AREA OF OPERATION V: NAVIGATION SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

What is a waypoint?

A ___________ ___________ determined by a ____________ and _______________ from a ___________/____________ or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.

A

A geographical position determined by a radial and distance from a VOR/DME or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.

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2
Q

How do you intercept a particular VOR radial?

Twist the ____________ to the radial, note _____________ deflection, ____________ toward the needle, and ____________ the needle.

A

Twist the OBS to the radial, note needle deflection, turn toward the needle, and center the needle.

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3
Q

What is bracketing in navigation?

A method to determine the correct ____________ to fly to track a course with a ____________, using trial and error.

A

A method to determine the correct heading to fly to track a course with a crosswind, using trial and error.

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4
Q

What is the operational difference between a VOR, VOR/DME, and VORTAC?

VORTACs and VOR/DME provide ____________ and ____________ information, while VORs provide only ____________.

A

VORTACs and VOR/DME provide azimuth and range information, while VORs provide only azimuth.

The azimuth is the angle formed between a reference direction

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5
Q

How do you determine your radial relative to a VOR using a VOR indicator or HSI?

Center the CDI needle with a ____________ indication and read the radial under the top index.

A

Center the CDI needle with a FROM indication and read the radial under the top index.

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6
Q

How do you determine your radial relative to a VOR using an RMI?

Center the *__________ __________ needle and read the radial under the heading.

A

Center the magnetic bearing needle and read the radial under the heading.

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7
Q

How do you identify an intersection of two VOR radials?

A

Use two VOR receivers, tune each to a different station, and center both needles.

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8
Q

How do you identify an intersection of a VOR radial and an NDB bearing?

A

Center the CDI needle on the radial and ensure the ADF needle points to the correct bearing.

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9
Q

What is the difference between homing and tracking?

Tracking corrects for ____________ ____________, while homing keeps the ____________ pointed at the station, resulting in a curved path.

A

Tracking corrects for wind drift, while homing keeps the nose pointed at the station, resulting in a curved path.

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10
Q

How do you intercept a particular NDB bearing?

  1. Turn to the ___________ heading of the bearing,
  2. Establish an ___________ angle,
  3. Turn ____________ when the bearing is indicated.
A
  1. Turn to the magnetic heading of the bearing, 2. Establish an intercept angle,
  2. Turn inbound when the bearing is indicated.
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11
Q

How do you verify that a navigational facility is the correct one and operational?

A

Monitor the Morse code identifier for the facility shown on the chart.

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12
Q

How do you identify station passage using a VOR?

A

The TO/FROM flag changes indication.

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13
Q

How do you identify station passage using an ADF?

A

The ADF needle turns 180° indicating the station is behind you.

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14
Q

What documents must be aboard an aircraft when it is being operated?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station license, Registration Certificate, Operating limitations, and Weight and balance data (ARROW).

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15
Q

What information is included in an IFR departure clearance (CRAFT)?

A

Cleared to, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code.

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16
Q

How can you obtain your departure clearance at a controlled field?

A

On the clearance delivery frequency in Class B/C airspace, or on ground control/tower frequency in Class D/E/G airspace with an operating tower.

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17
Q

How can you obtain a departure clearance at an uncontrolled field?

A

By contacting the nearest FSS by telephone or radio before takeoff.

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18
Q

What does “cleared as filed” mean in a departure clearance?

A

The route of flight listed on your flight plan can be issued with little or no revision.

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19
Q

Are you required to accept a departure procedure (DP) if one is assigned by ATC?

A

No, pilots may refuse a DP when issued as part of a clearance.

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20
Q

How can you avoid being assigned a DP?

A

Include the notation “No DP” in the remarks section of your flight plan.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of DPs?

A

To simplify clearance delivery procedures when deemed appropriate by ATC.

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22
Q

What must you possess to accept a DP?

A

At least a textual description of the procedure.

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23
Q

What is the standard minimum climb gradient for a DP?

A

At least 200 feet per nautical mile unless specified otherwise.

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24
Q

Are there takeoff minimums for operations under Part 91?

A

No, except when nonstandard takeoff minimums apply as noted on the approach chart.

25
Q

What is a good self-imposed policy for minimum takeoff conditions?

A

Using the minimums for the illustrated approach at the departure airport for safe return in case of emergency.

26
Q

What is wake turbulence and under what conditions is it strongest?

A

Violent disruption of air as an object passes through; strongest when the aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

27
Q

Where should you plan to lift off when departing behind a large aircraft that has just landed on the same runway?

A

Depart beyond the point where the large aircraft’s nose wheel touched down.

28
Q

Where should you plan to depart when taking off behind a large aircraft that has just taken off on the same runway?

A

Depart prior to the large aircraft’s departure point and stay above its flight path.

29
Q

What is an ILS critical area?

An area where ___________ aircraft can cause ____________ interference with localizer/glide slope ____________.

A

An area where ground aircraft can cause signal interference with localizer/glide slope transmitters.

30
Q

How can you avoid being inside an ILS critical area during ground operations?

A

Stop and wait at taxiway markings indicating the ILS critical area, marked by parallel yellow lines with short parallel bars.

31
Q

Describe runway hold-short lines and signs.

A

Four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, with solid lines on the hold side; signs have a red background with white numbers identifying the runways.

32
Q

What color are runway lights?

Runway Edge Lights:

White: Typically used along the ___________ of the runway.

Yellow: On ___________ runways, yellow replaces white on the last ____________ feet to indicate a caution zone.

Runway Centerline Lights:

White: Used along the centerline of the runway.

Alternating Red and White: For the last ___________ feet of the runway.
Red: For the last ____________ feet of the runway.

A

Runway Edge Lights:

White: Typically used along the edges of the runway.

Yellow: On instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet to indicate a caution zone.

Runway Centerline Lights:

White: Used along the centerline of the runway.

Alternating Red and White: For the last 3,000 feet of the runway.
Red: For the last 1,000 feet of the runway.

33
Q

What special signs are visible on the runway?

A

Runway distance remaining signs, indicating the remaining runway distance in thousands of feet.

34
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining separation between your aircraft and other traffic in VFR conditions?

A

The pilot in command is responsible to see and avoid other aircraft.

35
Q

What is a minimum en route altitude (MEA)?

A

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.

36
Q

What is a minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA)?

A

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airways, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures navigational signal coverage within 25 SM of a VOR.

37
Q

What is a minimum reception altitude (MRA)?

A

The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

38
Q

What information is found on en route low altitude charts?

A

Airways, limit of controlled airspace, VHF radio aids to navigation, airports with IAP or minimum 3,000 ft hard surface runway, OROCAs, reporting points, special-use airspace, and MTRs.

39
Q

What is a changeover point (COP)?

A point along the route or airway segment between ____________ or waypoints where _____________ in navigation guidance should occur.

A

A point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigation facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigation guidance should occur.

40
Q

How is a changeover point depicted on en route charts?

A

By a roughly “S”-shaped symbol with a long line perpendicular to the route segments and two shorter parallel lines extending from either end, with distances shown above and below the shorter lines.

41
Q

If no MEA is published for your route of flight, what is the minimum prescribed altitude for operating an aircraft under IFR in non-mountainous areas?

A

At least 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the centerline of the intended course.

42
Q

If no MEA is published for your route of flight, what is the minimum prescribed altitude for operating an aircraft under IFR in mountainous areas?

A

At least 2,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the centerline of the intended course.

43
Q

May you operate below the published MEA for your route? If so, when?

A

Yes, with ATC authorization, down to the MOCA when within 22 NM of the VOR.

44
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A block of ___________ assigned to the pilot from the ____________ IFR altitude up to and including the _____________ altitude.

A

A block of airspace assigned to the pilot from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude.

45
Q

Are you required to accept a STAR if one is assigned by ATC?

A

No, pilots may refuse a STAR when issued as part of a clearance.

46
Q

How can you avoid being assigned a STAR?

A

Include the notation “no STAR” in the remarks section of your flight plan.

47
Q

What is the purpose of a STAR?

A

To simplify clearance delivery procedures when deemed appropriate by ATC.

48
Q

What must you possess to accept a STAR?

A

At least a textual description of the procedure.

49
Q

What is the difference between a visual approach and a contact approach?

A

A visual approach can be assigned by ATC, while a contact approach must be requested by the pilot.

50
Q

Can a contact approach be assigned by ATC?

A

No, a contact approach must be requested by the pilot.

51
Q

What are the four segments of an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?

A

Initial approach segment, Intermediate approach segment, Final approach segment, Missed approach segment.

52
Q

What is a feeder route?

A

Routes that may be used to proceed from the en route structure to the Initial Approach Fix (IAF).

53
Q

What is an initial approach fix (IAF)?

A

A set point where a particular approach begins, with possibly several IAFs for one approach.

54
Q

What is a final approach fix (FAF)?

A

The point where the aircraft should be configured to land; on a precision approach, it’s the glide slope intercept point.

55
Q

What is the difference between a final approach fix (FAF) and a final approach point?

A

FAF is a specific fix for descent to MDA; final approach point is on a VOR or NDB IAP with no depicted FAF, defined by completion of the procedure turn inbound.

56
Q

What transponder code is appropriate for an aircraft that has lost radio communication?

A

7600

57
Q

What report must be made to ATC if a navigation or communication radio fails?

A

Aircraft I.D., equipment affected, degree of impairment under IFR, and assistance needed from ATC.

58
Q

What are the procedures for dealing with a loss of radio communications in IMC?

A

Follow the assigned route or the direct route from the last clearance; fly the highest of the last assigned altitude, minimum IFR altitude, or expected altitude.

59
Q

What are the procedures for dealing with a loss of radio communications on an instrument flight plan in VMC?

A

Continue under VFR and land as soon as practicable to notify ATC.