AREA OF OPERATION IV: FLIGHT BY REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS Flashcards

1
Q

At what rate does ATC expect you to descend unless otherwise authorized?

A

Optimum rate until within 1,000 ft of assigned altitude, then 500-1,500 fpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does “descend at pilot’s discretion” mean?

A

Begin descending when desired and use any rate of descent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you determine when to begin level-off from a descent?

Lead the level-off by __________% of the rate of descent.

A

**Lead the level-off by 10% of the rate of descent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a procedure turn?

A

A course reversal maneuver to establish the aircraft inbound on an approach course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of a procedure turn?

To establish the aircraft ____________ on the approach course by means of a ____________ reversal.

A

To establish the aircraft inbound on the approach course by means of a course reversal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the “NoPT” symbol on an IAP chart indicate?

A

A procedure turn is neither required nor listed for that section of the IAP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can you descend to the MEA of the approach segment after being cleared for an approach?

A

Yes, unless instructed otherwise by ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the significance of different aircraft approach categories?

Approach categories are based on final approach ___________ (1.3 Vso) and determine approach minimums.

A

Approach categories are based on final approach speeds (1.3 Vso) and determine approach minimums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On what criterion is an aircraft’s approach category based?

A

Final approach speed (1.3 Vso).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is an aircraft’s approach speed determined?

A

By the speed at which the approach will actually be flown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a Category A aircraft flies an approach at Category B speed, which approach minimums apply?

A

Use the minimums for the higher approach category.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some situations that might lead to an inadvertent unusual attitude in flight?

A

Turbulence, instrument failure, pilot disorientation, distraction, preoccupation with tasks, or a casual attitude toward flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a nose-low attitude with a 30° bank, what are the first steps in the recovery procedure?

A

Reduce power, level the wings, then raise the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a nose-high unusual attitude, what are the first steps of recovery?

A

Increase power, lower the nose, then level the wings and re-establish level flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can proper trim techniques help prevent unusual attitudes?

A

By lowering the pilot’s workload and preventing large control inputs or loss of control due to fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When recovering from unusual attitudes by reference to instruments, what is a special concern?

A

Cross-checking instrumentation to avoid making control inputs based on a single potentially faulty instrument.