AREA OF OPERATION V: NAVIGATION SYSTEMS Flashcards
What is a waypoint?
A ___________ ___________ determined by a ____________ and _______________ from a ___________/____________ or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.
A geographical position determined by a radial and distance from a VOR/DME or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.
How do you intercept a particular VOR radial?
Twist the ____________ to the radial, note _____________ deflection, ____________ toward the needle, and ____________ the needle.
Twist the OBS to the radial, note needle deflection, turn toward the needle, and center the needle.
What is bracketing in navigation?
A method to determine the correct ____________ to fly to track a course with a ____________, using trial and error.
A method to determine the correct heading to fly to track a course with a crosswind, using trial and error.
What is the operational difference between a VOR, VOR/DME, and VORTAC?
VORTACs and VOR/DME provide ____________ and ____________ information, while VORs provide only ____________.
VORTACs and VOR/DME provide azimuth and range information, while VORs provide only azimuth.
The azimuth is the angle formed between a reference direction
How do you determine your radial relative to a VOR using a VOR indicator or HSI?
Center the CDI needle with a ____________ indication and read the radial under the top index.
Center the CDI needle with a FROM indication and read the radial under the top index.
How do you determine your radial relative to a VOR using an RMI?
Center the *__________ __________ needle and read the radial under the heading.
Center the magnetic bearing needle and read the radial under the heading.
How do you identify an intersection of two VOR radials?
Use two VOR receivers, tune each to a different station, and center both needles.
How do you identify an intersection of a VOR radial and an NDB bearing?
Center the CDI needle on the radial and ensure the ADF needle points to the correct bearing.
What is the difference between homing and tracking?
Tracking corrects for ____________ ____________, while homing keeps the ____________ pointed at the station, resulting in a curved path.
Tracking corrects for wind drift, while homing keeps the nose pointed at the station, resulting in a curved path.
How do you intercept a particular NDB bearing?
- Turn to the ___________ heading of the bearing,
- Establish an ___________ angle,
- Turn ____________ when the bearing is indicated.
- Turn to the magnetic heading of the bearing, 2. Establish an intercept angle,
- Turn inbound when the bearing is indicated.
How do you verify that a navigational facility is the correct one and operational?
Monitor the Morse code identifier for the facility shown on the chart.
How do you identify station passage using a VOR?
The TO/FROM flag changes indication.
How do you identify station passage using an ADF?
The ADF needle turns 180° indicating the station is behind you.
What documents must be aboard an aircraft when it is being operated?
Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station license, Registration Certificate, Operating limitations, and Weight and balance data (ARROW).
What information is included in an IFR departure clearance (CRAFT)?
Cleared to, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code.
How can you obtain your departure clearance at a controlled field?
On the clearance delivery frequency in Class B/C airspace, or on ground control/tower frequency in Class D/E/G airspace with an operating tower.
How can you obtain a departure clearance at an uncontrolled field?
By contacting the nearest FSS by telephone or radio before takeoff.
What does “cleared as filed” mean in a departure clearance?
The route of flight listed on your flight plan can be issued with little or no revision.
Are you required to accept a departure procedure (DP) if one is assigned by ATC?
No, pilots may refuse a DP when issued as part of a clearance.
How can you avoid being assigned a DP?
Include the notation “No DP” in the remarks section of your flight plan.
What is the purpose of DPs?
To simplify clearance delivery procedures when deemed appropriate by ATC.
What must you possess to accept a DP?
At least a textual description of the procedure.
What is the standard minimum climb gradient for a DP?
At least 200 feet per nautical mile unless specified otherwise.
Are there takeoff minimums for operations under Part 91?
No, except when nonstandard takeoff minimums apply as noted on the approach chart.
What is a good self-imposed policy for minimum takeoff conditions?
Using the minimums for the illustrated approach at the departure airport for safe return in case of emergency.
What is wake turbulence and under what conditions is it strongest?
Violent disruption of air as an object passes through; strongest when the aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
Where should you plan to lift off when departing behind a large aircraft that has just landed on the same runway?
Depart beyond the point where the large aircraft’s nose wheel touched down.
Where should you plan to depart when taking off behind a large aircraft that has just taken off on the same runway?
Depart prior to the large aircraft’s departure point and stay above its flight path.
What is an ILS critical area?
An area where ___________ aircraft can cause ____________ interference with localizer/glide slope ____________.
An area where ground aircraft can cause signal interference with localizer/glide slope transmitters.
How can you avoid being inside an ILS critical area during ground operations?
Stop and wait at taxiway markings indicating the ILS critical area, marked by parallel yellow lines with short parallel bars.
Describe runway hold-short lines and signs.
Four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, with solid lines on the hold side; signs have a red background with white numbers identifying the runways.
What color are runway lights?
Runway Edge Lights:
White: Typically used along the ___________ of the runway.
Yellow: On ___________ runways, yellow replaces white on the last ____________ feet to indicate a caution zone.
Runway Centerline Lights:
White: Used along the centerline of the runway.
Alternating Red and White: For the last ___________ feet of the runway.
Red: For the last ____________ feet of the runway.
Runway Edge Lights:
White: Typically used along the edges of the runway.
Yellow: On instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet to indicate a caution zone.
Runway Centerline Lights:
White: Used along the centerline of the runway.
Alternating Red and White: For the last 3,000 feet of the runway.
Red: For the last 1,000 feet of the runway.
What special signs are visible on the runway?
Runway distance remaining signs, indicating the remaining runway distance in thousands of feet.
Who is responsible for maintaining separation between your aircraft and other traffic in VFR conditions?
The pilot in command is responsible to see and avoid other aircraft.
What is a minimum en route altitude (MEA)?
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
What is a minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA)?
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airways, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures navigational signal coverage within 25 SM of a VOR.
What is a minimum reception altitude (MRA)?
The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.
What information is found on en route low altitude charts?
Airways, limit of controlled airspace, VHF radio aids to navigation, airports with IAP or minimum 3,000 ft hard surface runway, OROCAs, reporting points, special-use airspace, and MTRs.
What is a changeover point (COP)?
A point along the route or airway segment between ____________ or waypoints where _____________ in navigation guidance should occur.
A point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigation facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigation guidance should occur.
How is a changeover point depicted on en route charts?
By a roughly “S”-shaped symbol with a long line perpendicular to the route segments and two shorter parallel lines extending from either end, with distances shown above and below the shorter lines.
If no MEA is published for your route of flight, what is the minimum prescribed altitude for operating an aircraft under IFR in non-mountainous areas?
At least 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the centerline of the intended course.
If no MEA is published for your route of flight, what is the minimum prescribed altitude for operating an aircraft under IFR in mountainous areas?
At least 2,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the centerline of the intended course.
May you operate below the published MEA for your route? If so, when?
Yes, with ATC authorization, down to the MOCA when within 22 NM of the VOR.
What is a cruise clearance?
A block of ___________ assigned to the pilot from the ____________ IFR altitude up to and including the _____________ altitude.
A block of airspace assigned to the pilot from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude.
Are you required to accept a STAR if one is assigned by ATC?
No, pilots may refuse a STAR when issued as part of a clearance.
How can you avoid being assigned a STAR?
Include the notation “no STAR” in the remarks section of your flight plan.
What is the purpose of a STAR?
To simplify clearance delivery procedures when deemed appropriate by ATC.
What must you possess to accept a STAR?
At least a textual description of the procedure.
What is the difference between a visual approach and a contact approach?
A visual approach can be assigned by ATC, while a contact approach must be requested by the pilot.
Can a contact approach be assigned by ATC?
No, a contact approach must be requested by the pilot.
What are the four segments of an instrument approach procedure (IAP)?
Initial approach segment, Intermediate approach segment, Final approach segment, Missed approach segment.
What is a feeder route?
Routes that may be used to proceed from the en route structure to the Initial Approach Fix (IAF).
What is an initial approach fix (IAF)?
A set point where a particular approach begins, with possibly several IAFs for one approach.
What is a final approach fix (FAF)?
The point where the aircraft should be configured to land; on a precision approach, it’s the glide slope intercept point.
What is the difference between a final approach fix (FAF) and a final approach point?
FAF is a specific fix for descent to MDA; final approach point is on a VOR or NDB IAP with no depicted FAF, defined by completion of the procedure turn inbound.
What transponder code is appropriate for an aircraft that has lost radio communication?
7600
What report must be made to ATC if a navigation or communication radio fails?
Aircraft I.D., equipment affected, degree of impairment under IFR, and assistance needed from ATC.
What are the procedures for dealing with a loss of radio communications in IMC?
Follow the assigned route or the direct route from the last clearance; fly the highest of the last assigned altitude, minimum IFR altitude, or expected altitude.
What are the procedures for dealing with a loss of radio communications on an instrument flight plan in VMC?
Continue under VFR and land as soon as practicable to notify ATC.
