Appliances 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When connecting to a water heater, what minimum length of metallic piping should be installed before connecting to plastic water distribution piping?

A

18 in (450 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Before starting any repairs, you should turn off the gas supply and allow the glass to cool.

T or F

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During the lighting of a barbecue, the lid must be closed.

T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following conditions are not regulated in a hot water boiler?

A

Venting pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of water heater is most commonly used for residential and low-demand commercial installations?

A

Direct-fired storage heaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the steam supply hose or pipe have to be installed on a self-contained steam humidifier?

A

Pitched down from dispersion tube to humidifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the draft pressure in the vent from a condensing furnace?

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The heating output of an air handler should exceed the calculated space heating loss of the building it serves.

T or F

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Because electrostatic filters are a form of slab filter, they are installed in the same position and way as slab filters.

T or F

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are gas ranges typically connected to the electrical power supply?

A

A power supply cord with a 120 VAC three-prong grounded plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When a tank may be subject to back siphonage, what must be installed?

A

Vacuum relief valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens when a fluid is heated?

A

It expands and becomes lighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is temperature rise determined?

A

Subtract the return air temperature from the supply air temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of gas fireplace is used to convert an existing wood burning masonry chimney to gas?

A

Insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Generally, the bypass screw is factory-adjusted and should not be modified.

T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does a sealed gas burner design maintain clean burner ports?

A

Burner cap deflects debris away from the flame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Barbecues equipped with a piezo ignition can be match-lit?

T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A thermocouple must de-energize the pilotstat coil within how many seconds?

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Refrigerant circulates between the “A” coil and the condenser coil. What occurs in the A coil?

A

Liquid refrigerant absorbs heat and changes to the vapour state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What device controls the operation of a humidifier?

A

Humidistat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What damage can a dirty filter do in a system that includes add-on air conditioning?

A

Any of the choices could occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Calculate the velocity of water in ¾ inch ID tubing if the flow rate required for the heating circuit is 5.5 USGPM.

A

4 ft/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A closed limit switch should have resistance.

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Must a defective heat exchanger in a dwelling unit be replaced immediately?

A

No, it can be temporarily repaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do all rollout switches have to be manually reset?

T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why is it important to keep the condenser and absorber fins clean?

A

To ensure good heat transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Combination systems are designed to provide a combination of domestic water heating and space heating.

T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

After you have cleaned all of the burner components, there is still a yellow, lazy flame what should be checked next?

A

Gas pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is a burner orifice cleaned?

A

Soak it in non-oily solvents and then blow air through it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the purpose of a meter “dial test”?

A

To test for leaks in the system up to the inlets of the gas controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If there are no manufacturer’s rating plate clearances, what are the allowable code clearances to combustibles from the top, back and sides of a domestic gas dryer?

A

150 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An “open system” has no contact with the atmosphere at any point.

T or F

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Through which device is fuel discharged to an atmospheric burner?

A

orifice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When would a gas technician/fitter use an incline manometer?

A

To complete an external static pressure test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What contributes to the formation of lime scale in a water heater?

A

Hardness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the temperature of a NTC (Negative Temperature thermistor) decreases, its resistance will .

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long could it take to suffer a third-degree burn if a person was exposed to water at 140°F (60 °C)?

A

4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A dirty cooling coil can restrict the air flow. What would be the effect on the temperature change of the forced air furnace during the heating season?

A

The temperature rise would increase

39
Q

To ensure customers have the best air quality it is recommended to always install a filter with the highest MERV rating

T or F

A

False

40
Q

What three types of gas-fired units are used to heat a single room or other small areas?

A

Room space heaters, Wall furnace, Baseboard heater

41
Q

Under what conditions may an appliance not certified for conversion be converted?

A

The conversion must be tested and labelled by the inspection authority or an agency authorized by the inspection authority

42
Q

Which atmospheric burners are most susceptible to flashback?

A

mono-port

43
Q

What is the recommended water heater capacity for an air handler rated for 1200 cfm?

A

60 USG

44
Q

What device allows dilution air to enter the venting system of an atmospherically fired appliance?

A

Draft hood

45
Q

What type(s) of furnace(s) use an inducer fan?

A

Mid-efficiency and high-efficiency

46
Q

What component is designed to cause the burner to shut down if there is a blockage in the vent?

A

Pressure switch

47
Q

What are the installer’s responsibilities regarding the propane supply system when conducting a conversion from propane to natural gas and the propane tank is no longer going to be used?

A

Shut off all valves, disconnect the pipe or tubing, plug the openings

48
Q

When adjusting the minimum heat input, what can happen if the setting is not low enough?

A

Over-cooling

49
Q

What type of direct vent uses to completely separate pipes?

A

Collinear

50
Q

What must be obtained before electrical work can be performed on gas-fired equipment?

A

A permit

51
Q

How many volts are in 250 mV?

A

0.25 V

52
Q

How many volts are in 250 mV?

A) voltmeter
B) ammeter
C) ohmmeter
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

53
Q

Total electrical resistance in a control system includes the heat anticipator in the thermostat.

T of F

A

True

54
Q

Correctly complete the following statement with the appropriate word provided.

R-C circuits are those that have both resistance and __________________.

A

Reactance

55
Q

What type of circuit allows current to flow through more than one complete path?

A

Parallel circuit

56
Q

Where do branch circuits start?

A

At the distribution panel

57
Q

List Thermostats are an example of a control that can be recalibrated or readjusted.

T or F

A

true

58
Q

Which type of electrical current flows in both directions?

A

Alternating

59
Q

This type of start relay uses transistors, diodes and triacs to break the start windings circuit at the correct time.

A

Solid-state relay

60
Q

A PTC (positive temperature coefficient) thermistor will decrease its resistance with a temperature increase.

T or F

A

False

61
Q

What is the unit to measure electrical power?

A

watts or horsepower

62
Q

How are components represented on connection diagrams?

A

by symbols

63
Q

What must be the electrical source for heating equipment rated 400 000 Btu/h and less?

A

a single branch circuit used for no other purpose

64
Q

What is the primary cause of motor insulation failure?

A

Motor overheating

65
Q

Select the combustion safety controls that work on the principle of flame ionization.

A

Flame rectifier (flame rod)

66
Q

Control valves open and close in response to changes in temperature, pressure, humidity, or fluid flow.

T or F

A

true

67
Q

Should an ohmmeter be connected into a live circuit?

A

no

68
Q

Correctly complete the following statement with the appropriate word provided: ___________ is when all energy sources including electrical, pneumatic, hydraulic, or gravitational are made inoperative.

A

Zero mechanical state

69
Q

What is a DIP switch?

A

A manual electric switch that is packaged with others in a group

70
Q

What is the operation of a flame rollout switch?

A

NC switch that opens on flame roll out

71
Q

A continuity check is a measurement of what?

A

Resistance

72
Q

Who may remove a lock used to lock-out equipment?

A

The person who installed the lock. In an emergency, a supervisor

73
Q

This start relay has a normally closed set of start winding contacts that are opened by the relay coil after the motor has started.

A

Potential relay

74
Q

On what type of gas appliance would a rod and Tube (Unitrol) valve typically be installed?

A

Gas water heater

75
Q

The sequence of operation of a circuit can be determined from what kind of drawing?

A

Schematic diagram

76
Q

Integrated electronic control boards have replaced most time delay relays.

T or F

A

True

77
Q

Which of the follow is not a ferromagnetic metal?

A

Copper

78
Q

Which of the following should you not do when rescuing a victim of electrical shock?

A

Touch the energized victim

79
Q

What are the two main parts of an electric motor?

A

Stator and rotor

80
Q

Crimp-on connectors are convenient to use as they do not require any special tools.

T or F

A

False

81
Q

Switches must be in what position to conduct electrical current?

A

Closed

82
Q

What two ways can the stator phase coils in a three-phase induction motor be connected?

A

Delta or wye

83
Q

From which vantage point is the motor’s direction of rotation viewed?

A

From the drive end of motor

84
Q

A thermocouple should be replaced if it cannot produce a closed circuit reading of more than.

A

8 mV

85
Q

Complete the following statement with the appropriate word(s) provided:

A conductor having white insulation is normally connected to the ______________ colored terminal on a 120 V ac receptacle.

A

White or silvery

86
Q

What is the purpose of an electrical switch?

A

To open or close an electrical circuit as required

87
Q

The manufacturer recommends maximum lengths of wiring runs for self-powered control systems.

A

One alternating sinusoidal wave form

88
Q

“Self-regulating” means that as the current flow to the secondary winding changes, the primary current flow also changes.

T or F

A

true

89
Q

You can determine the sequence of operation for all components connected to an IFC from the wiring diagrams.

A

False

90
Q

Select the best description for the term “linear scale”.

A

A linear scale has ten large equal divisions each located next to a number.

91
Q

A schematic diagram shows the electrical relationship between components in a circuit, while a wiring diagram shows how components are actually wired.

T or F

A

True

92
Q

How many ohms are in 2.125 kΩ

A

2125

93
Q

SCR, TRIAC, and DIAC are all what types of electronic devices?

A

Thyristor

94
Q

What type of diagram is most helpful when trying to trace wires?

A

Connection diagram