Area Of OPS 2: Preflight: Task B: Airplane Flight Instruments and Navigation Equipment

Question 1

What does the outer marker indicate?

Answer 1

The position where the airplane should intercept the glide slope, located 4-7 miles from the airport.

Question 2

Are the vents and inlets for the pitot-static system always located in different places on the airframe?

Answer 2

No, the pitot tube and static port can be located together or separately as per design.

Question 3

Explain how distance measuring equipment (DME) works.

Answer 3

The airplane transmits a signal to a ground station, which responds. The time between signals is converted to distance, groundspeed, and ETE.

Question 4

What indicates that you have reached the inner marker, if installed?

Answer 4

A high-pitched tone of dots and a white indicator light.

Question 5

When must you set your transponder to “ALT”?

__________ is required in Class B and C airspace or within ______ miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace, but it is advisable to use Mode C at all times in flight.

Answer 5

Mode C is required in Class B and C airspace or within** 30** miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace, but it is advisable to use Mode C at all times in flight.

Question 6

How does the autopilot know which inputs to make to accomplish what the pilot expects?

Autopilots use __________ ____________ and may function as position-based, rate-based, or combined systems.

Answer 6

Autopilots use gyroscopic sensors and may function as position-based, rate-based, or combined systems.

Question 7

How does the airspeed indicator work?

Answer 7

It compares ram air pressure to static pressure to display airspeed.

Question 8

Why does reverse sensing occur?

Answer 8

When flying from a station with a TO indication, causing incorrect course indication.

Question 9

What powers the heading indicator?

Answer 9

Pneumatic pressure from the vacuum system.

Question 10

What indication will you get on the flight deck that suggests you have reached the middle marker?

A higher-pitched tone of __________ and __________, and an ____________ light.

Answer 10

A higher-pitched tone of dots and dashes, and an amber light.

Question 11

Are all existing nonprecision approaches grandfathered in as GPS overlay approaches?

Answer 11

No, some approaches cannot be coded for GPS and will not be published as overlay approaches.

Question 12

What does a red X showing on the PFD indicate?

Answer 12

The portion of information X’ed out is unreliable and should not be used.

Question 13

Is there a universal display system for all flight management systems?

Answer 13

No, each system is unique, requiring pilots to understand their specific system.

Question 14

Why is it important not to go long periods without checking and correcting the heading indicator?

Answer 14

To minimize errors due to the earth’s rotation and gyroscopic precession.

Question 15

What is required for a general aviation pilot to shoot a Category II ILS approach?

Answer 15

Specific training and additional aircraft equipment certifications.

Question 16

Why would using a different brand of GPS unit be problematic in a rented airplane?

Answer 16

GPS units from different manufacturers have significant operational and informational presentation differences.

Question 17

What is a VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station?

A VHF radio transmitting ground station providing ____________ information.

Answer 17

A VHF radio transmitting ground station providing bearing information.

Question 18

How is a DME arc flown with an RMI?

Keep the RMI needle pointed toward the __________ reference mark, adjust the needle ahead or behind the wingtip for drift correction.

Answer 18

Keep the RMI needle pointed toward the wingtip reference mark, adjust the needle ahead or behind the wingtip for drift correction.

Question 19

How would a blocked static port affect the airspeed indicator?

Answer 19

It would show reduced airspeed during a climb and increased airspeed during a descent.

Question 20

Is a flight management system (FMS) a navigation system?

Answer 20

No, an FMS is an interface between the pilot and flight deck systems, automating tasks required to operate navigation and management systems.

Question 21

What is an ILS?

Instrument Landing System, a ______________ approach providing ______________ and _______________ guidance to a runway.

Answer 21

Instrument Landing System, a precision approach providing course and altitude guidance to a runway.

Question 22

What is a DME arc?

A procedure where an aircraft maintains a constant ____________ from a VOR/DME or VORTAC station while flying a ____________ path.

Answer 22

A procedure where an aircraft maintains a constant distance from a VOR/DME or VORTAC station while flying a curved path.

Question 23

How do you ensure your transponder is transmitting Mode C information?

Answer 23

Switch the transponder to the “ALT” position to transmit pressure altitude information.

Question 24

Can GPS be used when flying a DME arc?

Answer 24

Yes, if it is a GPS unit certified for IFR en route and terminal operations.

Question 25

Under what conditions will the groundspeed and ETE information presented by a DME receiver be accurate? Only when flying directly ___________ Or ____________The station.

Answer 25

Only when flying directly **TO** or **FROM** the station.

Question 26

How can pneumatic pressure be generated for gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?

Answer 26

Using a venturi or a vacuum pump.

Question 27

What are the four basic components of an ILS? L G M A

Answer 27

Localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, and an approach light system.

Question 28

What mnemonic device helps remember dip errors when navigating by magnetic compass?

Answer 28

"See south, never north."

Question 29

What is the limitation of vacuum systems powered by a venturi?

Answer 29

They do not produce significant vacuum pressure until the aircraft gains speed.

Question 30

What is a needle valve in the context of an airplane vacuum system?

Answer 30

A valve that decreases suction for instruments needing less suction than the main system provides.

Question 31

What is the purpose of the marker system on an instrument approach?

Answer 31

To establish specific points along the localizer during the approach.

Question 32

Explain the indications of an automatic direction finder (ADF) indicator. The ADF needle indicates the ____________ ____________ to/from the station. Magnetic heading + Relative bearing = Magnetic bearing.

Answer 32

The ADF needle indicates the **relative bearing** to/from the station. Magnetic heading + Relative bearing = Magnetic bearing.

Question 33

What is a non-directional beacon (NDB)? An NDB transmits a ____________ ____________ signal on 190 to 535 kHz, used with ADF equipment to determine ___________ ____________.

Answer 33

An NDB transmits a **non-directional** signal on 190 to 535 kHz, used with ADF equipment to determine **relative bearing**.

Question 34

How is a DME arc flown with a standard VOR indicator? Rotate the OBS to select a radial ________° ahead, turn to maintain a constant DME distance, and adjust for _________.

Answer 34

Rotate the OBS to select a radial **10°** ahead, turn to maintain a constant DME distance, and adjust for **drift**.

Question 35

Aside from nav/comm radios, what systems might be affected by an electrical failure? F. R. G.

Answer 35

**Flaps**, **retractable gear**, and **glass panel displays** may be affected.

Question 36

What is a major limitation of the gyroscopic heading indicator?

Answer 36

It has no sensing ability and must be periodically set and checked against the magnetic compass.

Question 37

When used as a supporting instrument, what axis of control can the magnetic compass indicate?

Answer 37

It can indicate roll by showing a turn is occurring.

Question 38

When shooting an ILS approach, which marker beacons would you expect to encounter?

Answer 38

The outer marker and middle marker.

Question 39

What powers the turn-and-slip indicator or the turn coordinator?

Answer 39

They are typically powered by electricity.

Question 40

What is a radio magnetic indicator (RMI)? An RMI is a ___________ indicator overlaid with ADF-style needles for ____________ and ____________ bearing information.

Answer 40

An RMI is a **heading** indicator overlaid with ADF-style needles for **relative** and **magnetic** bearing information.

Question 41

If the static port were to become blocked, what indication would the altimeter give?

Answer 41

It would show the altitude at the time of the blockage, regardless of actual altitude changes.

Question 42

What mnemonic device helps remember acceleration/deceleration error?

Answer 42

ANDS: Accelerate North, Decelerate South.

Question 43

What is a GPS overlay approach? An ***existing*** approach, such as VOR or NDB, now includes “_________ ___________” in the title, allowing it to be flown with GPS.

Answer 43

An existing approach, such as VOR or NDB, now includes “**Or GPS**” in the title, allowing it to be flown with GPS.

Question 44

Why is it important to have an indicator on the flight deck for a standard rate turn? It provides a consistent ___________ rate reference regardless of the aircraft's ____________.

Answer 44

It provides a consistent **turn** rate reference regardless of the aircraft's **speed**.

Question 45

What is magnetic variation?

Answer 45

The difference between true north and magnetic north.

Question 46

What does a flickering light on the transponder signify? It indicates the transponder has been __________ and responded to a __________ signal.

Answer 46

It indicates the transponder has been **interrogated** and responded to a **radar** signal.

Question 47

What error might an attitude indicator show during rapid acceleration?

Answer 47

A slight pitching up.

Question 48

What is the error built into the VSI? VSI has a ____________ time between ____________ changes and indicated trends.

Answer 48

VSI has a **lag** time between **pressure** changes and indicated trends.

Question 49

What is one reliability advantage of electronic flight displays?

Answer 49

They have a far lower failure rate than analog instruments.

Question 50

How long does it take for an attitude indicator to come up to speed and erect itself?

Answer 50

Typically 2-3 minutes, but up to 5 minutes.

Question 51

What is a limitation of pneumatically powered attitude indicators for instrument pilots?

Answer 51

They require time to spin up to speed and become accurate.

Question 52

How often should you check your heading indicator against your magnetic compass for accuracy?

Answer 52

Every 15 minutes.

Question 53

What is a Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)? An instrument combining a ____________ indicator with a ____________ indicator.

Answer 53

An instrument combining a **heading** indicator with a **VOR/ILS** indicator.

Question 54

In the event of an alternator failure, would all power to systems be lost immediately?

Answer 54

No, the battery can provide power for a brief period.

Question 55

Explain the indications seen on an HSI. Includes a C____________ selector, C___________, T__________/F____________ indicator, and G____________ S____________ indicator.

Answer 55

Includes a **course selector**, **CDI, TO/FROM indicator, and glide slope indicator.

Question 56

How do autopilots control the airplane in flight? Autopilots can control all three axes of flight using ___________, ____________, or ____________ controls.

Answer 56

Autopilots can control all three axes of flight using **hydraulic**, **electrical**, or **digital** controls.

Question 57

What is the purpose of a DME arc? To help inbound aircraft become established on.....

Answer 57

**a final approach course or a segment of a DP or STAR.**

Question 58

What error is an inherent risk with using flight management systems?

Answer 58

Pilot input errors due to distraction, misunderstandings, or lack of familiarity.

Question 59

Describe the pitot-static system in general terms.

Answer 59

It uses ram air pressure from the pitot tube for the airspeed indicator and static air pressure from vents for the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

Question 60

Is it preferable to use the autopilot when flying an airplane with an electronic flight display (EFD)?

Answer 60

Yes, using the autopilot reduces pilot workload and increases situational awareness.

Question 61

Why do turn-and-slip indicators and turn coordinators have a time indication usually labeled “2 min turn”? It signifies a ____________ rate turn of ______° per second, completing a ______° turn in ______ minutes.

Answer 61

It signifies a **standard** rate turn of **3**° per second, completing a **360**° turn in **2** minutes.

Question 62

Can a handheld GPS be used to fly a WAAS approach?

Answer 62

No, only certified panel-mounted GPS units can be used for instrument procedures.

Question 63

When using GPS as a primary navigation tool, how different is the process of planning an IFR flight? It is virtually identical to planning with other navigational tools, with main differences in GPS ___________ and ___________ retrieval.

Answer 63

It is virtually identical to planning with other navigational tools, with main differences in GPS **programming** and **information** retrieval.

Question 64

What does ATC mean by “ident,” and what is the result?

Answer 64

Press the ident button on the transponder to make the aircraft icon glow brighter on the controller's display.

Question 65

What is an advantage of electronic flight displays from the pilot's perspective?

Answer 65

Simplified instrument scan and accessible information.

Question 66

What is the northerly turning error? The compass turns ___________ or _____________ than the airplane when turning from an ____________ or ___________ heading to north.

Answer 66

The compass turns **faster** or **slower** than the airplane when turning from an **east** or **west** heading to north.

Question 67

Does an up-to-date database absolve the need to check NOTAMs when using GPS for navigation?

Answer 67

No, pilots should always check NOTAMs prior to a flight, regardless of navigation method.

Question 68

What power source is typically used with attitude indicators? ____________ pressure from the ____________ system.

Answer 68

**Pneumatic** pressure from the **vacuum** system.

Question 69

How often must an aircraft's altimeter and static system be inspected for IFR flight?

Answer 69

Every 24 calendar months.

Question 70

Is the magnetic compass ever used as a primary flight instrument?

Answer 70

It is a primary reference for heading but commonly used as a secondary control instrument.

Question 71

What is the vertical line on the magnetic compass called?

Answer 71

The lubber line.

Question 72

How can we better understand the electrical system of our airplane before flying it?

Answer 72

By reading and studying the POH/AFM specific to the airplane.

Question 73

What is a potential negative aspect of the electronic flight display?

Answer 73

Increased pilot workload adapting to analog instruments during an electrical failure.

Question 74

What is the next most common power source for non-pneumatic attitude indicators?

Answer 74

Electricity.

Question 75

Explain the indications of a standard VOR indicator. ________ **selects** **course** ________ **shows** **course position ** __________/__________ indicator **shows direction** relative to the station.

Answer 75

OBS selects **course** CDI shows **course** position, TO/FROM indicator shows **direction** relative to the station.

Question 76

What is the purpose of the Kollsman window on an altimeter? It allows the pilot to set a ____________ ____________ for accurate altitude readings.

Answer 76

It allows the pilot to set a **reference pressure** for accurate altitude readings.

Question 77

What is receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) and why is it important? RAIM verifies the accuracy of ___________ signals, ensuring they are not ____________.

Answer 77

RAIM verifies the accuracy of **GPS** signals, ensuring they are not **corrupted**.

Question 78

If you selected the alternate static source, would the altimeter read higher, lower, or the same as normal?

Answer 78

It would read slightly higher than normal.

Question 79

What is a typical ILS glide slope angle?

Answer 79

3°.

Question 80

What does "position error" mean in airspeed readings? Errors due to disturbed __________ into the __________ ___________, often from high pitch attitudes.

Answer 80

Errors due to disturbed **airflow** into the **pitot tube**, often from high pitch attitudes.

Question 81

What is deviation in the context of magnetic compasses?

Answer 81

Errors induced by magnetic fields in the aircraft, corrected by a compass correction card.

Question 82

If the pitot tube becomes blocked, what will the airspeed indicator read?

Answer 82

It will remain constant at the blockage altitude, acting like an altimeter.

Question 83

If you suspect an alternator failure, what action would extend the available battery power?

Answer 83

Shed as much electrical load as possible.

Question 84

What is the difference between a turn-and-slip indicator and a turn coordinator?

Answer 84

The turn coordinator provides both bank rate and turn rate information; the turn-and-slip only provides turn rate information.

Question 85

What scientific instrument does an altimeter most closely equate to?

Answer 85

A barometer.

Question 86

What indication do you have on the flight deck that you have reached the outer marker?

Answer 86

A low-pitched tone of continuous dashes and a blue marker beacon light.

Question 87

What does the middle marker indicate? It is located __________ feet from the ____________ threshold, where the glide slope is roughly ___________ feet above the touchdown zone.

Answer 87

It is located **3,500** feet from the **landing** threshold, where the glide slope is roughly **200** feet above the touchdown zone.

Question 88

How often must a VOR accuracy check be performed for IFR operations?

Answer 88

Every 30 days.

Question 89

What is the error that gyroscopes suffer from?

Answer 89

Gyroscopic precession, leading to inaccuracies over time.

Question 90

What does dip error cause when flying by the magnetic compass?

Answer 90

North and south turning errors, and acceleration/deceleration errors.

Question 91

Explain the indications seen on an RMI. The ___________ always points to the station, showing ___________ and ______________ bearings for VOR or NDB stations, with heading under the top index.

Answer 91

The **needle** always points to the station, showing **relative** and **magnetic** bearings for VOR or NDB stations, with heading under the top index.

Question 92

What is a horizontal situation indicator (HSI)? An instrument that combines a ___________ ___________ with navigational signals and a ___________.

Answer 92

An instrument that combines a **magnetic compass** with navigational signals and a **glideslope**.

Question 93

How does the vertical speed indicator (VSI) work? It measures the rate of change in ____________ to show _________ or ___________ rate in feet per minute.

Answer 93

It measures the rate of change in **pressure** to show **climb** or **descent** rate in feet per minute.

Question 94

How often must an aircraft's transponder be inspected for VMC/IMC use?

Answer 94

Every 24 calendar months, with a record in the aircraft's maintenance logbook.

Question 95

What are the tolerances for different VOR accuracy checks?

Answer 95

Ground check: ±4°, Airborne check: ±6°, Dual systems check: within 4°.

Question 96

What is a suction relief valve in an airplane vacuum system? A ____________-loaded device that regulates ____________ to the instruments.

Answer 96

A **spring**-loaded device that regulates **suction** to the instruments.

Question 97

What is acceleration/deceleration error?

Answer 97

Errors appearing when accelerating or decelerating on an east or west heading.