APP Question Bank

Question 1

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

Answer 1

D

Question 2

What is the definition of a basic service?

Answer 2

A basic service is a type of UK FIS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.

This may include;

• weather information
• changes to servicability of facilities
• conditions at aerodromes
• general airspace activity information
• any other information likely to affect safety

The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilot’s responsibility.

Question 3

What is the definition of a procedural service?

Answer 3

An air traffic service where, in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service, the controller provides restrictions, instructions and approach clearances, which if complied with, will achieve deconfliction minima against other aircraft participating in the procedural service. Neither traffic information nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic.

Question 4

Can you provide a Procedural Service below the terrain safe level?

Answer 4

Yes as a procedural service is available at all levels.

However if a pilot wishes to operate below ATC unit terrain safe levels, unless on departure from an aerodrome when climbing to the ATC unit’s terrain safe level, or when following notified instrument approach procedures, controllers shall advise the pilot of the terrain safe level and remind him of his terrain responsibilities.

Question 5

What is essential traffic information and what elements shall it include?

Answer 5

Essential traffic is traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.

Essential traffic information passed to an aircraft shall include;

1. Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft
2. Type of conflicting aircraft
3. Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation, the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and,
4. Any alternative clearance.

Question 6

What are the reduced separations in the vicinity of the aerodrome and which can you utilise as the APP ATCO?

Answer 6

As the APP ATCO, in the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:

(1) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(2) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

As an APP ATCO you can also ask the Aerodrome ATCO to assist with reduced separation in the vicinity of the aerodrome and release the aircraft RSYD subject to “adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller.”

Question 7

What is the frequency for Stansted Director?

Answer 7

136.2

Question 8

What is the frequency for Stansted RADAR?

Answer 8

120.625

Question 9

What is the frequency for Lakenheath Approach?

Answer 9

128.9

Question 10

What is the frequency for Duxford Information?

Answer 10

122.080

Question 11

What is the frequency for Luton Radar?

Answer 11

129.550

Question 12

What is the frequency for Cranfield Approach?

Answer 12

122.855

Question 13

What is the frequency for Farnborough LARS north?

Answer 13

132.8

Question 14

What is the frequency for Wattisham approach?

Answer 14

125.8

Question 15

What is the transition altitude at EGSC and why?

Answer 15

6000ft due to the proximity to the London TMA

Question 16

In what RPS is Cambridge situated and which RPS is to the N, E and W?

Answer 16

Cambridge is in Chatham

N= Barnsley

E= Yarmouth

W= Cotswolds

Question 17

When can pilots be cleared for a visual approach?

Answer 17

To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights, either within or outside controlled airspace, may be authorised to execute visual approaches if the pilot reports that he can maintain visual reference to the surface and:

(1) the reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment; or
(2) the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers should not clear an aircraft for a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800 m. If a pilot requests a visual approach when the RVR is less than 800 m, controllers should inform the pilot that this type of approach is unavailable and request the pilot’s intentions.

Question 18

Can you provide a procedural service to an aircraft which is operating VFR?

Answer 18

Procedural Service is available to IFR flights in any meteorological conditions. It is not available to VFR flights.

Question 19

When must a pilot fly IFR?

Answer 19

A pilot must fly according to the IFR:

(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) Special VFR flight.

Question 20

When can an aircraft be instructed to climb to a level previously occupied by another aircraft?

Answer 20

An aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft provided that:

(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level.

Question 21

Under what conditions can you utilise a VMC climb or descent?

Answer 21

Controllers may authorise an aircraft to climb or descend in VMC provided:

(1) the manoeuvre is restricted to Class D, E, F and G airspace at or below FL100;
(2) it is during the hours of daylight;
(3) the aircraft is flying in visual meteorological conditions;
(4) the pilot of the aircraft climbing or descending agrees to maintain his own separation from other aircraft and the manoeuvre is agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft; and
(5) essential traffic information is given.

Question 22

Describe in detail co-ordination what ADI shall co-ordinate with APP/ APS

Answer 22

1. MATS Pt 1 –

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with Approach Control:

(1) departing IFR flights;
(2) arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control).

MATS pt 2.

ADI shall co-ordinate with Approach control;

1) Pre-note and airborne time for Turboprop and Turbojet aircraft.
2) Airborne time to be passed for any aircraft given a dedicated squawk code from APS
3) Airborne time to be passed for any aircraft departing when VFR restrictions are in force. If APP also pass the direction of departure and whether the aircraft has been restricted.
4) When an aircraft is departing via the overhead above 2000ft
5) When the 1,600ft circuit or higher is active
6) When requiring to enter the ILS critical area when an ILS aircraft has been notified as inbound for runway 23.

Question 23

Describe in detail co-ordination what APP shall co-ordinate with ADI

Answer 23

MATS 1

(1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;

arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points;

aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit.

Approach Control may delegate the responsibility for co-ordination to Approach Radar Control.

MATS 2

1) When an arriving IFR aircraft is active
2) When it passes an IAF for a procedural approach or approximately 15nm from touchdown for a self- positioned approach.
3) APP shall also inform ADI of the intentions of the aircraft before transferring control.
4) Where control is not transferred (subject to ADI agreement), ADI and APP will co-ordinate closely.
5) All IFR aircraft requiring a visual approach shall be co-orindated on an individual basis for joining instructions.
6) APP shall inform ADI of the anticipated landing order when working more than one IFR aircraft inbound and also the anticipated delay to a departing IFR aircraft together with the reason for the delay.
7) APP shal also inform ADI of any overflight traffic at or below 2,500ft within 3NM and co-ordinate transit traffic through the ATZ at or below 2,000ft altitude.

Question 24

Describe in detail co-ordination what APS shall co-ordinate with ADI

Answer 24

MATS 1

Approach Control will co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control:

(1) aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance;

arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points;

aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit.

Approach Control may delegate the responsibility for co-ordination to Approach Radar Control.

MATS 2

Aircraft being vectored for an instrument approach and aircraft which are identified and are being monitored making a procedural approach;

1) APS or RADAR ATSA will inform ADI when an aircraft first becomes active.
2) APS shall inform ADI when the aircraft is approximately 12 track miles from touchdown, before intercepting the FAT.
3) APS shall also inform ADI of the intentions of the aircraft before transferring control.
4) Where control is not transferred (subject to ADI agreement), ADI and APS will co-ordinate closely.
5) All IFR aircraft requiring a visual approach shall be co-ordinated with ADI on an individual basis for joining instructions.

Question 25

What conditions apply when using the 1 minute departure separation?

Answer 25

Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more immediately after take-off.

The minimum may be reduced when aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel runways provided the procedures have been approved by the CAA.

Question 26

What conditions apply to the 2 minute departure separation?

Answer 26

Provided that:

(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or more

faster than the following; and,

(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 minute separation between them.

Question 27

What are the conditions that apply to the 5 minute departure separation?

Answer 27

Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft.

or

Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:

(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by radar.

Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA.

* Separation minima based on time cannot be achieved unless the whole sixty seconds of each minute specified is permitted to elapse.

Question 28

Define the transition level

Answer 28

Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude. It is determined from the table in Appendix A as follows:

(1) Within controlled airspace by the controlling authority and it will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome;
(2) Outside controlled airspace by the Aerodrome Operator and based on the aerodrome QNH.

Question 29

Define Transition Altitude

Answer 29

Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used). Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3000 feet.

Question 30

Define transition layer

Answer 30

Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1000 ft.

Question 31

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

Answer 31

1. To prevent collisions between aircraft.
2. To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.
3. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
4. To provide adivce and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.
5. To notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organisations as required.

Question 32

What are the minimum services provided by an ATCU in CAS-T airspace?

Answer 32

1. Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
   (b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
   (c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.

Question 33

What are the visual flight rules at or below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher in class G airspace?

Answer 33

Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km.

Question 34

What are the visual flight rules below FL100, and above 3000ft AMSL or below FL100 and above 1000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in Class G airspace?

Answer 34

Horizontal distance from cloud 1500 M and 1000ft vertically with a flight visibility of 5KM.

Question 35

What procedures shall be followed in the event of a failure or navigation lights of an aircraft?

Answer 35

The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced. If the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

Question 36

Describe in detail the different types of track separation utilising a VOR and associated DME/TACAN station.

Answer 36

Track separation shall be established by requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks, which are separated by a minimum amount appropriate to the navigation aid employed. Aircraft must be within the designated operational coverage of a VOR or the protected range of an NDB as shown in the UK AIP (AD) section.

Using a VOR and associated DME/TACAN station. Both aircraft must have reported established on radials at least 20° apart;

Aircraft diverge and one aircraft is 15 miles from the DME/TACAN station.

Aircraft converge and one aircraft is 30 miles from the DME/TACAN station.

One aircraft inbound and the other outbound from the VOR station provided that the outbound aircraft is at least 20 miles OR the inbound at least 30 miles from the station.

Using VOR radials. When one aircraft is a time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from the VOR and both aircraft have reported established on radials which diverge by 20° or more;

Aircraft diverging: Using VOR radials. Both aircraft must have passed a VOR on tracks diverging by 45° or more and have reported established on the relevant radials.

Question 37

Describe in detail track separation using specified tracks from an NDB

Answer 37

Using specified tracks from an NDB. When one aircraft is the time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater) from an NDB and both aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more.

If a pilot reports that he suspects the accuracy of the NDB indications this separation shall not be used.

Question 38

What is the definition of same, crossing and reciprocal track?

Answer 38

Same track, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°.

‘Reciprocal track’, when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;

‘Crossing track’, intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal.

Question 39

From what point does intermediate wake turbulence apply?

Answer 39

That part of the instrument approach procedure when the aircraft reports beacon outbound on the procedure to the report of base turn complete or localiser established.

Question 40

Describe a TCAS Traffic Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present.

Answer 40

Traffic Advisory (TA) warning. Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot looks for conflicting aircraft visually. Does NOT manoeuvre. Typically 45 seconds before the assumed collision.

Question 41

Describe a TCAS Resolution Advisory warning and how long before the assumed collision will the warning become present?

Answer 41

Resolution Advisory (RA) warning. Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be given. Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight path as soon as it is safe to do so. Typically 30 seconds before the assumed collision.

Question 42

What PDR’s do we have at Cambridge?

Answer 42

Standard ADNAM, EBOTO, CAM1M, CAM2M

Question 43

What precision approaches are available at Cambridge?

Answer 43

ILS

Question 44

What non-precision approaches are available at Cambridge?

Answer 44

RNAV, NDB

Question 45

What is the DOC of the CAM NDB?

Answer 45

15NM

Question 46

Describe in detail the Cambridge deemed separation utilitsing the CAM NDB when using runway 23

Answer 46

Vertical separation shall be provided between an arriving aircraft and a departing aircraft, including aircraft conducting a missed approach on the same runway until the following checks are made.

1. The arriving aircraft reports leaving the CAM and established beacon outbound in a procedural approach, and
2. VDF checks confirm is on a magnetic track within sector 1, and
3. The aircraft reports passing 2 DME. Where DME is unavailable this will be supplemented by 1 minute flying time.
4. The departing aircraft is established on a route which will enable it to remain in sector 3.

Aircraft are not permitted to turn back to the CAM or onto tracks that would take them outside the sectors stated until vertical separation, or another form of separation exists.

Question 47

Describe in detail the Cambridge deemed separation utilitsing the CAM NDB when using runway 05

Answer 47

Procedure for Runway 05

Vertical separation shall be provided between an arriving aircraft and a departing aircraft, including aircraft conducting a missed approach on the same runway until;

1. The arriving aircraft reports leaving the CAM and established beacon outbound in a procedural approach, and
2. VDF checks confirm is on a magnetic track within sector 3, and
3. The aircraft reports passing 2 DME. Where DME is unavailable this will be supplemented by 1 minute flying time.
4. The departing aircraft is established on a route which will enable it to remain in sector 1.

Aircraft are not permitted to turn back to the CAM or onto tracks that would take them outside the sectors stated until vertical separation, or another form of separation exists.

Question 48

What is the standard missed approach for Runway 23 and why is it not used?

Answer 48

Straight ahead to Altitude 2000ft, on reaching turn left to the CAM. Not used due to the proximity of the Duxford ATZ.

Question 49

What is the standard missed approach for runway 05?

Answer 49

Straight ahead to 1600ft then a climbing right turn to the CAM to altitude 2000ft.

Question 50

For the purpose of calculating EAT’s how long do ILS, NDB and RNAV approaches take?

Answer 50

ILS, NDB and RNAV from the IAF are 10 mins. RNAV from the CAM is 15 mins

Question 51

What are the terrain safe levels in each sector out to 25NM from Cambridge?

Answer 51

2000ft to the West and 1800ft to the East.

Question 52

What are the Cambridge conspicuity squawks?

Answer 52

IFR- 6177

VFR- 6176

Question 53

When shall APP transmit IRVR to aircraft?

Answer 53

(1) whenever the aerodrome meteorological report shows the visibility to be less than 1500 metres;
(2) whenever the IRVR display is indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that system;
(3) whenever shallow fog is reported and during a period for which it is forecast.

Question 54

What is the name of the windfarm to the east of Cambridge?

Answer 54

Wadlow Farm

Question 55

Describe in detail the Lakenheath LOA

Answer 55

RAPCON shall notify Cambridge ATC of the following:

1. Aircraft inbound to Cambridge requesting an instrument approach. Cambridge ATC shall issue an appropriate altitude and applicable restrictions. Transfer communications and control as soon as Lakenheath traffic conditions permit.
2. Aircraft executing patterns/finals to RAF Lakenheath Runway 06.
3. On agreement of Military Air Traffic Zone (MATZ) penetration, any traffic information on aircraft arriving or departing RAF Mildenhall or operating within the RAF Mildenhall circuit which may affect traffic conducting instrument approaches at Cambridge International Airport.
4. Any known traffic which will cross Cambridge International Airport Runway 23 final approach course between Cambridge Airport and the RAF Lakenheath/RAF Mildenhall Combined Military Air Traffic Zone (CMATZ) below 3000ft AMSL.
5. Requests may be made for co-ordination regarding Cambridge International Airport traffic to provide appropriate deconfliction minima in accordance with the service provided.

Note; For the purposes of traffic information, RAF Lakenheath ATCO’s should note that when Cambridge ATC are using the callsign ‘Cambridge Approach’ that they are operating non-RADAR.

Cambridge ATC shall notify RAPCON of the following:

1. Aircraft requesting an instrument departure from Runway 05 turning North or Aircraft conducting a missed approach from Runway 05 at Cambridge International Airport and climbing above 2000ft AMSL.
2. Aircraft executing instrument approaches to Runway 23.
3. On receipt of information regarding aircraft executing RADAR patterns/finals to RAF Lakenheath Runway 06, Cambridge ATC shall advise RAPCON of any traffic which may addict RAF Lakenheath operations.
4. Requests may be made for co-ordination regarding RAF Lakenheath traffic to provide appropriate deconfliction minima in accordance with the service provided.

Equipment failures

In the event of communication failure of the primary telephone systems, alternate communications shall be established using the alternate telephone numbers provided within Annex B.

In the event of a RAF Lakenheath RADAR failures, RAPCON shall notify Cambridge ATC and affect co-ordination on an as needed basis.

Question 56

When may approach control instruct IFR flights to establish communications with Aerodrome control?

Answer 56

Approach Control may instruct IFR flights to establish communication with Aerodrome Control (for the purpose of obtaining landing clearance and essential aerodrome information) when the aircraft has become number one to approach and, for following aircraft, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such aircraft are flying with visual reference to the surface the responsibility for separation between them shall remain with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

Question 57

Describe in detail the procedures for preliminary, and full overdue action for radio equipped aircraft

Answer 57

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Preliminary Action

If an aircraft fails to make a position report when expected, the following preliminary action shall be commenced not later than the estimated time for the reporting point plus 30 minutes:

(1) Advise the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is overdue;
(2) Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome by quickest possible means;
(3) Ensure that an RQS message is sent.

Radio Equipped Aircraft – Full Overdue Action

If, after the action above, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report should have been received, or the fuel carried by the aircraft is considered to be exhausted, whichever is the sooner, the controller at the destination aerodrome shall inform the ACC supervisor that the aircraft is fully overdue.

Question 58

How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?

Answer 58

72

Question 59

What is the definition of a Full Emergency?

Answer 59

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

Question 60

What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/Aircraft Accident Imminent?

Answer 60

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

Question 61

What is the difference between a precision and non precision approach?

Answer 61

Precision approach: A precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation.

Non Precision Approach: A non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance.

Question 62

In relation to the establishment of CAS-T for a royal flight, describe the dimensions of the temporary control zones and for what period they will be active?

Answer 62

5-10nm radius centered on the center of the aerodrome, to a specified height from the ground,

Established for 15 mins prior to the ETA of the aircraft until 30 mins after the ETA

Question 63

State the types of flight priorities as laid down in MATS pt 1 and how they might affect the way the ADI controller might tactically manage a situation where aircraft of a different priority may be on frequency.

Answer 63

A= Aircraft in Emergency
Aircraft which have declared a police emergency
Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of life is involved

B= Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons
Police flights under normal operational priority
Other flight authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights

C= Royal flights

Flights carrying visiting Heads of State

D= Flights carrying the;

1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer

3) Home secretary, or
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs

Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by CAA

E= HEMS/SAR positioning flights
Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights

Normal flights= Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.

Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit. (RTF callsign EXAM)

Z= Training, non-standard and other flights.

A common situation at Cambridge would be Helimed departing as a CAT A and how you would tactically manage the situation around this, would other aircraft be moved or held? Probably yes but if you can do it without doing this then even better.