Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

infection > antimicrobials > Flashcards

antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

what does penicillin cover

A

strep pyogenes

n.meningitdis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does flucloxacillin cover

A

MSSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does amoxicillin cover

A

h.influenzae
strep pnumoniae
enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does co-amoxiclav cover

A

all of amoxicillin plus
s.aureus
gram positive coci anaerobe
some gram negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does tazocin cover

A

strep
enterococcus faecalis
gram negatives
pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does temocillin cover

A

ESBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does cefazolin cover

A

gram positives inc. s aureus and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does cefuroxime cover

A

gram positives

some gram negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does ceftriaxone cover

A

meningococci

gram negative and positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

carbapenem coverage

A

broadest spec of bl

-gram positives and gram negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what works against carbapenems

A

cpe cabapenemase produces enterobacteriacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is gentamicin for

A

gram negative cover
but also s.aureus
and enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are glycopeptides for

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is ciprofloxacin for

A
  • gram negatives and
  • atypical pneumonia
  • TB
  • some s.aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is clarithromycin for 5

A

gram positives and
atypical organisms and
mycobacteria avium intracellulare
h.pylori and lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is clindamycin for4

A

gram positives
anaerobes
pneumocytis jiroveci
malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is tetracycline for 3

A

chlaymdia trachomatis and psittaci and pneum

mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is doxycycline for

A

-used for RTI
h.influenzae
s.aureus-mild mrsa
m.catarrhalis
E.coli
klebsiella pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is tigecycline for

A

MRSA VRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is trimethoprim for

A

gram positives and gram negatives

-uti’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is metronidazole for

A

anaerobes and parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is linezolid for

A

gram positive MRSA and VRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is daptomycin for

A

gram positive s.aureus and VRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adverse for penicillin

A
  • allergy
  • cholestasis: co-amoxiclav
  • hepatitis: flucoxacillin
  • interstitial nephritis
  • antibiotic assoc. diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

antibiotics of choice more or less in pregnancy

A

penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

gentamicin adverse

A

nephrotoxic
ototoxic
worsens myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

vancomycin adverse

A

nephrotoxic
ototoxic
red man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

quinolones adverse

A
  • diarrhoea, n&v
  • reduced seizure threshold so ci epilepsy
  • tendon rupture in children and arthropathy
  • qt prolongation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

macrolides adverse

A
  • gi upset
  • hepatotoxicity
  • rash
  • qt prolongation
  • thrombophlebitis
  • increased risk myositis with statins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

lincosamide adverse

A 
diarrhoea
rash
hepatotoxicity
leucopenia
thrombocytopenia
risk c.diff infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

tetracycline adverse

A
  • N&v
  • oesophageal irritation
  • photosensitivity in lupus
  • deposited in growing bones and teeth avoid <12
  • hepatotoxic
  • renal impair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

trimethoprim adverse

A
  • steven Johnson syndrome
  • n&v
  • suppression of haematopoiesis
  • increase serum creatinine-but false kidney failure as just reduces secretion
  • teratogenic 1st semester of pregnancy
  • avoid with other folate drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

antibiotics that are harmful in pregnancy and why

A
  • trimethoprim 1st trimester anti folate-spina bifida
  • nitrofurantoin: at term haemolysis
  • quinolones: arthropathy
  • gentamicin: ototoxic to foetus
  • piperacillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

metronidazole adverse

A

-metallic tast
-N&V
-peripheral neuropathy
-disulfarim like reaction with alcohol
headache and dizzy
-cerebellular toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

linezolid adverse

A

bone marrow suppression

optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

daptomycin adverse

A

myositis

rhabomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hep b treatment

A

interferon alpha and tenofovir injections

38
Q

hep c treatment

A 
interferon and ribavirin
daa's
simepravir=protease
daclatasvir= ns5a
sofobuvir-ns5b
39
Q

hiv treatment

A

retroantiviral drugs eg ziovudine

triple therapy

40
Q

influenza treatment remember route

A

neuraminidase inhibitors

  • oseltamivir oral
  • zanamivir inhalation
41
Q

herpes virus treatment

A

aciclovir: dna polyermase inhibitor oral
ganciclovir: nucleoside analogue

42
Q

endocarditis treatment

A

beta lactam +/- aminoglycoside

43
Q

proven MSSA treatment

A

flucoxacillin oral-iv depend on severity

44
Q

proven MRSA treatment

A

vancomycin IV as can only be used oral for gut infections

45
Q

meningitis bacterial treatment 3

A

ceftriaxone IV
dexamethasone IV

and if >50, pregnant or immunocompromised or on steroids also amoxicillin IV

46
Q

viral encephalitis treatment

A

aciclovir IV

47
Q

cerebral abscess treatment

A

ceftriaxone IV

and metronidazole oral

48
Q

prophylactic orthopaedics treatment

and post op wound infection

A

co-amoxiclav or clindamycin
oral for prophylaxis

mild=flucox oral or clarithro oral
pen allergy=vancomycin

severe=co-amoxcilav iv
pen allergy= ceftriaxone IV and metronidazole oral

49
Q

osteomyelitis treatmet

A

flucox or vanomycin

iv

50
Q

neutropaenia treament

A

beta lactam and aminoglycoside

51
Q

pseudomonas infection treatment

A

piperacillin or ciprofloxacin

52
Q

esbl treatment

A

temocillin

53
Q

cellulitis treatment

A 
mild infection 
flucoxacillin oral or
pen allergy =
doxycycline oral or
clarithromycin  oral

for severe switch to IV and same as mild for pen allergy

54
Q

necrotising fasciitis treatment 5

fine bears can gather much

A 
flucoxacillin
benzylpenicillin
clarithromycin
gentamicin
metronidazole 
IV  all
55
Q

CAP penicillin allergy treatment for CURB2

A

doxycycline or clarithromycin oral

56
Q

CAP penicillin allergy treatment for CURB 3-5

A

ciprofloxacin oral

and vancomycin iv

57
Q

CAP 0-1 treatment

A

amoxicillin oral

or doxycycline oral

58
Q

CAP 2 treatment

A

amoxicillin iv and clarithromycin oral

59
Q

CAP 3-5 treatment

A

co-amoxiclav IV and clarithromycin iv

60
Q

CURB65 meaning

A 
confused <8
urea >7
rr >30
blood p <90 or <60 diastolic
>65
61
Q

severity marker for HAP

A 
temp <36 or >38
hr >90
rr>20
wcc <4 or >12
organ dysfunction
62
Q

HAP treatment if early onset in hospital <5 days

A

treat as CAP because means come from community

63
Q

HAP treatment if >5 days and severity marker of 0-1

A

doxycycline for 5 days oral

64
Q

HAP treatment if >5 days 2 and greater severity

A

amoxicillin IV and gentamicin IV

65
Q

penicillin allergy for HAP

A

vancomycin IV and gentamicin IV

66
Q

HAP for mrsa

A

vancomycin IV and gentamicin IV

67
Q

risk of giving both vancomycin and gentamicin

A

both can cause renal damage

68
Q

aspiration pneumonia treatment

A

amoxicillin IV and metronidazole oral

69
Q

aspiration pneumonia with allergy

A

doxycycline oral
or
co-trimoxazole oral and metronidazole oral

70
Q

type of bacteria that cause hap, cap and aspirate

A

aspirate: aerobes and anaerobes
hap: gram positive and negatives
cap: typicals and atypicals

71
Q

asplenic prophylactic treatment

A

lifelong phx penicillin

72
Q

c.diff treatment

A
  • metronidazole oral if no severity markers
  • vancomycin oral if one severity marker
  • 1st relapse fidaxomicin
73
Q

triple therapy for abdo infections and for pen allergy

A

amoxicillin iv (switch to vancomycin if pen allergy)
gentamicin
metronidazole oral

74
Q

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis treatment

A

amoxicillin iv
temocillin
metronidazole oral

75
Q

h.pylori treatment

A

omeprazole oral
amoxicillin oral
clarithromycin or metronidazole oral

76
Q

uti treatment for cystitis

and for pyelonephritis and route

A

cystitis
trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days women and 7 days men both oral

pyelonephritis
-gentamicin iv and amoxicillin IV

77
Q

antibiotics that cover atypical organisms

A

clarithromycin

ciprofloxacin

78
Q

antibiotics that cover gram negatives 6

A 
tazocin
ceftriaxone
carbapenems-but only used in severe infections
quinolones-ciprofloxacin
amingolycosides-gentamicin  
trimethoprim for UTI
79
Q

antibiotics that cover MRSA

A

vancomycin
tigecycline or doxycyline only for mild mrsa
trimethoprim

80
Q

antibiotics for COPD exacerbations

A

doxycyline oral

81
Q

antibiotics for chlamydia

A

tetracycline

82
Q

antibiotic for VRE

A

tigecycline

83
Q

gastroenteritis in children treatment

A

none unless sensitivity comes back

84
Q

gastroenteritis caused by ameobiasis treatment

A

metronidazole oral

85
Q

gastroenteritis caused by campylobacter treatment

A

erythromycin oral

86
Q

giardiasis gastroenteritis treatment

A

metronidazole or

albenazole oral

87
Q

treatment of legionella pneumonia

A

needs antibiotics that have intracellular activities including levofloxacin or clarithromycin

88
Q

specific treatment of H.influenzae pneumonia

A

depends if beta lactamase producer or not co-amoxiclav

89
Q

p.aeruginosa pneumonia treatment

A

ciprofloxacin or piperacillin

90
Q

enteric fever treatment-salmonella

A

ceftriaxone

91
Q

treatment of rickettsial

A

doxycycline

92
Q

pneumocystis jiroveci treatment

A

co-trimoxazole IV

infection (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions