APS Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What methods of identification can be used when using PSR?

A

The turn method, Departing aircraft method and position report method.

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2
Q

How do you identify aircraft using the turn method?

A

An aircraft may be identified by ascertaining its heading and, following a period of track observation, correlating the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with:

  • the acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30°;
  • one or more changes of heading of at least 30°‚ as instructed by another controller;
  • one or more changes of heading of at least 30° reported by the pilot.

A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service. However, controllers should take into consideration, terrain, other surveillance returns, PSR coverage and the RoA before instructing an aircraft to alter heading.

In using the turn method the controller shall:

(1) verify that the movements of not more than one Position Indication correspond with those of the aircraft;
(2) exercise caution particularly when employing this method in areas where changes of aircraft heading are commonly made as a navigational routine.

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3
Q

How do you identify aircraft using the departing aircraft method?

A

By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA. Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome.

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4
Q

How do you identify aircraft using the position report method?

A

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:

(1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co- located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
(3) over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that

the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.

The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.

This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:

(1) the close proximity of other returns; or
(2) inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.

A pilot is to be informed as soon as his aircraft has been identified. When operating inside controlled airspace, the pilot of an aircraft need only be so informed if the identification is achieved by the turn method.

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5
Q

How do you identify an aircraft using SSR?

A

When using Mode A to identify aircraft, one of the following methods is to be employed:

(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code;
(2) Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;
(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.

Caution must be exercised when employing this method because simultaneous requests for SPI transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification.

Aircraft displaying the conspicuity code 7000 are not to be identified by this method.

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6
Q

When do you inform pilots of their identification and pass position information?

A

A pilot is to be informed assoon as his aircraft has been identified. When operating inside controled airspace, the pilot of an aircraft need only be so informed if the identification is achieved by the turn method.

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7
Q

When using mode C, when is an aircraft considered to be at an assigned level?

A

An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200ft or less from that level.

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8
Q

Using Mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have left a level?

A

An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.

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9
Q

What is the definition of a basic service?

A

Basic Service is a type of UK FIS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

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10
Q

What is the definition of a traffic service?

A

Traffic Service is a surveillance-based type of UK FIS where, in addition to the provisions of Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic. Controllers may provide headings and/or levels for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing; however, the controller is not required to achieve deconfliction minima, and the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance.

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11
Q

Under a traffic service what is normally to be considered to be relevant traffic?

A

Traffic is normally considered to be relevant when, in the judgement of the controller, the conflicting aircraft’s observed trajectory indicates that it will pass within 3 NM and, where level information is available, 3,000 ft of the aircraft in receipt of the Traffic Service or its level-band if manoeuvring within a level block. However, controllers may also use their judgment to decide on occasions when such traffic is not relevant, e.g. passing behind or within the parameters but diverging. Controllers shall aim to pass information on relevant traffic before the conflicting aircraft is within 5 NM, in order to help the pilot meet his collision avoidance responsibilities and to allow time for an update in traffic information if considered necessary.

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12
Q

Can you provide a traffic service below the terrain safe level?

A

Subject to surveillance system coverage, Traffic Service may be provided below ATC unit terrain safe levels; however, pilots remain responsible for terrain clearance at all times. Other than when following a notified instrument flight procedure, pilots intending to descend below the ATC unit terrain safe level shall be reminded by controllers that they remain responsible for terrain clearance.

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13
Q

What is the definition of a deconfliction service?

A

Deconfliction Service is a surveillance-based type of UK FIS where, in addition to the provisions of Basic Service, the controller provides specific surveillance-derived traffic information and allocates headings and/or levels to fly aimed at achieving planned deconfliction minima, or for positioning and/or sequencing. Nevertheless, the avoidance of other traffic remains the pilot’s responsibility.

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14
Q

What are the deconfliction minima against uncoordinated traffic when providing a deconfliction service?

A

The deconfliction minima against unco-ordinated traffic are:

(1) 5 NM laterally (subject to surveillance capability and regulatory approval); or
(2) 3,000 ft vertically and, unless the SSR code indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge. (Note: Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code. The Mode C data of aircraft transponding code 0000 is not to be utilised in assessing deconfliction minima).

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15
Q

Can you provide a deconfliction service below the terrain safe level?

A

Deconfliction Service shall only be provided to aircraft operating at or above the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, other than when a controller at an Approach Control unit provides an ATS to aircraft on departure from an aerodrome and climbing to the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, or to aircraft following notified instrument approach procedures. In all other circumstances, if a pilot requests descent below ATC unit terrain safe levels, controllers shall discontinue Deconfliction Service and, subject to surveillance and RTF coverage, apply Traffic Service and inform the pilot.

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16
Q

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

A

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that he can maintain visual reference to the surface and:

(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.
12. 2 Controllers should not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800 m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800 m, controllers should inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

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17
Q

To what range should APS normally provide a RADAR service from Cambridge?

A

40NM

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18
Q

When shall APS transmit IRVR to aircraft?

A

(1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1500 metres;
(2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system;
(3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast.

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19
Q

When can an aircraft be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

A

An aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft provided that:

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level.

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20
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:

(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

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21
Q

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of an aerodrome which you can utilise as the APS ATCO?

A

As the APS ATCO, in the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:

(1) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(2) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

As an APS ATCO you can also ask the Aerodrome ATCO to assist with reduced separation in the vicinity of the aerodrome and release the aircraft RSYD subject to “adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller.”

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22
Q

Describe in detail co-ordination what ADI shall co-ordinate with APP/ APS

A

1. MATS Pt 1 –

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with Approach Control:

(1) departing IFR flights;
(2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control).

MATS pt 2.

ADI shall co-ordinate with Approach control;

1) Pre-note and airborne time for Turboprop and Turbojet aircraft.
2) Airborne time to be passed for any aircraft given a dedicated squawk code from APS
3) Airborne time to be passed for any aircraft departing when VFR restrictions are in force. If APP also pass the direction of departure and whether the aircraft has been restricted.
4) When an aircraft is departing via the overhead above 2000ft
5) When the 1,600ft circuit or higher is active
6) When requiring to enter the ILS critical area when an ILS aircraft has been notified as inbound for runway 23.

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23
Q

Describe in detail co-ordination what APS shall co-ordinate with ADI

A

MATS 1

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control:

(1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;

arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points;

aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit.

Approach Control may delegate the responsibility for co-ordination to Approach Radar Control.

MATS 2

Aircraft being vectored for an instrument approach and aircraft which are identified and are being monitored making a procedural approach;

1) APS or RADAR ATSA will inform ADI when an aircraft first becomes active.
2) APS shall inform ADI when the aircraft is approximately 12 track miles from touchdown, before intercepting the FAT.
3) APS shall also inform ADI of the intentions of the aircraft before transferring control.
4) Where control is not transferred (subject to ADI agreement), ADI and APS will co-ordinate closely.
5) All IFR aircraft requiring a visual approach shall be co-ordinated with ADI on an individual basis for joining instructions.

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24
Q

Define the transition level

A

Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition
altitude and shall be located at least a nominal 1,000 ft above the transition altitude
to permit the transition altitude and the transition level to be used concurrently in
cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured. Except where an alternative means
of calculating the transition level is detailed within local instructions, the transition
level may be determined as follows:
(1) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority, where it will normally be
based on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
(2) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator, where it will be
based on the aerodrome QNH.

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25
Q

Define Transition Altitude

A

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used). Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3000 feet.

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26
Q

Define transition layer

A

Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1000 ft.

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27
Q

Can APS provide a Procedural Service to an aircraft at 1,600ft QNH?

A

Yes, a Procedural Service is available at all levels and the pilot remains wholly responsible for terrain clearance at all times. However, if a pilot wishes to operate below ATC unit terrain safe levels, unless on departure from an aerodrome when climbing to the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, or when following notified instrument approach procedures, controllers shall advise the pilot of the terrain safe level and remind him of his terrain responsibilities.

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28
Q

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

A

Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;

(b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
(c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested

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29
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A
  1. To prevent collisions between aircraft.
  2. To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.
  3. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
  4. To provide adivce and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.
  5. To notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required.
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30
Q

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher in class G airspace?

A

Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km.

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31
Q

What are the visual flight rules below FL100, and above 3000ft AMSL or below FL100 and above 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in Class G airspace?

A

Horizontal distance from cloud 1500 M and 1000ft vertically with a flight visibility of 5KM.

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32
Q

What procedures shall be followed in the event of a failure or navigation lights of an aircraft?

A

The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced. If the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

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33
Q

From what point does intermediate wake turbulence apply?

A

From the point of first identification inside or outside CAS, to the beginning of final approach

34
Q

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present.

A

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning. Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot looks for conflicting aircraft visually. Does NOT manoeuvre. Typically 45 seconds before the assumed collision.

35
Q

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

A

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning. Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight path as soon as it is safe to do so. Typically 30 seconds before the assumed collision.

36
Q

If only PSR is available what methods may a controller use to transfer the identity of an aircraft to another controller?

A

If only PSR is available, a controller may transfer the identity of an aircraft to another controller by any of the following methods:

Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used. If the information on two situation displays is derived from separate PSR heads (or beams, if using a stack beam system) the transferring controller must ensure that the blips on both displays correlate before using this method. If parallax is likely to cause an error, an alternative method is to be used;

Designation of the Position Indication in terms of a direction and distance from a common reference point (geographical position or navigational facility) accurately indicated on both displays. The Position Indication, as seen by the accepting controller, must be within 3 miles of the position stated. The distance between the aircraft and the reference point must not exceed:

(a) 30 miles, if the aircraft is flying along a published ATS route or direction is given as a bearing in degrees;
(b) 15 miles in other circumstances.

Designation of the Position Indication by positioning an electronic marker or symbol so that only one Position Indication is thereby indicated and there is no possible doubt of correct identification.

37
Q

What impact on APS provision does clutter on the situational display have?

A

Clutter on the situation display has the potential to impact on ATS provision in the following ways:

Increased risk of the controller not detecting conflicting traffic.

Aircraft position symbols, track histories, data blocks may be hidden or obscured.

Spurious track(s) may be generated, which may be indistinguishable from genuine aircraft returns.

There may be in delay in aircraft being identified and placed under an ATS. Increased controller workload.

The impacts listed above are likely to affect the degree, accuracy and timeliness of the instructions, advice, and information that controllers are able to provide to pilots, with consequent impacts on safety and expedition. Additionally, the existence of clutter may necessitate aircraft being rerouted, or air traffic services reduced below the level requested by the pilot.

38
Q

What actions would the APS ATCO take when operating outside controlled airspace in the event of clutter being present on the situational display?

A

Outside Controlled Airspace

In the event of clutter being present on the situational display controllers should consider the nature and extent of the clutter and if necessary take the following actions:

For aircraft in receipt of a Deconfliction Service or Traffic Service, controllers should inform the pilot of the extent of the clutter and where practicable offer a reroute. However, this may not be possible due to traffic density, airspace availability and/or the requirement to follow specific arrival or departure tracks. The extent of such a reroute should where possible aim to achieve the planned lateral deconfliction minima from the observed clutter. However, it may still be necessary to reduce traffic information, and if applicable deconfliction advice, from the direction of the clutter as detailed at Section 1 Chapter 12.

For aircraft in receipt of a Traffic Service, and those aircraft under a Deconfliction Service that are not rerouted as above, controllers shall inform pilots of a reduction in traffic information/deconfliction advice as detailed at Section 1, Chapter 12. If the controller cannot maintain aircraft identity, the service shall be terminated.

For all surveillance services, in order to maintain track identity of aircraft being vectored to final approach, if re-routing around the clutter is not practicable for the reasons specified above, an alternative type of approach may need to be conducted.

39
Q

When may approach control/APS instruct IFR flights to establish comms with Aerodrome Control?

A

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

40
Q

When shall an aircraft be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft shall be instructed to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:

(1) On instructions from Approach/Aerodrome Control;
(2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 miles from touchdown (or such other range agreed with Aerodrome Control);
(3) When it appears to be dangerously positioned on final approach

41
Q

When shall an aircraft be advised to carry out a missed approach?

A

An aircraft is to be advised to carry out a missed approach in any of the following circumstances:

(1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed;
(2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last two miles of the approach;
(3) If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach

42
Q

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary, and full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft?

A

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action

If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes:

(1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue;
(2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means;
(3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Full Overdue Action

If, after the action above, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

43
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

A

D

44
Q

What is the frequency for Stansted Director?

A

136.2

45
Q

What is the frequency for Essex Radar?

A

120.625

46
Q

What is the frequency for Lakenheath Approach?

A

128.9

47
Q

What is the frequency for Duxford Information?

A

122.080

48
Q

What is the frequency for Luton Radar?

A

129.550

49
Q

What is the frequency for Cranfield Approach?

A

122.855

50
Q

What is the frequency for Farnborough LARS north?

A

132.8

51
Q

What is the frequency for Wattisham approach?

A

125.8

52
Q

What is the transition altitude at EGSC and why?

A

6000ft due to the proximity to the London TMA

53
Q

What PDR’s do we have at Cambridge?

A

Standard ADNAM, EBOTO, CAM1M, CAM2M

54
Q

What precision approaches are available at Cambridge?

A

ILS

55
Q

What non-precision approaches are available at Cambridge?

A

ILS Localiser Only, SRA, RNAV, NDB

56
Q

In what RPS is Cambridge situated and which RPS is to the N, E and W?

A

Cambridge is in Chatham

N= Barnsley

E= Yarmouth

W= Cotswolds

57
Q

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

A
  1. Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
    (b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
    (c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.
58
Q

What is the DOC of the CAM NDB?

A

15NM

59
Q

What is the standard missed approach for Runway 23 and why is it not used?

A

Straight ahead to Altitude 2000ft, on reaching turn left to the CAM. Not used due to the proximity of the Duxford ATZ.

60
Q

What is the standard missed approach for runway 05?

A

Straight ahead to 1600ft then a climbing right turn to the CAM to altitude 2000ft.

61
Q

What is the name of the windfarm to the east of Cambridge?

A

Wadlow Farm

62
Q

Describe in detail the Lakenheath LOA

A

RAPCON shall notify Cambridge ATC of the following:

  1. Aircraft inbound to Cambridge requesting an instrument approach. Cambridge ATC shall issue an appropriate altitude and applicable restrictions. Transfer communications and control as soon as Lakenheath traffic conditions permit.
  2. 48th Fighter wing aircraft are executing patterns/finals to RAF Lakenheath Runway 06.
  3. On request, aircraft departing RAF Mildenhall Runway 29 and 3000’.
  4. Any known Military Air Traffic Zone (MATZ) traffic which will cross Cambridge Runway 23 final approach course between Cambridge Airport and the MATZ below 3000ft AMSL.

Cambridge ATC shall notify RAPCON of the following:

  1. Holding pattern activated/deactivated along with altitude.
  2. Aircraft requesting an instrument departure from Runway 05 turning North or Aircraft conducting a missed approach off of Runway 05 at Cambridge and climbing above 2000ft AMSL.
  3. If Cambridge ATC requires RAPCON to adjust altitudes to aircraft in the LKH pattern for IFR arrival and/or departure into Cambridge Airport.
  4. Aircraft executing instrument approaches to Runway 23. Co-ordination regarding simultaneous arrival traffic may be required to provide appropriate radar service separation minima.

In the event of a radar failure in either facility, co-ordination will be accomplished to notify the other facility and to affect co-ordination on an as needed basis

In the event of communication failure of the primary landline, alternate communications shall be established using the commercial telephone.

63
Q

How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?

A

72

64
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non precision approach?

A

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

65
Q

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

A

5-10nm radius centered on the center of the aerodrome, to a specified height from the ground,

Established for 15 mins prior to the ETA of the aircraft until 30 mins after the ETA

66
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation criteria between an arriving S and L? LM and L? H and L?

A

S and L= 4NM

LM and L= 5NM

H and L= 7NM

67
Q

What is the Cambridge Squawk Allocation?

A

6160-6177. 6176 VFR conspicuity, 6177 IFR conspicuity.

68
Q

Where DME is unavailable, at what range do RADAR provide a range check to the aircraft prior to transferring to tower?

A

4NM.

69
Q

What are the terrain safe levels in each sector out to 25NM from Cambridge?

A

2000ft to the West and 1800ft to the East

70
Q

What levels are the IAF at TIPGO, SC23I IF and SC23F FAF for the RNAV runway 23?

A

IAF TIPGO not below 3000ft,

SC23I IF not below 2000ft,

SC23F FAF at 1700ft

71
Q

What is the outbound track for a CAT A aircraft for the ILS/DME/NDB runway 23?

A

059 degrees

72
Q

What is the max holding speed at the CAM?

A

210 KTS

73
Q

To what level do Gransden Lodge Gliding site launch?

A

3300ft

74
Q

What document contains the SRATCOH regulations?

A

CAP 670

75
Q

What is the conspicuity squawk for an aircraft conducting aerobatics, Pipeline, Helimed, military low level?

A

Aerobatics 7004,

Pipeline 0036,

Cambridge based Helimed 0020 other helimed squawk codes are also in use,

Military low level 7001

76
Q

What directions are the runways at the following airfields?

Stansted, Luton, Mildenhall, Lakenheath, Duxford

A

Stansted 04/22,

Luton 07/25,

Mildenhall 10/28,

Lakenheath 06/24,

Duxford 06/24.

77
Q

What services can you provide as a RADAR ATCO?

A

Basic service

Procedural service

Traffic service

Deconfliction service

78
Q

What are the range and levels where you can provide a Deconfliction Service?

A

A D/S will not be provided outside the Radar Vectoring area within 25NM below 2000ft.

Beyond 25NM and within the displayed range of 30NM a D/S will be refused or terminated slow 2500ft.

79
Q

How does Wadlow farm affect the provision of RADAR services?

A

The wind- farm has the potential to create the following impacts on the ATS provided:

A- increased risk of the controller not detecting conflicting traffic

B- aircraft position symbols, tracks histories may be hidden or obscured

C- spurious tracks may be generated which may be indistinguishable from genuine aircraft

D- there may be a delay in aircraft being identified and placed under a service

E- increased controller workload.

Aircraft being provided with a Surveillance Service in a sector 360 degrees to 180 degrees within 10nm of Cambridge will be advised that the traffic information being provided is reduced as they are operating within an area affected by display clutter.

80
Q

In the event of primary failure, what are your actions? Can you continue to use SSR only?

A

Tels should be informed.

Immediately after PSR failure SSR may be used for the minimum time necessary to establish procedural separation.

Services normally provided using radar may be resumed when Tels inform that PSR is serviceable. Aircraft on frequency and under a service will need to be re-identified

81
Q

Describe in detail VFR restricted from an APS point of view

A

Once the CAM is active the ADI ATCO shall be informed “VFR restricted”. For each local departure the APS ATCO should receive an airborne time from Tower. This known time can be used to identify an aircraft by observing and correlating the Position Indication. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway. This is known as the Departing Aircraft Method.

Once the CAM is no longer active VFR Restricted can be removed.

82
Q

State the types of flight priorities as laid down in MATS pt 1 and how they might affect the way the ADI controller might tactically manage a situation where aircraft of a different priority may be on frequency.

A

A= Aircraft in Emergency
Aircraft which have declared a police emergency
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved

B= Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons
Police flights under normal operational priority
Other flight authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights

C= Royal flights

Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

D= Flights carrying the;

1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer

3) Home secretary, or
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs

Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by CAA

E= HEMS/SAR positioning flights
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

Normal flights= Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.

Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit. (RTF callsign EXAM)

Z= Training, non-standard and other flights.

A common situation at Cambridge would be Helimed departing as a CAT A and how you would tactically manage the situation around this, would other aircraft be moved or held? Probably yes but if you can do it without doing this then even better.