Assessment and Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

norm- vs criterion- referenced tests

A

norm: compare an examinee’s performance to the performance of a specified group of participants (norms)

criterion: used to assess where an examinee stands on a particular criterion, or domain of scale, status, or functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Classical Test Theory

A

Spearman

score = true score + error

can’t individually observe either

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Generalizability theory

A

extension of CTT

Identifies sources of measurement error, separates the influence of each source, estimates the individual sources of measurement error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Item response theory

A

examines individual items in test development

relationships between constructs being measured and individual items responses are examined at multiple levels

ICC
item difficulty
item discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

reliability coefficient

A

r, ranges 0-1
degree to which test scores are consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4 types of internal consistency reliability estimates.

A

split-half
inter-rater reliability (Kappa)
Cronbach’s alpha
Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (for dichotomous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spearman-Brown formula

A

used to estimate the internal consistency of an entire test from the reliability of one half of a test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

types of validity

A

content
construct
criterion (includes concurrent and predictive validity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

content validity

A

how well a test includes the range of information needed to test the construct being measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

criterion validity

A

how well a test aligns with other tests that are intended to measure
the same thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

construct validity

A

how well a test measures the concept it was designed to evaluate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type I error

A

false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

type II error

A

false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

multitrait-multimethod matrix

A

way of examining construct validity: compare your test with others that are designed to measure the same and different things - do you get the expected correlation matrix?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

test bias

A

somethign in test that results in systematic variation or error, such that the test performs dfiferently in different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fairness in test creation

A

how fairly a test is used to classify/categorize

lack of bias
equitable treatment in the testing process
equality in outcomes
opportunity to learn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment yields

A

3 primary index scores:
Total problems
internalizing probs
externalizing probs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

age range for WJ-IV cog

A

2 to >90

**based on cattell-horn-carrol theory of intelligence!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Halstead Reitan

A

fixed-battery approach, core tests include
Category test
Tactual performance test
Speech-sounds perception test
Seashore rhythm
finger tapping
trail making test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Holland’s theory of vocational interest

A

there are 6 dimensions of vocational interest - uses hexagon

Realistic
Investigative
Artistic
Social
Enterprising
Conventional

21
Q

Self-directed search

A

SDS

self-report questionnaire that is scored and interpreted by the individual.

yields score profile with top three domains, and compare those top three to different occupations and fields

22
Q

Hiltonsmith and Keller 1983’s idea:
IO psych

A

framework for organizing data collected in ecological (person setting) assessment:
1) setting appearance and contents
2) setting operation
3) setting opportunities

23
Q

what are “controls” in the context of an FBA?

A

things the individual is trying to use their behavior to control

24
Q

assessment center

A

in IO psych, used to evaluate bxs and skills specific to a job’s content

a setting where a standardized evaluation of behavior based on multiple inputs can occur

multiple assessors observe and record bx, classify bx, and rate

25
Q

10 key components for an evaluation process to be considered an assessment measure

A

1) systematic analysis to determine job-related behavioral constructs
2) behavioral classification
3) multiple assessment center components
4) linkages btwn bx constructs and assessment center components
5) simulations
6) assessors
7) assessor training
8) recording bx and scoring
9) data integration
10) standardization

26
Q

8 broad factors proposed by Carroll

A

1) fluid intelligence
2) crystallized intelligence
3) general memory and learning
4) visual perception
5) auditory perception
6) retrieval capacity
7) cognitive speediness
8) processing speed

27
Q

Stanford Binet age range

A

2-85

28
Q

Wechsler scales age ranges

A

WPPSI: 2:6-7:7
WISC: 6-16
WAIS: 16 -89

29
Q

5 domains assessed in NAB

A

Attention
Language
Memory
Spatial
EF

30
Q

Strong Vocational Interest Inventory

A

yields scores in 4 scales:
1) general occupational themes
2) basic interest scales
3) personal style scales
4) occupational scales (measures 6 RIASEC categories)

31
Q

Kuder Occupational Interest Survey

A

self-report measure of vocational interest. Measures the similarity between a person’s responses adn the avg interests of people actually employed in a specific job

4 domains: occuaptional scales
college major
vocational interest
dependability estimates

32
Q

Campbell Interest and Skill Survey

A

yields scores in:
Occupational Orientation (like Holland’s interests)
Basic
Occupational

33
Q

Dusky vs US

A

supreme court decision stating that a person must have a rational and factual understanding of the proceedings against him

34
Q

American Law Institute Test for determining NGBRI

A

1) person lacks capacity to understand criminality of his bx or to conform to the law
2) mental disease or defect does NOT include abnormality manifested by repeated criminalor otherwise antisocial conduct

35
Q

M’Naghten rule

A

DRAWN
disease of the mind
defect in Reasoning
lacked Ability at time fo the crime
to konw Wrongfulness
or understand Nature and quality

defendant has to show insanity

36
Q

mens rea

A

Knowledge of wrongdoing of a crime

related to argument of diminished capacity

37
Q

Rogers Criminal Responsibility Assessment Scales

A

developed to facilitate evals of diminished capacity/mens rea

38
Q

2 types of violence/aggression assessments

A
  1. retrospective
  2. prospective (risk): assess dangerousnessh
39
Q

how to assess for aggression risk

A
  1. review case history
  2. clinical interview with pt
  3. interviews with family, friends, other ppl

**attend to riskf actors:
hx aggressive bx and violence
hx substance abuse
hx psychosis
hs psych/personality disorders (associated with violence)
attend to affective state and interpersonal style re: emotions

40
Q

Hare Psychopathy Checklist Revised

A

differentiate psychopathy traits from antisocial PD

3 factors:
1a and 1b: related to Narcissistic PD
2a and 2B; related to Antisocial PD and BPD

41
Q

event sampling vs interval recording

A

event sampling: how many times a bx happens
interval recordings: recording Y/N for time periods

42
Q

Kuder-Richardson formula

A

developed to assess internal consistency reliability in measures with dichotomous choices

43
Q

what is the difference between schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia

and brief psychotic disorder?

A

schizophreniform disorder: < 6 mo, doesnt require decline in functioning
schizophrenia: at least 6 mo, incl 1 mo of active-phase sxs

BPD: more than 1 day, less than 1 month

44
Q

most common negative sxs in schizophrenia

A

diminished emotional expression
avolition

45
Q

what is schizoaffective disorder

A

mood episode and active-phase sxs of schizophrenia occur together and were preceded or are followed by at least 2 weeks of delusions/hallucinations without prominent mood sxs

46
Q

what precludes a diagnosis of delusional disorder?

A

previously meeting criteria A of schizophrenia (2+ of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorg/catatonic bx, neg sxs for 1 mo)

47
Q

dx criteria for a brief psychotic disorder

A

A. 1+ of: delusions, hallucinations, disorg. speech, grossly disorg or catatonic bx
B. 1 day < x < 1 mo
C. not better explained by MDE or bipolar disorder with psychotic features or another psychotic disorder

48
Q

what is duration required for delusional disorder

A

1 mo

49
Q
A