ADI Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

State the objectives of an Air Traffic Controller

A

Objectives of ATS

  • To prevent collisions between aircraft
  • To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  • To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
  • To provide information and advice useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight
  • Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required.

Aerodrome Controller

To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve and safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of;

  • Preventing collisions between;
    Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ
    Aircraft landing and taking off from the aerodrome
    Aircraft, vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  • Assisting in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron
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2
Q

An Aerodrome control unit provides which services?

A

A basic service

An aerodrome control service

Alerting service

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3
Q

When shall aerodrome control transfer control to approach?

A

In VMC= prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome or prior to the aircraft entering IMC

In IMC= immediately after the aircraft is airborne.

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4
Q

What is Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.

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5
Q

What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?

A
  1. Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
  2. Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not
  3. failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. Pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action.
  4. Aircraft Parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
  5. Failure or irregular operation of Approach aids
  6. Water, snow, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or apron
  7. In snow or ice conditions, information concerning Anti-icing, or de-icing liquid chemicals or other containments or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons.
  8. Information on the location and operational status of any Arrester gear.
  9. Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the aerodrome operator or bird control unit must be informed.
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6
Q

Describe the Cambridge ATZ

A

2.5 nm radius centred on the centre of rwy 23/05

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7
Q

What are the uses of the ATM at Cambridge?

A

ATM may be used to;

1) determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft;
(2) assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft;
(3) enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued;
(4) provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach. Cambridge does not have approval for advanced uses of the ATM so traffic displayed on it must be considered un-validated, un-verified and traffic information passed from the ATM must be phrased as ‘believed to be’ and ‘approximately’

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8
Q

What are the conditions for a multiple line-up?

A

1) it is during daylight hours;
2) all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller;
3) all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency;
4) pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart;
5) the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.

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9
Q

What are the conditions for a land after?

A

1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected;
(2) it is during daylight hours;
(3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway;
(4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway; and
(5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.

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10
Q

What does APS/APP co-ordinate with ADI controller?

A

1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;
2) arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points;
3) aircraft routing through the traffic circuit

In addition in MATS 2 also;

APP

1) When an IFR aircraft is Active
2) When it passes an IAF for a procedural approach OR passes 15nm from touchdown for a self positioned approach
3) When the aircraft is either localiser established, base-turn complete or FAT established for a procedural approach
4) APP shall also inform ADI of the intentions of aircraft before transferring control
5) Where transfer of control is not transferred ADI and APP will co-ordinate closely
6) All IFR aircraft requiring a visual approach shall be co-ordinated with ADI on an individual basis for joining instructions. APP shall also inform ADI of the landing order when working more than one IFR aircraft and the anticipated delay to a departing IFR aircraft along with the reason for the delay. And; any over-flight traffic at or below 2,500ft QNH within 3nm and co-ordinate traffic through the ATZ at or below 2000ft altitude.

APS

Aircraft being vectored for an instrument approach and aircraft which are identified and are being monitored making a procedural approach;

1) APS or ATSA will inform ADI when aircraft becomes active.
2) APS shall inform ADI when the aircraft is approximately 12 miles from touchdown before intercepting the FAT.
3) APS shall make ADI aware of the aircraft’s intentions before transferring control.
4) Where control is not transferred (subject to ADI agreement), ADI and APS will coordinate closely.
5) All IFR aircraft requiring a visual approach shall be co-ordinated on an individual basis for joining instructions.

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11
Q

When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when:

  • ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation
  • Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.)
  • Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
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12
Q

Describe in detail, low approach restrictions and their uses

A
  • If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go, may be cleared to carry out a low approach restricted to a height not below 400 feet above the threshold elevation. In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicles on the runway. Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach.
  • For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH, the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft (450ft at Cambridge)
  • The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400 feet above the threshold elevation.
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13
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.

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14
Q

What are ATC actions in the event of windshear?

A

In the event of a pilot executing a missed approach due to a windshear alert, controllers should be prepared for the aircraft to exceed the missed approach altitude. Controllers should provide enhanced traffic information as necessary and provide instructions and advice as deemed appropriate to ensure safety.

Whenever a pilot reports windshear conditions to ATC, the information shall be relayed to subsequent inbound and outbound aircraft until confirmation is received that the condition no longer exists.

Additionally ADI should consider the following and issue warnings as considered necessary;

  • Possible turbulence/wind-shear on short final rwy 10/ departure rwy 28, caused by the mound of earth west of H17. This is especially significant when the wind is a strong North-westerly
  • Possible turbulence/ wind-shear on short final of rwy 23 caused by the engine running bay. Especially when North westerly winds
  • ERB. ADI should be mindful that prop/jet wash from the engine running bay may affect aircraft on final approach for rwy 23, especially when wind is north-westerly
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15
Q

Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear

A

“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss
20 knots, strong right drift”

When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.

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16
Q

What is the definition of a runway incursion?

A

A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing. The protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas.

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17
Q

What runway lights do we have at EGSC?

A

Elevated high intensity bi-directional (with Omni-directional component) runway edge lights at 60m intervals

Flush bi-directional red stop end lighting for both runways.

Blue turn pad lighting- low intensity which will remain low intensity regardless of the rest of the runway edge lighting settings.

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18
Q

What are the runway dimensions and lighting installations for each runway at Cambridge?

A

Rwy 05/23 1964m x 45m, thr 05=36ft 23=47ft

Lights= Elevated high intensity bi-directional (with Omni-directional component) runway edge lights at 60m intervals

Flush bi-directional red stop end lighting for both runways.

Blue turn pad lighting- low intensity which will remain low intensity regardless of the rest of the runway edge lighting settings.

23= Flush green threshold lighting plus green wingbars (due to runway being an L2 precisions instrument runway) also yellow lights edge lights for the last third of the runway.

05= Green wingbars only on the threshold due to being a non-precision instrument runway.

Also stopbars, Runway guard lights (wig wags), illuminated signage.

05/23 Grass 900m x 35m, thr 36ft 10/28 439m x 35m, thr 35ft

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19
Q

What is the frequency and DOC for Cambridge tower?

A

125.905 10NM. 10,000ft

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20
Q

What is the frequency and DOC for Cambridge Approach?

A

120.965

40nm/FL200

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21
Q

What is the frequency and DOC for Cambridge Radar?

A

124.980 in the AIP but operationally we use 120.965

40nm/FL150

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22
Q

What is the frequency for D and D?

A

121.5 VHF 243 UHF

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23
Q

What is the frequency for Fire?

A

121.6

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24
Q

What is the frequency for Stansted Director?

A

136.2

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25
Q

What is the frequency for Stansted Radar?

A

120.625

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26
Q

What is the frequency for Lakenheath Approach?

A

128.9

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27
Q

What is the frequency for Duxford Information?

A

122.080

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28
Q

Describe the local area out to a range of 10 miles

A
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29
Q

What is the radius of action of the RFFS?

A

Within aerodrome boundary and within an area encompassed by arcs drawn with a 1km radius from either threshold that are joined together.

They may operate outside of this area when needed, the decision to do this rests with the AFS O/iC after consultation with ATC and Ops

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30
Q

What are the categories of emergency according to the MATS 2

A
  1. Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident imminent
  2. Aircraft Ground Incident
  3. Full Emergency
  4. Local Standby
  5. Weather Standby
  6. Unlawful Acts
  7. Off aerodrome accidents
  8. Other duties ie Domestic Fire, RTA’s and hazardous materials
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31
Q

Where is the RVP for external emergency vehicles?

A

Crash Gate 2

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32
Q

Following an aircraft accident, describe the procedures to be followed for removing a crashed aircraft from a runway

A

Removal of crashed aircraft is the responsibility of the Aerodrome Operator and the aircraft owner or operator. In the case of a reportable accident the permission of the AAIB is required before removal action can be commenced.

Emergency Removal
If it is apparent that continued obstruction of a runway, or interference with an approach aid, by a crashed aircraft might further endanger life, e.g. other arriving aircraft having insufficient fuel for diversion, the senior controller should ensure that the emergency situation is fully understood by the Aerodrome Operator. Under normal circumstances the AAIB may be contacted at any time without undue delay. Exceptionally, if there are communication difficulties, the Aerodrome Operator may wish to take action in accordance with the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Accidents) Regulations 1996, which provide that an aircraft may be removed or interfered with so far as may be necessary for the purpose of preventing any danger or obstruction to the public or to air navigation.

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33
Q

Describe the various actions you would take when an unexpected aircraft joins a busy circuit.

A

When a controller becomes aware of an aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track but has not reported as being lost, the following actions should be followed in so far as is necessary:

(1) Attempt to establish two-way communication, unless such communication already exists, and inform the pilot of his position (SERA.11010(a)(1)(i) & (ii));
(2) Inform other ATS units into whose area the aircraft has strayed or may stray (SERA.11010(a)(1)(iii));
(3) Request appropriate assistance from D&D, other ATS units, and other aircraft in establishing communication with the strayed aircraft (SERA.11010(a)(1)(iv) & (v));
(4) Notify, the Civil Watch Supervisor at the parent ACC in the event that unlawful interference is suspected (SERA.11005 & SERA.11010(c)).

(5) Inform other aircraft in the circuit about the aircraft making them aware of the fact that the aircraft is unknown and not talking to you.

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34
Q

What is the definition of a full emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

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35
Q

What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?

A

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

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36
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to stand-down emergency services during an aircraft accident?

A

The SAFO who shall advise ATC as soon a possible

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37
Q

What is the published RFFS crash category? If you had any doubts, how would you find out?

A

A4

By calling the fire station

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38
Q

Why do we issue a QFE threshold for runway 05 at Cambridge? What is the threshold elevation for runway 05 and why do we use this threshold elevation for runway 05 Grass?

A

Because QFE threshold for an instrument runway is used when the threshold elevation is 7 feet or more below aerodrome elevation.

36ft (aerodrome elevation is 48ft)

This same QFE is used for Rwy 05G To harmonise operations between the two.

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39
Q

What are the noise abatement procedures for runway 23/05?

A

Runway 23

  • The maximum take off run available should normally be used for all aircraft types other than light aircraft
  • Aircraft requesting a right turn over the city shall be told to maintain runway heading until at least 2000ft QNH, or until west of the city. The following phraseology is to be used “Standard noise abatement right turn approved, Runway 23…”

Runway 05

  • The maximum take off run available should normally be used for all aircraft types other than light aircraft
  • Aircraft requesting a left turn out shall do so avoiding the city of Cambridge. The following phraseology shall be used; “Standard Noise abatement left turn approved, Rwy 05…”
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40
Q

Describe in detail the use of parallel runway operations

A

Parallel departures and arrivals for runways 23/05 grass, main, and H1 are not permitted.

-Furthermore, ADI shall sequence traffic to prevent two aircraft arriving side by side on final approach. In the event of this happening unintentionally, traffic information shall be updated and controllers shall send one of the aircraft around.

41
Q

Describe the standard ADNAM procedure departing runway 23?

A

Left turn on track ADNAM climb to altitude 3000ft ROCAS

42
Q

Describe the standard ADNAM departure off runway 05

A

Right turn on track ADNAM climb to altitude 3000ft ROCAS

43
Q

Describe the standard EBOTO departure off runway 23

A

Straight ahead to altitude 2000ft, right turn on track EBOTO climb altitude 6000ft ROCAS

44
Q

Describe the standard EBOTO departure off runway 05

A

Left turn on track EBOTO climb altitude 6000ft ROCAS

45
Q

Why would you not expect to issue a standard EBOTO departure when operating on runway 23? What could you expect to issue instead?

A

To prevent an infringement of controlled airspace at 5500ft. A non-standard EBOTO; Straight ahead to 2000ft, then right turn on track EBOTO climbing 5000ft.

46
Q

Describe the CAM1M PDR

A

Used by MA test pilots for departures off runway 23 therefore doesn’t need to be issued in full Runway heading to altitude 2000ft, right turn BANTO climb to altitude 5000ft ROCAS PDR terminates at BANTO

47
Q

Describe the CAM2M PDR

A

Used by MA test pilots for departures off runway 05 therefore doesn’t need to be issued in full Left turn BANTO climb to altitude 5000ft ROCAS PDR terminates at BANTO

48
Q

When would you not allow a practice fan-stop?

A

Shall only be undertaken with permission from ATC.

ATC shall not permit a fan-stop on the following occasions;

  • On the rwy 23 climb out

Aircraft requesting a practice fan-stop on 23 Grass or Main should do so on the crosswind or downwind leg and will be asked to report climbing away.

49
Q

At what level do Helimed helicopters transiting to Addenbrookes transit through the ATZ?

A

Not above 500ft QFE or 600ft QNH

50
Q

When are the visual circuit restrictions used and what are they?

A

At the discretion of the ADI ATCO or when the the C.C is below 1200ft and/or the met vis is less than 5000m

  • ADI will not normally accept opposite direction IFR approaches
  • ADI will accept a maximum of two aircraft in the visual circuit
  • No more than two a/c are permitted to orbit downwind during visual circuit restrictions. Extreme care should be taken when a pilot in the circuit is known to be a student
  • All circuit aircraft shall be continously visible to ADI
  • Helicopters manoeuvring on the airfield below 100ft are excluded from this restriction
51
Q

Describe the visual circuits available at Cambridge. Include all runways, levels and directions

A

Circuits normally to the south, ie left hand off 23 and right hand off 05 however you can use the north if necessary subject to noise abatement.

Multi engine heights 1500ft QFE, 1600ft QNH

Single Engine 1000ft QFE, 1100ft QNH

52
Q

What are the restrictions for the use of Taxiway’s A & B between Apron 22 and the runway at night?

A
  • Locally based GA aircraft may use A or B for taxiing inbound or outbound
  • With the exception of Sunscan J328 (this must be provided with a follow me vehicle during hours of darkness) all other aircraft types both outbound and inbound should use taxiways C or D
53
Q

Describe the actions to be taken by the ADI ATCO when VFR is restricted

A
  • Insert the blocking strip above the runway bay
  • The ADI controller will ascertain the departure route and requested level of all VFR departures
  • The ADI controller will instruct all VFR departures to “climb not above altitude 2000ft, Approach/RADAR have traffic to affect”
  • Inform APP that the restriction has been applied to each departure by annotating the level and direction of departure on the FPS strip before handing it to them
  • Pass the airborne time of the departure with the level restriction to the APS controller.
54
Q

What procedures apply when conducting opposite direction operations, specifically with regard to aircraft using the ILS when runway 05 is in use?

A
  • ADI controllers shall use their own discretion when accepting ILS traffic runway 23 when 05 circuit is active. If ADI is unable to accept an ILS 23 because of traffic levels being too high ADI shall inform APP/APS and the aircraft shall break off the approach
  • No more than two a/c should be orbited downwind in order to accommodate an opposite direction approach. Caution should be exercised when it is known that a circuit aircraft is flown by a student pilot
  • ADI shall not normally accept opposite direction approaches when poor weather circuit restrictions are in force.
55
Q

Describe the actions to be taken upon the failure of the repeater for UHF channel 1?

A

In the event of failure of the repeater the channel one system will cease to function;

  • The backup system on the Assistant desk will also fail and will need to be switched to channel 5
  • Channel 5 has the channel one transmit and receive frequencies in reverse and will allow ATCO to continue to talk to vehicles on the manoeuvring area
  • Vehicles will be unable to hear each other however.
  • Failure should be reported to ATE immediately via the ATC watch log
56
Q

What is the MEHT for the PAPI’s on runway 23?

A

39ft

57
Q

What is the MEHT for the PAPI’s on runway 05?

A

44ft

58
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft not rolling?

A

“C/S, hold position, cancel take-off, I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”

59
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft already rolling?

A

“C/S, stop immediately, I say again, C/S stop immediately acknowledge”

60
Q

What is the DOC for 125.905?

A

10nm

10,000ft

61
Q

Can an aircraft cross a red stop bar?

If so how can you achieve this?

A

On the occasions when the withdrawal of inoperable stop-bars is not possible and the stop-bars cannot be readily supressed, under exceptional circumstances, an aircraft may be instructed to cross such an illuminated stop-bar subject to the following minimum conditions;

  1. The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller. This requirement may be satisfied by the use of SMR/SMGCS as specified in MATS 2. When an aerodrome is not SMR/SMGCS equipped, local alternate solutions based on risk assessment and detailed in MATS 2 may be employed.
  2. The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop-bar. Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
  3. Additional MATS 2 procedures may be required where local risk assessments have identified that further mitigation may be necessary.
62
Q

Can an aircraft cross a red stop bar?

If so how can you achieve this?

A

On the occasions when the withdrawal of inoperable stop-bars is not possible and the stop-bars cannot be readily supressed, under exceptional circumstances, an aircraft may be instructed to cross such an illuminated stop-bar subject to the following minimum conditions;
MATS 1:
1. The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller. This requirement may be satisfied by the use of SMR/SMGCS as specified in MATS 2. When an aerodrome is not SMR/SMGCS equipped, local alternate solutions based on risk assessment and detailed in MATS 2 may be employed.
2. The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop-bar. Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
3. Additional MATS 2 procedures may be required where local risk assessments have identified that further mitigation may be necessary.

MATS 2:
1. A Follow-Me vehicle is to be used to cross the failed stop-bar (Section 2, Chapter 3, paragraph 3.1.6- SI 06/24 refers)
2. For aircraft departing from the eastern end of the aerodrome, where possible, entry onto the runway will be via Holding Point Charlie.
3. All aircraft from Hangar 17 Apron and the GRE area will be via Holding Point Delta.
4. Vehicle requests to enter the runway must be reduced to the absolute minimum, for all vehicles except a vehicle driven by the Airport Duty manager (ADM), a Follow-Me vehicle will be required in accordance with the Follow-Me vehicle procedures.

63
Q

What is the name of the windfarm to the east of cambridge?

A

Wadlow Farm

64
Q

How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?

A

72 hours

65
Q

Under what conditions can you practice an airfield lighting failure at night?

A

Subject to;

  • A verbal agreement between ATCO and the aircraft commander/instructor that the a/c will initiate a go-around only and;
  • An evaluation of the traffic situation at the time of the request and the verbal agreement, where necessary of other traffic that may be affected.
  • Various combinations of lighting failures may be practiced but under no circumstances are the runway edge lights to be switched off.

Aircraft approved for night vision equipment are exempt from 1 & 3.

66
Q

What do you expect to happen should you not issue a clearance to APS prior to the completion of the approach?

A

The aircraft to be sent on a go-around.

67
Q

What is the difference between a precision and a non-precision approach?

A

A precision approach includes vertical profile whereas a non-precision does not

68
Q

Can an aircraft depart an aerodrome after the failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?

A

Yes but only during the day, at night it cannot.

69
Q

What should a controller consider if an aircraft in flight has a failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?

A

At night if the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

70
Q

What are the responsibilities of aerodrome control?

A

To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and efficient flow of air traffic with the objective of;

  1. Preventing collisions between:
    a) Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
    b) Aircraft taking off or landing
    c) Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  2. Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the aprons

Additional specific responsibilities;

  1. Notifying Emergency services as per local instructions
  2. Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome Emergency services
  3. Providing an Approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
  4. Supplying the following Information to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control;
    a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
    b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information
  5. Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a Deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
  6. Initiating Overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established.
71
Q

What is the threshold elevation for rwy 23?

A

47ft

72
Q

What is the threshold elevation for rwy 05?

A

36ft

73
Q

What is the transition altitude?

A

6,000ft due to the proximity of TMA CAS

74
Q

What document contains the fatigue and maximum duty period regulations?

A

EU 2017/373 CAA-ORS 9 Decision 6

75
Q

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

A

Radius of 5-10nm up to a height as designated for that flight

Established 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA/ETD of the royal flight

76
Q

What are the Met criteria for all LVP conditions?

A

RVR’s;

Normal ops- RVR <2000m but ≥1500m and/or C.C <500ft but >300ft (and expected to reduce further)

Safeguarding- RVR <1500m but ≥1000m and/or C.C ≤300ft but >200ft

LVO 1- RVR <1000m but ≥400m and/or C.C ≤200ft

LVO 2- RVR <400m

77
Q

What are the radio fail procedures for fixed wing aircraft during the day?

A

New MATS 2

  • The Radio Fail aircraft will fly along the centreline of the duty runway at a height of 600ft QFE and rock its wings
  • On seeing this signal ADI/APP/APS shall transmit blind instructions to the radio fail aircraft
  • ADI or the ATSA under the supervision of the ADI shall also provide appropriate lamp signals as described in the ROA
  • Controllers shall consider the possibility that the aircraft may be experiencing a further emergency, and if necessary, give the radio fail aircraft priority.
  • After landing the aircraft shall vacate the runway as soon as possible, according to light signals.
78
Q

What are the Radio fail procedures for fixed wing aircraft during night time?

A

New MATS 2

  • The Radio Fail aircraft will fly along the centreline of the duty runway at a height of 600ft QFE and switch off and on its nav lights. In the case of total electrical failure the aircraft shall open and close its throttle to draw attention.
  • On seeing this signal ADI/APP/APS shall transmit blind instructions to the radio fail aircraft
  • ADI or the ATSA under the supervision of the ADI shall also provide appropriate lamp signals as described in the ROA
  • Controllers shall consider the possibility that the aircraft may be experiencing a further emergency, and if necessary, give the radio fail aircraft priority.
  • After landing the aircraft shall vacate the runway as soon as possible, according to light signals.
79
Q

What are the radio fail procedures for helicopters during the day?

A

New MATS 2

  • The radio fail helicopter shall join the fixed wing circuit pattern for the runway in use. If possible, the helicopter shall flash its landing lights to draw attention.
  • The radio fail helicopter will then, after positioning on final approach, initiate a go-around at 1000ft QFE to draw attention and then re-join the fixed wing circuit pattern.
  • On seeing any of the above signals ADI/APP/APS shall transmit blind instructions to the RTF helicopter
  • The ADI or the ATSA under the supervision of the ADI shall also provide appropriate lamp signals as described in the ROA
  • Controllers shall consider the possibility that the helicopter may be experiencing a further emergency.
  • When re-established on final approach the radio fail helicopter will make a landing on the main runway, and will vacate as soon as possible via ‘C’ according to light signals.
80
Q

What are the Radio fail procedures for helicopters at night?

A
  • The RTF helicopter shall join the fixed wing circuit pattern for the runway in use. If possible, the helicopter shall flash its landing light to attract attention.
  • The RTF helicopter will then, after positioning on final approach, initiate a go-around at 1,000ft QFE to draw attention and then re-join the fixed wing circuit
  • On seeing any of the above signals ADI/APP/APS shall transmit blind instructions to the RTF helicopter
  • The ADI or the ATSA under the supervision of the ADI shall also provide appropriate lamp signals as described in the rules of the air.
  • Controllers shall consider the possibility that the helicopter may be experiencing a further emergency
  • When re-established on final approach the RTF helicopter will make a landing on the main runway and will vacate as soon as possible via taxiway C according to light signals.

Should be noted that locally based single engine helicopters can only use runway 23 at night.

81
Q

Describe what happens during normal ops LVO

A

Safeguarding Actions

ATC will issue IRVR’s and advise airport operations of the likely requirement for safeguarding. No further action required.

Aircraft

Normal Ops

Vehicles

Normal ops

Personnel

Normal Ops

82
Q

Describe what happens during Safeguarding

A

Safeguarding actions

  • Inform ADM that safeguarding action is required.
  • Advise ATE that routine maintenance on navigation aids is to be suspended. ILS critical areas are to be cleared of all obstructions
  • Close runway 05/23 Grass
  • Instruct all non-essential vehicles and personnel to vacate the manoeuvring area.
  • Withdraw all aircraft, vehicles and personnel from the south side of the main runway.
  • Taxiway J to be blocked at the holding point and L blocked at L2 with markers and lights provided.
  • The blocks that are permanently placed on the peri-track just to the east of crash gate 2 are to prevent access to the south side of the runway. A visual check must be carried out to ensure that these are in place.
  • Suspend airside work in progress in accordance with individual works permits.
  • Suspend the use of the compass base in consultation with ATC and Airport Ops.
  • Broadcast Airport Safeguarded on the GMC channel.

Aircraft

Normal ops

Vehicles

Normal Ops

Personnel

Use of pedestrian walkways and crossing permitted

83
Q

Describe what happens during LVO 1

A

Safeguarding actions

  • Authorised vehicle conducts an inspection prior to every arrival and departure
  • Essential vehicles only operating on the manoeuvring area.
  • APP- Shall not permit an aircraft to leave the IAF and commence an instrument approach until;
  • A previous arrival has landed and is continously visible to ADI or has reported on stand vacated the runway (this is not my bad grammar have verbatim lifted this from the LVO procedure as it has a few errors)
  • Or until a departing aircraft has reported, or is observed to be airborne.
  • Direct or self-positioning approaches avoiding the IAFs are not permitted.
  • APS- Shall not permit an aircraft making an instrument approach to establish at less than 8 track miles from touchdown until;
  • A previous arrival has landed and is continously visible to ADI or has reported on stand.
  • Or until a departing aircraft has reported, or is observed to be airborne.
  • Direct or self-positioning approaches avoiding the IAFs are not permitted.
  • Switch on stand-by generator when the RVR reaches 800m
  • All vehicle free ranging is suspended
  • Use of compass swing base suspended.
  • Broadcast “low visibility operations in force” on GMC channel
  • Report “Low visibility Procedures in force” on the ATIS.

Aircraft

One aircraft ground movement at a time with a ‘follow me’ if necessary

Vehicles

Free ranging withdrawn

Personnel

Use of pedestrian walkways permitted

84
Q

Describe what happens during LVO 2

A

Safeguarding actions

  • Arrivals and departures to be suspended
  • Turn all Airport Traffic lights to red
  • GRE use suspended

Aircraft

Arrivals and departures suspended

Vehicles

Free ranging withdrawn

Personnel

Use of pedestrian walkways crossing the manoeuvring area is restricted

85
Q

What shall Aerodrome Control Co-ordinate with Approach control?

A

1) Departing IFR flights
2) Any arriving aircraft which make their initial call on the tower frequency

MATs 2 additional;

3) Turbo-prop and Jet aircraft pre-note to APP/APS. Airborne time to be passed.
4) Provide an airborne time for aircraft given a dedicated squawk from APS
5) Provide airborne times to APS for departures when VFR restrictions are in force.

ADI shall also advise APS/APP when;

  • any VFR aircraft departing via the Cambridge overhead above 2000ft QNH
  • when 1600ft or higher visual circuit is active, and;
  • Co-ordination is required to enter the ILS critical areas when APP/APS have advised ADI of an inbound IFR aircraft for an ILS runway 23.
86
Q

State the types of flight priorities as laid down in MATS pt 1 and how they might affect the way the ADI controller might tactically manage a situation where aircraft of a different priority may be on frequency.

A

A= Aircraft in Emergency
Aircraft which have declared a police emergency
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved

B= Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons
Police flights under normal operational priority
Other flight authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights

C= Royal flights

Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

D= Flights carrying the;

1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer

3) Home secretary, or
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs

Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by CAA

E= HEMS/SAR positioning flights
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

Normal flights= Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.

Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit. (RTF callsign EXAM)

Z= Training, non-standard and other flights.

A common situation at Cambridge would be Helimed departing as a CAT A and how you would tactically manage the situation around this, would other aircraft be moved or held? Probably yes but if you can do it without doing this then even better.

87
Q

When do we have to perform runway inspections?

A
  1. At least one a day
  2. Before any night flying takes place
  3. At cessation of work on the manoeuvring area
  4. When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
  5. Following an aircraft accident
  6. Following an abandoned take-off by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by an aircraft due to burst tyres
  7. During snow and ice conditions as frequently as conditions warrant
  8. When considered necessary by ATC
  9. The aerodrome operator details in local instructions

Cambridge specific:

  1. Following engine runs conducted on main runway, or which have been conducted in such a way as to affect main runway operations
  2. Following the towing of aircraft, ground equipment etc on the runway
  3. Following the use of the runway by non airside vehicles
  4. When requested by ATC
88
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation criteria between an arriving S and L? LM and L? H and L?

A

S and L= 4NM

LM and L= 5NM

H and L= 7NM

89
Q

What is the conspicuity squawk for an aircraft conducting aerobatics? and the code for remaining in the circuit?

A

Aerobatics= 7004

CCT= 7010

90
Q

What procedures shall be followed in the event of a failure or navigation lights of an aircraft?

A

The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced. If the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

91
Q

What are the lateral and vertical limits of the efflux from the GRE with a C130 in it?

A

700ft vertically

150m radius

92
Q

If the helimed was departing towards Luton and you required him to remain north of the runway strip width on departure, can you do this? If so what would be a good visual aid for them to route by on the airfield?

A

Yes and the green box between taxiway foxtrot and the burn line.

93
Q

What are the lateral and vertical limits of the efflux from the GRE with a B738 in it?

A

1,500ft vertically

300m radius

94
Q

What are the lateral and vertical limits of the efflux from the GRE with a B777 in it?

A

2,500ft vertically

300m radius

95
Q

What is the procedure for Helimed departing when a B738 or B777 are in the GRE?

A

Advise them on start-up that the large no fly zone is active. When they report ready for departure they will depart via 23 main and will line up via L1.

96
Q

What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas?

A

Localiser- 120m x 300m

Glidepath- 115m x 300m

97
Q

What are the dimensions of the ILS sensitive areas?

A

Localiser- 140m x 800m

Glidepath- 160m wide to the northern edge of the runway along to the nearest part of the airfield boundary.

98
Q

What are the technical safeguarding frames for the VDF, NDB and DME?

A

Areas established around the NAV AIDS where no person or vehicle, without ADI permission, shall be allowed closer than;

VDF- 120m

NDB- 30m

DME- 150m

When plant and vehicles are operating within the TSF the ATCO should be alert to any;

  • spurious warnings or alarms on status and control units
  • reports from pilots of inaccurate or unstable guidance
  • inaccurate DF bearings

Should any of the above occur the ATCO must;

  • request that the vehicles or plant exit the TSF or
  • advise pilots that the system they are using may be unstable and should be used at their discretion
  • withdraw the system from use