Antidotes, toxicities, and side effects Flashcards

1
Q

Antidote for acetomenaphin poisoning

A

N-Acetyl-cysteine

  • Also used to loosen mucus in CF patients
  • Centrolobular necrosis from NAPQI toxic metabolite from CYP450. CYP450 inducers can worsen disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Salicylate poisoning

A
  • Initial respiratory alkalosis at breathing center in brain followed by metabolic acidosis
  • Tinnitus, dizziness, cerbral edema
  • TX: by alkalanizing the urine: NaHCO3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Amphetamines

A
  • Dilated pupils, tremors, tachychardia
  • Acificy urine
  • NH4Cl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

A
  • Atropine immediately and praladoxime if early in course
  • Irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor leads to massive muscarinic stumilation
  • Bradychardia, vasodilation, dry skin, mental status changes, miosis, salivation, urination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atropine or muscarinic blockade overdose

A
  • Tx with AChE inhibitors. Neostigmine, physostigmine to cross BBB
  • Tachychardia, etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Beta Blockers

A
  • Treat with glucagon, increase cAMP Gs

- Hypotension, bradychardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Digitalis

A
  • digitalis fAb, Lidocaine, normalize K, Lidocaine

- Yellow blurry vision, bradychardia, arrythmias and hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Iron

A
  • Deferoxamine, deferasirox

- Stomach ulceration, Naseau and Vomitting, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lead

A
  • Succimer, dimercaperol, EDTA, penicillamine
  • Acute: Weakness paresthesia, encephalitis, constipation
  • Long term is IQ drop, basophilic stippling, lead lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mercury, Arsenic, Gold

A
  • Dimercaperol, succimer
  • Arsenic: Diahrrea, vomitting, confusion, headache, blood urine, convulsions, coma. Long term is night blindness
  • Inhibits PDH and can lead to lactic acidosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Copper Posioning

A
  • Penicillamine
  • Wilsons disease from defective copper trasnport resulting in low ceruloplasm levels
  • Hematemasis, naseu, and hypotension are common in acute poisonings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cyanide Poisoning

A
  • Nitrate and Thiosulfate, also hydroxycobalamin
  • Amyl Nitrate turns iron in the ferric state which makes them bind cyanide in blood acting like a sink. Hydroxycobaamin directly binds to cyanide gererating cyanocobalamin
  • Complexes with cytochromes in ETC leading to defective oxidative phosphorylation and histiotoxic hypoxia
  • Acute is siezures, apnea, pulmonary edema, almond smell and red tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Methemoglobin

A
  • Methylene blue
  • Fe in hemglobin is in ferric state, not ferrous. Methylene blue non-enzymatically reduces back to ferrous.
  • G6PD, Oxidizing drugs (nitrates), congenital, newborn distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carbon Monoxide

A
  • Hyperbaric oxygen
  • Binds tightly to hemoglobin than oxygen and prevents delivery to tissue
  • Headache, nasseau, reddening of the skin
  • Pulse ox does’t pick up elevted carboxyhemoglobin. Must directly measure carboxyhemoglobin levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Methanol

A
  • Fomepizole, competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
  • Prevents production of toxic metabolites (formic acid)
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Blindness, stupor, coma, death at low concentrations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ethylene glycol

A
  • Fomepizole
  • Metabolized to glycolic acids which causes stupor, autonomic dysfunction and metabolic acidosis
  • Glycolic acid metabolized to oxalic acid which combines with Ca to cause stones and renal damage.
  • May require dialysis at high levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Opiods

A
  • Naloxone: opiod antagonist
  • Naltrexone helps with cravings
  • Signs are respiratory depression, miosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Benzodiazapines

A
  • Flumazenil
  • Rarely occurs on own, but maybe in the context of alcohol or barbituates
  • Competetive antagonist at benzo A site.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TCA’s

A
  • Alkalanization of urine to increase excretion
  • Most commonly die of arrythmias, also see dry mouth, hypotension and siezures
  • Alpha and muscarinic blockade (Coma, Cardiac, convulsions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Heparin

A
  • Protamine

- Heparin activates AT3 to cleave clotting factors. Protamine is an arginine rich compnd that can occupy activated AT3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Warfarin

A
  • FFP and vitamin K
  • FFP for rapid clotting factor replacement
  • Vitamin K to quench warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tPA, streptokinas,urokinase

A
  • Aminocaproic acid

- Lysine analog that occupies binding and cleavage site of plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Theophyline

A
  • Beta Blockers

- Narrow theraputic window and can be effected by inhibitors (cimetidine, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Torsades

A

-Magnessium sulfate and cardioversion

25
Q

Eclampsia

A

-Magnessium sulfate for siezures

26
Q

Phenytoin, Carbemazepine, Barbituates

A

Inducer

27
Q

Modafanil

A

Inducer

28
Q

Rifampin, Griseofulvin,

A

Inducer

29
Q

St Johns Wort

A

Inducer

30
Q

Chronic Alcohol Abuse

A

Inducer

31
Q

Macrolides, INH, Sulfonamides, Ketocolanazole, Ciprofloxacin

A

Inhibitors (MAGIC RACKS in GQ)

32
Q

Amiodarone, quinidine

A

Inhibitor

33
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Inhibitor

34
Q

Grapefruit juice

A

inhibitor

35
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Inhibitor

36
Q

Ritonavir

A

Inhibitor

37
Q

Acute Alcohol Abuse

A

Inhibitor

38
Q

Flushing

A

Vancomycin, Niacin, Ca Channel Blockers

39
Q

Vasospasm

A

Cociaine, Triptans, Ergot alkaloids

40
Q

DCM

A

-Doxyrubicin, andriaomycin, danorubicin

41
Q

Torsades

A

Class I and IIIa anti-arrythmics

42
Q

Agranulocytosis

A

Chloramphenicol, carbemazepine, cochicine, PTU, Methimazole, Dapsone

43
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Chloramphenicol, Benzene, NSAIDs, PTU/Methimazole

44
Q

Direct Coombs Hemolytic Anemia

A

Penicilin, Methyldopa

45
Q

G6PD Hemolysis

A

-Primaquine, Sulfonamide, Nitrates, INH, NSAIDs

46
Q

Megaloblastic Anemia

A

-Methotrexate, Sulfonamides, Phenytoin (also birth defects)

47
Q

Thombotic

A

-OCP (Smoking and facor V Lieden)

48
Q

Cough

A

-ACEI (prevent bradykinin breakdown) angiodemea

49
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Bleomycin, Busulfan (chemotherapy), amiodarone

50
Q

Acute Cholestatic jaundice

A

-Erythromycin

51
Q

Acute hepatic necrosis

A

-Halothane (Days) acetomeniphen, valproate, amantadine phyllodes

52
Q

hepatitis

A

INH

53
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

A

-Clindamycin, ampicilin

54
Q

Adrenocortical Insufficency

A

-Withdrawl steroids

55
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Spironolactone and CYP inhibitors (Cimetidine, alcohol, ketocolanazole)

56
Q

Hot flashes

A

Tamoxifen, Chlomafine

57
Q

hyperglycemia

A

-Steroids, protease inhibitors, thiazides, niacin, tacrolimus

58
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

-Amiodarone, sulfonamides, Lithium