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Instrument > AREA OF OPERATION III:AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL CLEARANCES AND PROCEDURES > Flashcards

AREA OF OPERATION III:AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL CLEARANCES AND PROCEDURES Flashcards

1
Q

What is a composite flight plan?

A

A flight plan for flights conducted under both IFR and VFR conditions.

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2
Q

Which altitude should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan with multiple planned altitudes?

A

The initial altitude requested.

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3
Q

What should the time entered in block 10 of an IFR flight plan be based on?

A

The established arrival time at the first intended landing.

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4
Q

On what criteria should cruising altitude be selected for an IFR flight in Class G airspace?

A

Based on published MOCA, MEA, and the magnetic course.

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5
Q

How can you determine the amount of fuel used for a flight?

Multiply the ____________ consumption rate by the ____________ duration.

A

Multiply the fuel consumption rate by the flight duration.

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6
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements for flight under IFR without an alternate airport?

A

Enough fuel to reach the destination and fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

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7
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements for flight under IFR with an alternate airport?

A

Enough fuel to reach the destination, fly to the alternate, and fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

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8
Q

When is an IFR clearance required?

When operating in _____________ airspace under IFR, according to 14 CFR 91._____.

A

When operating in controlled airspace under IFR, according to 14 CFR 91.173.

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9
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class B airspace?

A

3 SM visibility, clear of clouds.

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10
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class C airspace?

A

3 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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11
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class D airspace?

A

3 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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12
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL?

A

3 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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13
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class E airspace at or above 10,000 ft. MSL?

A

5 SM visibility; 1,000 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 1 SM horizontal.

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14
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class G airspace at or below 1,200 ft. AGL during the day?

A

1 SM visibility, clear of clouds.

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15
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class G airspace at or below 1,200 ft. AGL at night?

A

3 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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16
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class G airspace above 1,200 ft. AGL but below 10,000 ft. MSL during the day?

A

1 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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17
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class G airspace above 1,200 ft. AGL but below 10,000 ft. MSL at night?

A

3 SM visibility; 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 2,000 ft. horizontal.

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18
Q

What are the basic VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums for Class G airspace at or above 10,000 ft. MSL?

A

5 SM visibility; 1,000 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, 1 SM horizontal.

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19
Q

What are the special VFR minimums?

A

1 SM visibility, clear of clouds, with an ATC clearance.

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20
Q

May you operate under special VFR at night?

A

Only if the pilot is instrument-rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.

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21
Q

What is the significance of a clearance void time?

A

You must be airborne by the specified time to avoid violating IFR separation rules.

22
Q

When transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan, when must you cancel the VFR portion?

A

When contacting the nearest FSS to request an IFR clearance.

23
Q

Under what conditions may you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

In case of an emergency
TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance) resolution advisory,
or with an amended clearance.

24
Q

Is a VFR-on-top clearance a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance?

A

It is an IFR clearance requiring VFR conditions.

25
Q

When operating with a VFR-on-top clearance, do VFR or IFR rules apply?

A

Both VFR and IFR rules apply.

26
Q

How should you select your cruising altitude when operating with a VFR-on-top clearance?

A

Comply with appropriate VFR cruising altitudes.

27
Q

Can your altitude be below the minimum IFR altitude when flying VFR-on-top?

A

No, it must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude.

28
Q

Are VFR-on-top operations allowed in Class A airspace?

A

No, they are prohibited.

29
Q

Describe the components of a holding pattern.

Happy Individuals Organize Holding Navigations For Needs

Happy = ___________ Fix
Individuals = _____________ Leg
Organize = ____________ Leg
Holding = Holding Side
Navigations = Non-Holding Side
For = ____________ End
Needs = Non-____________ End

A

Holding fix, inbound leg, outbound leg, holding side, non-holding side, fix end, non-fix end.

30
Q

Which direction are turns made in a standard holding pattern?

A

Turns to the right.

31
Q

Which direction are turns made in a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

Turns to the left.

32
Q

What are the speed limits for holding patterns at different altitudes?

A

MHA-6,000 ft.: 200 kt; 6,001-14,000 ft.: 230 kt; 14,001 ft. and above: 265 kt.

33
Q

How many holding pattern entries are there?

A

Three.

34
Q

Describe a teardrop entry for a holding pattern.

Turn ___________ to a heading ___° off the outbound leg for __ minute, then turn to intercept the ___________ course.

A

Turn outbound to a heading 30° off the outbound leg for 1 minute, then turn to intercept the inbound course.

35
Q

Describe a parallel entry for a holding pattern.

Turn to __________ the ___________ leg for __ minute, then turn opposite the pattern direction to intercept the inbound course.

A

Turn to parallel the outbound leg for 1 minute, then turn opposite the pattern direction to intercept the inbound course.

36
Q

Describe a direct entry for a holding pattern.

Turn to the ___________ heading immediately after crossing the ______________ fix.

A

Turn to the outbound heading immediately after crossing the holding fix.

37
Q

When should speed reductions be initiated for entering a holding pattern?

When ____ minutes or less from the holding fix.

A

When 3 minutes or less from the holding fix.

38
Q

Is it mandatory to use a specific hold entry when entering a holding pattern?

A

No, any method can be used as long as the protected airspace is maintained.

39
Q

What is the most common hold entry to make?

A

The direct entry.

40
Q

What is the least common hold entry?

A

The teardrop entry.

41
Q

How much wind correction should you apply on the outbound leg if you had 5° correction on the inbound leg?

____________ the inbound correction, so ___° for the outbound leg.

A

Triple the inbound correction, so 15° for the outbound leg.

42
Q

How should you adjust the timing of the outbound leg to ensure the inbound leg is correct?

Adjust the outbound time by double the ____________ of the inbound leg from __ minute.

A

Adjust the outbound time by double the deviation of the inbound leg from 1 minute.

43
Q

Under what conditions may timed approaches from a holding fix be conducted?

A

When a control tower is in operation, communication is maintained with ATC, and specific approach criteria are met.

44
Q

What is a minimum safe/sector altitude (MSA)?

A

An altitude guaranteeing obstacle clearance but not navigational coverage.

45
Q

On what ground object is a minimum safe/sector altitude (MSA) normally based?

The primary ____________ on which the approach is predicated (VOR, NDB).

A

The primary facility on which the approach is predicated (VOR, NDB).

46
Q

What are the normal dimensions of the area in which an MSA is applicable?

A

Within a radius of 25 NM.

47
Q

At what rate does ATC expect climbs and descents to be made unless otherwise authorized?

A

At the optimum rate until 1,000 ft. from the assigned altitude, then 500-1,500 fpm.

48
Q

How many feet before the desired altitude should you lead the level-off during a climb?

A

Use 10% of your rate of climb as a lead factor.

49
Q

What does it mean when you are cleared to climb “at pilot’s discretion”?

A

You may start the climb at any time and use any rate of climb.

50
Q

What is the aircraft speed limit below 10,000 ft. MSL?

A

250 kt indicated airspeed.

51
Q

What is the significance of primary vs. supporting instruments in attitude instrument flying?

A

Primary instruments provide the most useful information for pitch, bank, and power parameters.

Instrument (10 decks)

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