frequencies are in ________ part of brain

A

inner (middle)

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9
Q

The lowest portion of the brain, connecting the pons with the spinal cord.

A

Medulla oblangata

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10
Q

a bridge of fibers and neurons that connect the two sides of the brain at its base.

A

Pons

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11
Q

The are at the base of the brain at the junction of the cerebellum, medulla, and pons (temors tend to grow here)

A

cerebellopontine angle

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12
Q

the area of communication between neurons where a nerve impulse passes from an axon of one neuron to the cell body or dendrite of another

A

synapse

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13
Q

a crossing over, as of nerve fibers connecting both sides of the brain.

A

decussation

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14
Q

Nerve fibers connecting similar structures on both sides of the brain.

A

Commisures

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15
Q

the smaller of two cochlear nuclei on each side of the brain it receives fibers from the cochlea on the ipsilateral side (1st station 1st place it goes)

A

Dorsal cochlear nucleus

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16
Q

The larger of the two cochlear nuclei on each side of the brain; it receives the fibers of the cochlea on the ipsilateral side

A

ventral cochlear nucleus

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17
Q

one of hte auditory relay stations int eh midbrain, largely comprising units fro teh cochlear nuclei

A

superior olivary complex

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18
Q

The portion of the auditory pathway runnig from the cochlear nuclei to the inferior colliculus and medial geniculate body

A

Lateral Lemniscus

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19
Q

One of the central auditory pathways found int eh posterior portion of the midbrain.

A

Inferior colliculus

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20
Q

Discrimination happens here; analysis of sound

A

Inferior colliculus

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21
Q

The final subcortical auditory relay station, found in the thalamus on each side of the brain.

A

Medial Geniculate body

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22
Q

The part of the cerebral hemispheres usually associated with the perception of sound.

A

Temporal loves

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23
Q

The auditory language areas are located in the _______ _______

A

temporal lobe

24
Q

Located in the brain base, the thalamus send projecting fibers to, and receives fibers from, all parts of the cortex.

A

Thalamus

25
Q

The convolution of the temporal love believed to be the seat of language comprehension of the auditory system.

A

Heschl’s Gyrus

26
Q

A clot of hemorrhage of one of the arteries within the cerebrum stroke. Causes problems understanding speech

A

Cerebrovascular accident

27
Q

A benign tumor involving the nerve sheath of the auditory.

A

Acoustic neuroma

28
Q

Normal outer hair cell function (normal otoacoustic emissions)
ABnormal neural function at the level of the VIIIth nerve (abnormal auditory brainstem response)

A

Auditory Neuropathy dyssynchony

29
Q

impairment of the central auditory nervous system interfering with decoding of acoustic signals, including difficulties in sound localization and speech discrimination in noise.

A

Central auditory processing disorder

30
Q

Difficulty in the development of language and other communication skills associated with disorders of the auditory centers in the brain.

A

Auditory processing disorder

31
Q

Auditory processing requires

A

ability to discriminate sounds
to segment words into sounds
to produce rhyming words
looks at not just the ability to hear individual sounds but to supply missing sounds to incomplete words

32
Q

Criteraia for assessment at UH

A
be at least seven years or older
have normal cognitive functioning 
have normal hearing
have normal middle ear function
be a competent English speaker
have good articulation
33
Q

air conduction and bone conduction testing

A

pure tone audiometry

34
Q

a special flashlight device with a funnel like speculum on the end, designed to observe the tympanic membrane.

A

Otoscope

35
Q

A device for determining the thresholds of hearing pure tones at various frequencies are generated, and their levels are increased or decreased until thresholds are found

A

audiometer

36
Q

Outputs may include _______ for ______ conduction testing

A

earphones; air

37
Q

Outputs may include a _______ conduction oscillator for _______ conduction

A

bone; bone

38
Q

A pure tone that is frequency modulated. Used often with children and if speakers are being used

A

warble tone

39
Q

The average of the hearing levels at frequencies 500 1000 and 2000 Hz for each ear as obtained on a pure tone hearing test

A

pure tone average

40
Q

The response to a sound stimulus evoked when the skull is deformed by a bone conduction oscillator, distorting the cochlea and giving rise to electrochemical activity within the cochlea

A

Distortional bone conduction

41
Q

stimulation of the cochlea caused by lag of the chain of middle-ear bones, or inner ear fluids. when the skull is deformed, resulting in movement of the stapes in and out of the oval window.

A

inertial bone conductions

42
Q

The contribution to hearing by bone conduction created when the vibrating skull sets the air in the external ear canal into vibration, causing sound waves to pass down the canal, impinging on the eardrum membrane, and being conducted through the middle ear to the cochlea.

A

Osseotymoanic bone conduction

43
Q

listening with one ear

A

monaural

44
Q

listening with both ears to either the same or different stimuli

A

biaural

45
Q

in speech audiometry, introduction of a speech signal through a microphone. The loudness of the voice is monitored visually by means of a VU

A

Monitored live voice

46
Q

The lowest level in decibels at which a subject can barely detect the presence of speech and identify is as speech. also called the speech awareness threshold.

A

speech detection threshold

47
Q

rapidly delivered speech, either prerecorded or by monitored live voice, in which the output is monotonous and the peaks of the words strike zeron on the VU meter. Used in determining the SDT.

A

cold running speech

48
Q

The lowest hearing level at which speech can barely be understood

A

speech recognition threshold

49
Q

a two syllable word pronounced with equal stress on both syllables. Used for obtaining the SRT

A

spondaic words

50
Q

a phrase such as “say the word” that precedes the stimulus word during speech audiometry.

A

carrier phrase

51
Q

the hearing level designated by the listener as the most confortable listening level for speech

A

most comfortable loudness

52
Q

the intensity at which speech becomes uncomfortably loud

A

uncomfortable loudness level

53
Q

the reception of a sound signal during a hearing test at the ear opposite the ear under test

A

cross hearing

54
Q

the loss of energy of a sound presented by either air conduction or bone conduction as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear.

A

interaural attenuation

55
Q

keeping one ear busy while testing the other

A

masking

56
Q

the shift in the auditory threshold of a tone produced by a noise in the opposite ear

A

central masking

57
Q

occurs when a masking noise presented to the nontest ear is lough enough to shift the threshold int eh test ear beyond its true values

A

overmasking