Area Of OPS 2: Preflight: Task B: Airplane Flight Instruments and Navigation Equipment Flashcards

1
Q

What does the outer marker indicate?

A

The position where the airplane should intercept the glide slope, located 4-7 miles from the airport.

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2
Q

Are the vents and inlets for the pitot-static system always located in different places on the airframe?

A

No, the pitot tube and static port can be located together or separately as per design.

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3
Q

Explain how distance measuring equipment (DME) works.

A

The airplane transmits a signal to a ground station, which responds. The time between signals is converted to distance, groundspeed, and ETE.

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4
Q

What indicates that you have reached the inner marker, if installed?

A

A high-pitched tone of dots and a white indicator light.

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5
Q

When must you set your transponder to “ALT”?

__________ is required in Class B and C airspace or within ______ miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace, but it is advisable to use Mode C at all times in flight.

A

Mode C is required in Class B and C airspace or within** 30** miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace, but it is advisable to use Mode C at all times in flight.

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6
Q

How does the autopilot know which inputs to make to accomplish what the pilot expects?

Autopilots use __________ ____________ and may function as position-based, rate-based, or combined systems.

A

Autopilots use gyroscopic sensors and may function as position-based, rate-based, or combined systems.

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7
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

It compares ram air pressure to static pressure to display airspeed.

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8
Q

Why does reverse sensing occur?

A

When flying from a station with a TO indication, causing incorrect course indication.

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9
Q

What powers the heading indicator?

A

Pneumatic pressure from the vacuum system.

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10
Q

What indication will you get on the flight deck that suggests you have reached the middle marker?

A higher-pitched tone of __________ and __________, and an ____________ light.

A

A higher-pitched tone of dots and dashes, and an amber light.

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11
Q

Are all existing nonprecision approaches grandfathered in as GPS overlay approaches?

A

No, some approaches cannot be coded for GPS and will not be published as overlay approaches.

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12
Q

What does a red X showing on the PFD indicate?

A

The portion of information X’ed out is unreliable and should not be used.

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13
Q

Is there a universal display system for all flight management systems?

A

No, each system is unique, requiring pilots to understand their specific system.

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14
Q

Why is it important not to go long periods without checking and correcting the heading indicator?

A

To minimize errors due to the earth’s rotation and gyroscopic precession.

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15
Q

What is required for a general aviation pilot to shoot a Category II ILS approach?

A

Specific training and additional aircraft equipment certifications.

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16
Q

Why would using a different brand of GPS unit be problematic in a rented airplane?

A

GPS units from different manufacturers have significant operational and informational presentation differences.

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17
Q

What is a VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station?

A VHF radio transmitting ground station providing ____________ information.

A

A VHF radio transmitting ground station providing bearing information.

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18
Q

How is a DME arc flown with an RMI?

Keep the RMI needle pointed toward the __________ reference mark, adjust the needle ahead or behind the wingtip for drift correction.

A

Keep the RMI needle pointed toward the wingtip reference mark, adjust the needle ahead or behind the wingtip for drift correction.

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19
Q

How would a blocked static port affect the airspeed indicator?

A

It would show reduced airspeed during a climb and increased airspeed during a descent.

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20
Q

Is a flight management system (FMS) a navigation system?

A

No, an FMS is an interface between the pilot and flight deck systems, automating tasks required to operate navigation and management systems.

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21
Q

What is an ILS?

Instrument Landing System, a ______________ approach providing ______________ and _______________ guidance to a runway.

A

Instrument Landing System, a precision approach providing course and altitude guidance to a runway.

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22
Q

What is a DME arc?

A procedure where an aircraft maintains a constant ____________ from a VOR/DME or VORTAC station while flying a ____________ path.

A

A procedure where an aircraft maintains a constant distance from a VOR/DME or VORTAC station while flying a curved path.

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23
Q

How do you ensure your transponder is transmitting Mode C information?

A

Switch the transponder to the “ALT” position to transmit pressure altitude information.

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24
Q

Can GPS be used when flying a DME arc?

A

Yes, if it is a GPS unit certified for IFR en route and terminal operations.

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25
Q

Under what conditions will the groundspeed and ETE information presented by a DME receiver be accurate?

Only when flying directly ___________ Or ____________The station.

A

Only when flying directly TO or FROM the station.

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26
Q

How can pneumatic pressure be generated for gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?

A

Using a venturi or a vacuum pump.

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27
Q

What are the four basic components of an ILS?
L
G
M
A

A

Localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, and an approach light system.

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28
Q

What mnemonic device helps remember dip errors when navigating by magnetic compass?

A

“See south, never north.”

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29
Q

What is the limitation of vacuum systems powered by a venturi?

A

They do not produce significant vacuum pressure until the aircraft gains speed.

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30
Q

What is a needle valve in the context of an airplane vacuum system?

A

A valve that decreases suction for instruments needing less suction than the main system provides.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the marker system on an instrument approach?

A

To establish specific points along the localizer during the approach.

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32
Q

Explain the indications of an automatic direction finder (ADF) indicator.

The ADF needle indicates the ____________ ____________ to/from the station. Magnetic heading + Relative bearing = Magnetic bearing.

A

The ADF needle indicates the relative bearing to/from the station. Magnetic heading + Relative bearing = Magnetic bearing.

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33
Q

What is a non-directional beacon (NDB)?

An NDB transmits a ____________ ____________ signal on 190 to 535 kHz, used with ADF equipment to determine ___________ ____________.

A

An NDB transmits a non-directional signal on 190 to 535 kHz, used with ADF equipment to determine relative bearing.

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34
Q

How is a DME arc flown with a standard VOR indicator?

Rotate the OBS to select a radial ________° ahead, turn to maintain a constant DME distance, and adjust for _________.

A

Rotate the OBS to select a radial 10° ahead, turn to maintain a constant DME distance, and adjust for drift.

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35
Q

Aside from nav/comm radios, what systems might be affected by an electrical failure?

F.
R.
G.

A

Flaps, retractable gear, and glass panel displays may be affected.

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36
Q

What is a major limitation of the gyroscopic heading indicator?

A

It has no sensing ability and must be periodically set and checked against the magnetic compass.

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37
Q

When used as a supporting instrument, what axis of control can the magnetic compass indicate?

A

It can indicate roll by showing a turn is occurring.

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38
Q

When shooting an ILS approach, which marker beacons would you expect to encounter?

A

The outer marker and middle marker.

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39
Q

What powers the turn-and-slip indicator or the turn coordinator?

A

They are typically powered by electricity.

40
Q

What is a radio magnetic indicator (RMI)?

An RMI is a ___________ indicator overlaid with ADF-style needles for ____________ and ____________ bearing information.

A

An RMI is a heading indicator overlaid with ADF-style needles for relative and magnetic bearing information.

41
Q

If the static port were to become blocked, what indication would the altimeter give?

A

It would show the altitude at the time of the blockage, regardless of actual altitude changes.

42
Q

What mnemonic device helps remember acceleration/deceleration error?

A

ANDS: Accelerate North, Decelerate South.

43
Q

What is a GPS overlay approach?

An existing approach, such as VOR or NDB, now includes “_________ ___________” in the title, allowing it to be flown with GPS.

A

An existing approach, such as VOR or NDB, now includes “Or GPS” in the title, allowing it to be flown with GPS.

44
Q

Why is it important to have an indicator on the flight deck for a standard rate turn?

It provides a consistent ___________ rate reference regardless of the aircraft’s ____________.

A

It provides a consistent turn rate reference regardless of the aircraft’s speed.

45
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

The difference between true north and magnetic north.

46
Q

What does a flickering light on the transponder signify?

It indicates the transponder has been __________ and responded to a __________ signal.

A

It indicates the transponder has been interrogated and responded to a radar signal.

47
Q

What error might an attitude indicator show during rapid acceleration?

A

A slight pitching up.

48
Q

What is the error built into the VSI?

VSI has a ____________ time between ____________ changes and indicated trends.

A

VSI has a lag time between pressure changes and indicated trends.

49
Q

What is one reliability advantage of electronic flight displays?

A

They have a far lower failure rate than analog instruments.

50
Q

How long does it take for an attitude indicator to come up to speed and erect itself?

A

Typically 2-3 minutes, but up to 5 minutes.

51
Q

What is a limitation of pneumatically powered attitude indicators for instrument pilots?

A

They require time to spin up to speed and become accurate.

52
Q

How often should you check your heading indicator against your magnetic compass for accuracy?

A

Every 15 minutes.

53
Q

What is a Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)?

An instrument combining a ____________ indicator with a ____________ indicator.

A

An instrument combining a heading indicator with a VOR/ILS indicator.

54
Q

In the event of an alternator failure, would all power to systems be lost immediately?

A

No, the battery can provide power for a brief period.

55
Q

Explain the indications seen on an HSI.

Includes a C____________ selector, C___________, T__________/F____________ indicator, and G____________ S____________ indicator.

A

Includes a course selector, **CDI, TO/FROM indicator, and glide slope indicator.

56
Q

How do autopilots control the airplane in flight?

Autopilots can control all three axes of flight using ___________, ____________, or ____________ controls.

A

Autopilots can control all three axes of flight using hydraulic, electrical, or digital controls.

57
Q

What is the purpose of a DME arc?

To help inbound aircraft become established on…..

A

a final approach course or a segment of a DP or STAR.

58
Q

What error is an inherent risk with using flight management systems?

A

Pilot input errors due to distraction, misunderstandings, or lack of familiarity.

59
Q

Describe the pitot-static system in general terms.

A

It uses ram air pressure from the pitot tube for the airspeed indicator and static air pressure from vents for the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

60
Q

Is it preferable to use the autopilot when flying an airplane with an electronic flight display (EFD)?

A

Yes, using the autopilot reduces pilot workload and increases situational awareness.

61
Q

Why do turn-and-slip indicators and turn coordinators have a time indication usually labeled “2 min turn”?

It signifies a ____________ rate turn of ______° per second, completing a ______° turn in ______ minutes.

A

It signifies a standard rate turn of 3° per second, completing a 360° turn in 2 minutes.

62
Q

Can a handheld GPS be used to fly a WAAS approach?

A

No, only certified panel-mounted GPS units can be used for instrument procedures.

63
Q

When using GPS as a primary navigation tool, how different is the process of planning an IFR flight?

It is virtually identical to planning with other navigational tools, with main differences in GPS ___________ and ___________ retrieval.

A

It is virtually identical to planning with other navigational tools, with main differences in GPS programming and information retrieval.

64
Q

What does ATC mean by “ident,” and what is the result?

A

Press the ident button on the transponder to make the aircraft icon glow brighter on the controller’s display.

65
Q

What is an advantage of electronic flight displays from the pilot’s perspective?

A

Simplified instrument scan and accessible information.

66
Q

What is the northerly turning error?

The compass turns ___________ or _____________ than the airplane when turning from an ____________ or ___________ heading to north.

A

The compass turns faster or slower than the airplane when turning from an east or west heading to north.

67
Q

Does an up-to-date database absolve the need to check NOTAMs when using GPS for navigation?

A

No, pilots should always check NOTAMs prior to a flight, regardless of navigation method.

68
Q

What power source is typically used with attitude indicators?

____________ pressure from the ____________ system.

A

Pneumatic pressure from the vacuum system.

69
Q

How often must an aircraft’s altimeter and static system be inspected for IFR flight?

A

Every 24 calendar months.

70
Q

Is the magnetic compass ever used as a primary flight instrument?

A

It is a primary reference for heading but commonly used as a secondary control instrument.

71
Q

What is the vertical line on the magnetic compass called?

A

The lubber line.

72
Q

How can we better understand the electrical system of our airplane before flying it?

A

By reading and studying the POH/AFM specific to the airplane.

73
Q

What is a potential negative aspect of the electronic flight display?

A

Increased pilot workload adapting to analog instruments during an electrical failure.

74
Q

What is the next most common power source for non-pneumatic attitude indicators?

A

Electricity.

75
Q

Explain the indications of a standard VOR indicator.

________ selects course
________ shows **course position **
__________/__________ indicator shows direction relative to the station.

A

OBS selects course
CDI shows course position, TO/FROM indicator shows direction relative to the station.

76
Q

What is the purpose of the Kollsman window on an altimeter?

It allows the pilot to set a ____________ ____________ for accurate altitude readings.

A

It allows the pilot to set a reference pressure for accurate altitude readings.

77
Q

What is receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) and why is it important?

RAIM verifies the accuracy of ___________ signals, ensuring they are not ____________.

A

RAIM verifies the accuracy of GPS signals, ensuring they are not corrupted.

78
Q

If you selected the alternate static source, would the altimeter read higher, lower, or the same as normal?

A

It would read slightly higher than normal.

79
Q

What is a typical ILS glide slope angle?

A

3°.

80
Q

What does “position error” mean in airspeed readings?

Errors due to disturbed __________ into the __________ ___________, often from high pitch attitudes.

A

Errors due to disturbed airflow into the pitot tube, often from high pitch attitudes.

81
Q

What is deviation in the context of magnetic compasses?

A

Errors induced by magnetic fields in the aircraft, corrected by a compass correction card.

82
Q

If the pitot tube becomes blocked, what will the airspeed indicator read?

A

It will remain constant at the blockage altitude, acting like an altimeter.

83
Q

If you suspect an alternator failure, what action would extend the available battery power?

A

Shed as much electrical load as possible.

84
Q

What is the difference between a turn-and-slip indicator and a turn coordinator?

A

The turn coordinator provides both bank rate and turn rate information; the turn-and-slip only provides turn rate information.

85
Q

What scientific instrument does an altimeter most closely equate to?

A

A barometer.

86
Q

What indication do you have on the flight deck that you have reached the outer marker?

A

A low-pitched tone of continuous dashes and a blue marker beacon light.

87
Q

What does the middle marker indicate?

It is located __________ feet from the ____________ threshold, where the glide slope is roughly ___________ feet above the touchdown zone.

A

It is located 3,500 feet from the landing threshold, where the glide slope is roughly 200 feet above the touchdown zone.

88
Q

How often must a VOR accuracy check be performed for IFR operations?

A

Every 30 days.

89
Q

What is the error that gyroscopes suffer from?

A

Gyroscopic precession, leading to inaccuracies over time.

90
Q

What does dip error cause when flying by the magnetic compass?

A

North and south turning errors, and acceleration/deceleration errors.

91
Q

Explain the indications seen on an RMI.

The ___________ always points to the station, showing ___________ and ______________ bearings for VOR or NDB stations, with heading under the top index.

A

The needle always points to the station, showing relative and magnetic bearings for VOR or NDB stations, with heading under the top index.

92
Q

What is a horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?

An instrument that combines a ___________ ___________ with navigational signals and a ___________.

A

An instrument that combines a magnetic compass with navigational signals and a glideslope.

93
Q

How does the vertical speed indicator (VSI) work?

It measures the rate of change in ____________ to show _________ or ___________ rate in feet per minute.

A

It measures the rate of change in pressure to show climb or descent rate in feet per minute.

94
Q

How often must an aircraft’s transponder be inspected for VMC/IMC use?

A

Every 24 calendar months, with a record in the aircraft’s maintenance logbook.

95
Q

What are the tolerances for different VOR accuracy checks?

A

Ground check: ±4°, Airborne check: ±6°, Dual systems check: within 4°.

96
Q

What is a suction relief valve in an airplane vacuum system?

A ____________-loaded device that regulates ____________ to the instruments.

A

A spring-loaded device that regulates suction to the instruments.

97
Q

What is acceleration/deceleration error?

A

Errors appearing when accelerating or decelerating on an east or west heading.